Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2 PEDs > Pediatric emergencies > Flashcards

Pediatric emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Top causes of pediatric death?

A

<1yo - Genetic/developmental conditions > SIDS

1-24yo - Unintentional injuries/accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Top 5 Unintentional injuries in 9-18yo?

A
  1. MVC
  2. Drown
  3. Burn
  4. Fall
  5. Toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Primary assessment of Resus?

A 
A- Airway
B- Breathing
C- Circulation
D- Deformity/Disability
E- Environment/Exposure
ADJUNCTS - 
IVF, O2, Vitals, Glucose, Lab/Rad, monitor interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Resus fluids?

A 
Isotonic crystalloids (NS/LR)
Blood products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Isotonic crystalloid is CI w/ pRBC?

A

LR (hemolysis may occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the primary reason for cardiopulmonary arrest in PEDs? Cardiac or Pulmonary?

A

Respiratory arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Respiratory is?

A

Inability to maintain adequate gas exchange to meet metabolic demands (Even if w/ good SO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Types of respiratory failure?

A

Hypoxemic - ARDS

Hypercarbic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypoxemic Respiratory failure is considered how much partial O2?

A

<60mmHG PaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of Hypoxemic Respiratory failure?

A

Ventilation-perfusion mismatch (Lung not vent right)

Shunting - deoxy blood bypasses ventilated aveloi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Early signs of Hypoxemic Respiratory failure?

A

Tachy-P

Tachy-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Progressive signs of Hypoxemic Respiratory failure?

A

Dyspena, diaphoresis
Nasal flaring, grunting
Accessory muscles used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Late signs of Hypoxemic Respiratory failure?

A

Cyanosis and AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Subset of Hypoxemic Respiratory failure?

A

Acute lung injury/ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ARDS is?

A

Diffuse infiltrates or Pulmonary edema present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypercarbic Respiratory failure is considered how much CO2?

A

> 50mmHg CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of Hypercarbic Respiratory failure?

A

Inadequate alveolar ventilation 2nd to decreased minute ventilation (TV x RR)
or
Increased dead space ventilation (No perfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TXT of Respiratory failure

A

ABC’s, O2, Ventilation, Support, TXT underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Shock is?

A

The inability to perfuse tissues/organs to meet metabolic demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Types of shock?

A 
Hypovolemic
Distributive
Cardiogenic
Obstructive
Dissociative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S/S of inadequate tissue perfusion?

A

Increased HR
ABNL BP
Pulse alterations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MC type of shock is?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MC type of shock in PEDs?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypovolemic shock is due to?

A

Decreased blood volume

- Loss (Bld, N/V/D, Renal fluid loss, DI or DM, Burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

S/S of Hypovolemic shock?

A

Tachy-C
V-Con
Dehydration S/S (dry mucus membranes, urine output)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Distributive shock is?

A

Adequate volume but maldistribution of blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pathophys of Distributive shock is?

A

V-Dil > Venous pooling > Decreased preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MC cause of Distributive shock is??

A

Sepsis > SIRS > Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

S/S of Distributive shock is?

A 
\+- bounding pulses, HOTN, V-Con
Warm shock (Nl PE) > Cool extremities/mottling > decreased cap refill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Distributive shock due to sepsis will present w/?

A

Fever - Lethargy
Petechiae/Purpura
Infection source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cardiogenic shock is due to?

A

Decreased myocardial contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S/S of Cardiogenic shock?

A 
Tachy-P
Tachy-C
Enlarged Liver
Gallop
\+- JVD
Poor renal blood flow > Retin Na2+/H20 > oliguria and peripheral edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Standout cause of Cardiogenic shock?

A

Kawasaki Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Obstructive shock is due to?

A

Mechanical obstruction to ventricular filling/outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Causes of Obstructive shock?

A

Cardiac Tamponade
Massive PE
Tension PTX
Cardiac tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

S/S of Obstructive shock?

A

Pulses hard to feel
Delayed cap refill
Enlarged liver
JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dissociative shock is?

A

O2 not bound to Hgb or wont release from it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causes of Dissociative shock?

A

Carbon monoxide poisonin

Methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

S/S of Dissociative shock?

A

Tachy-C
Tachy-P
AMS
CV Collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

TXT of shock?

