ch3-GI Flashcards

1
Q

at what age does colorectal screening begin

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most common site of spread of colorectal cancer

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are some common characteristics of Gardner’s syndrome

A

polyps plus osteomas, dental abnormalities, benign soft tissue tumors, demoed tumors, sebaceous cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction in adults

A

colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of adenomatous polyp has the greatest risk of malignancy

A

adenomatous polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the most common site of diverticulosis

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the test of choice for diverticulosis

A

barium enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the diagnostic test of choice for diverticulitis

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some common signs of intestinal infarction

A

hypotension, tachypnea, lactic acidosis, fever and AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the classic presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia

A

acute onset of severe abdominal pain disproportionate to physical findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the definitive diagnostic test for acute mesenteric ischemia

A

mesenteric angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the clinical features of hepatorenal syndrome

A

azotemia, oliguria, hyponatremia, hypotension, low urine sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most common etiologic agent that causes spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the common medication treatment or Wilsons disease

A

D-penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common benign liver tumor

A

Cavernous hemangiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the liver disease caused by occlusion of hepatic venous outflow, which leads to hepatic congestion and subsequent microvascular ischemia

A

budd-chiari syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the clinical features associated with budd-chiari syndrome

A

hepatomegaly, ascites, abdominal pain (RUQ), jaundice, variceal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do you diagnose budd-chiari syndrome

A

hepatic venography; serum ascites albumin gradient > 1.1 g/dL

19
Q

what are 3 major causes of jaundice

A

hemolysis liver disease, biliary obstruction

20
Q

what type of hyperbilirubinemia should be suspected with dark urine and pale stools

A

conjugated

21
Q

what lab is often used to confirm that the ALK-P elevation is hepatic in origin

A

GGT

22
Q

what are common scenarios where albumin is decreased

A

chronic liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malnutrition, and inflammatory states

23
Q

what is the gold standard test for choledocholithiasis

A

ERCP

24
Q

what is charcots triad and what is it associated with

A

cholangitis; RUQ pain, jaundice and fever

25
Q

what should you think of in someone with liver disease who is also pruritic

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

26
Q

what is the best noninvasive test for choledochal cysts and what is the best definitive for diagnosis

A

US for non-invasive; ERCP for definitive

27
Q

how is biliary dyskinesia diagnosed

A

HIDA scan

28
Q

what is the most common site for carcinoid tumors

A

appendix

29
Q

what is the hypocalcemia seen in acute pancreatitis due to

A

fat saponification (fat necrosis binds calcium)

30
Q

what pain medications are preferred with acute pancreatitis

A

fentanyl or meperidine

31
Q

what is the most sensitive test for pancreatic cancer

A

ERCP

32
Q

what should you always ask patients with GI bleeding

A

if they take any NSAIDS/aspirin, clopidogrel, or anticoagulants

33
Q

where is the bleeding likely coming from if they have bright red blood in stool

A

lower GI source (left colon or rectum)

34
Q

what is the diagnostic test that should be ordered for evaluation of upper GI bleed

A

upper endoscopy

35
Q

what is the most common symptom of esophageal cancer

A

dysphagia

36
Q

what is the absolute criteria for diagnosis of achalasia

A

incomplete relaxation of LES, peristalsis of esophagus

37
Q

how is diffuse esophageal spasm diagnosed

A

esophageal manometry

38
Q

what are clinical features associated with esophageal diverticula

A

dysphagia, regurgitation, halitosis, weight loss, chronic cough

39
Q

what will be sign on imaging with perforation due to PUD

A

free air under diaphragm in upright Chest Xray

40
Q

what is the clinical presentation of small bowel obstruction (proximal)

A

frequent vomiting, severe pain, minimal abdominal distention

41
Q

what is the clinical presentation of small bowel obstruction (distal)

A

less frequent vomiting and significant abdominal distention

42
Q

what is the most common extra intestinal manifestation of IBD

A

arthritis

43
Q

does ulcerative colitis or crohns disease have skip lesions

A

crohns disease