A

Recognize early (when in partial state)
Guided by S/S - CV vs Respiratory vs Renal
Loop diuretics after volume replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Leading cause of death in pediatric trauma?

A

MVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC type of trauma in Pediatrics?

A

Head trauma > limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Will a cervical XR catch injuries to the neck w/ PEDs?

A

No - too immature - require MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is SCIWORA?

A

Spinal cord injury w/out radiologic abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If SCIWORA is suspected what rad is req?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2nd leading cause of trauma type resulting in death is?

A

Thoracic trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MC thoracic injuries?

A

Contusion (MC)
Rib fractures - (Posterior = abuse)
— force to ribs transmits to lung
PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Abdominal trauma requires what type of w/u?

A

Abdominal CT and Serial PE (Surgery or not)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MC injured organ?

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the Kerh sign?

A

LUQ direct pressure causes L-shoulder pin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What sign is indicator for splenic injury?

A

Kehr sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Common MOI of splenic injury?

A

MVC or Bicycle handles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TOC of splenic injury?

A

Non-operative mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is surgery indicated for splenic injury?

A

ONLY if - hemodynamic instability or persistent blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does an aplenic (s/p splenectomy) pt req?

A

PCN prophylaxis

Vaccines (Pneumococcal and HIB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Severe hemorrhage is MC ass/w what Abdominal injury?

A

Liver injury (dual blood supply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Renal injury Dx is made via?

A

Hx, UA (blood/protein high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pancreatic injury is Dx via?

A

Abd pain, N/V, Labs (amylase/lipase high - may req days until noticeable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When should an intestinal injury be suspected?

A

Pneumoperitoneum
OR
Cant find blood source loss after a trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MC growth plate Fx locations?

A
  1. Distal Radius
  2. Distal Tibia
  3. Distal Fibula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

SALTR Harris classification of growth plate Fx?

A 
S - Separated
A - Above/Away
L - Lower/Longest end
T - Through
R - Rammed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Epiphysis is susceptible to what?

A

Angular/Torsional forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

MC non-physeal Fx?

A

Complete Fx (both sides of cortex Fx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a green stick Fx?

A 
Bone fails on tension side 
AND 
Sustains a bend on compressed side
BUT
Not enough force to create a complete Fx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Buckle Fx is AKA?

A

Torus Fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Buckle Fx is?

A
  • Torus Fx -

Bone compression w/out cortex breakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Buckle Fx MC occurs where on a bone?

A

Torus Fx - Metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A stable Buckle Fx will heal when?

A

4wks with immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Gymnasts wrist is?

A

Distal radial physis injury from RPT impacts AND UE becoming wgt bearing so much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

TXT for Gymnasts wrist is?

A

Absolute rest (PVT premature closure of growth plate)

71
Q

Lil league elbow is?

A 
Medial humeral epicondyle apophysitis
TTP at
- Medial/Lateral epicondyle
- Radial head
- Capitellum
- Olecrannon process
72
Q

Lil league elbow pathophys?

A

Excess/RPT
-tension forces across medial aspect of elbow
AND
-compression forces across lateral elbow

73
Q

TXT of Lil league elbow?

A

RICE
NSAIDs
PT - upper body strengthening/throwing mechanics

74
Q

Nursemaids elbow is?

A

Radial head subluxation - out of annular ligament surrounding radial head w/ traction at elbow

75
Q

TXT for Nursemaids elbow?

A

Reduction
Supinate hand w/ pressure on radial head
THEN
Flex elbow 90*

76
Q

Are XR req for Nursemaids elbow?

A

No - unless unable to reduce OR S/S of Fx

77
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz is?

A

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of Capital epiphysis of femoral head

78
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz is ass/w what coag d/o?

A

Factor V leiden (hypercoagulability)

79
Q

Gender/Avg age of Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz?

A

Boys - 7yo (3-12)

80
Q

Classic presentation of Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz?

A

Atraumatic Hx
Painless limp
Late/Delayed presentation due to minimal discomfort
LROM - internal rotation/abduction
Mild pain - hip/groin, anterior thigh, knee

81
Q

Dx of Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz via?

A

AP and Frog leg hip XR
OR
MRI or Bone scan to Dx early Disease

82
Q

TXT of Legg-Calve-Perthes Dz consists of?

A

SL - Ortho refer
NSAIDs/Pain control
Containment of Femoral head in Acetabulum

83
Q

What orthopedic related disorder is a Emergency?

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

84
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis Gender/age?

A

Males - 10-16yo (M=12 and F=11)

- if not in this age range think = endocrine D/O

85
Q

Is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis bilateral or unilateral?

A

Unilateral - sometimes bilateral or develops into bilateral

86
Q

How is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis classified + classification via XR?

A

Stable vs Unstable

Displacement Types I, II, III(MC)

87
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis presents as?

A

Pain - hip/knee
Limp or inability to walk
Antalgic gait
LROM of hip (internal rotation) - Holds in Ext rotation

88
Q

XR eval of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

AP/Frog leg XR

89
Q

Earliest XR sign of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis will show?

A

Physis widening w/out slippage AKA

PRESLIP condition

90
Q

TXT of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

PVT further slippage AND close physeal
Immediate Non-wgt bearing
PEDs ortho refer
Internal fixation or Surgical hip dislocation/reduction

91
Q

Complications of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

Chondrolysis - (Cartilage destruction)

Avascular necrosis > OA

92
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease is/pathophys?

A

Pain at patellar tendon insertion on tibial tubercle

  • Quadricep contraction stress pulling on tendon >
  • MicroFx/partial avulsion fx
93
Q

When does Osgood-Schlatter disease typically occur?

A

After growth spurt

94
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease gender/age?

A

Boys (M=13-14yo and F=11)

95
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease presents as?

A

TTP/edema over tibial tubercle

Pain after activity

96
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease Rads and purpose?

A

XR to r/o Fx, infection, tumor

97
Q

TXT/timeframe of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Benign course over 1-2yr
Rest/activity mod
Pain control/Ice
PT - mDecrease extremity flexibility/strength exercise

98
Q

What is ALTE (acute life threatening event)?

A

Unexpected change in condition to

  • Apnea
  • Color change (blue/pale)
  • Suddenly limp
  • Choke/gagging
99
Q

MC causes of ALTE?

A

GERD
Laryngospasm
Then (CNS, CV, Resp infection, serious bacterial infection)

100
Q

Eval of ALTE?

A

Labs - CMP, CBC, Bood gas, CXR, MRI/CT Head, EEG
Test for RSV or Pertussis
Braium swallow or pH probe (GERD)
Admit 12-24h - CV monitoring

101
Q

Drowning is classified as?

A

Fatal vs Non-Fatal

102
Q

Drowning pathophys?

A 
Submersion >
Aspiration of fluid into larynx >
Breath holding or Laryngospasm >
More fluid or gastric contents aspirated >
Surfactant destroyed >
No gas exchange >
Hypoxemia >
Brain injury
103
Q

Mgmt of drowning?

A

Resus

  • ABCs
  • Unwitnessed drowning = C-spine
  • O2 - cerebral perfusion
  • rewarm hypothermic pts
  • monitor pH, CV, Pulm, CNS - ICU 6-12h
104
Q

Who will likely survive drownings?

A

Pts that regain consciousness on arrival to hospital

105
Q

Unfavorable prognosis indicators of drowning?

A 
>25m CPR
CPR continued into hospital
GCS <6
Fixed/dilated pupils
Seizures
>72h Coma
106
Q

Types of Burns?

A

Superficial (1st D)
Superficial partial thickness (2nd D)
Deep partial thickness (2nd D)
Full thickness burn (3 and 4th D)

107
Q

Superficial (1st D*) attributes?

A

Red, painful, dry
Epidermis only
Sun burn/mild scald injury
DO NOT include in BSA calculations

108
Q

How much time for Superficial (1st D*) to heal?

A

2-5d w/out scarring

109
Q

Superficial partial thickness (2nd D*) attributes?

A

Fluid blisters > debride = Red, wet, painful w/ blanching

All of Epidermis and portion of dermis

110
Q

How much time for Superficial partial thickness (2nd D*) to heal?

A

W/in 2wks w/out scarring or grafting

111
Q

Deep partial thickness (2nd D*) attributes?

A

2nd D* burn (But like a full thickness in attributes)
+- Blistering - less blanching, mottled pink/white
Less painful than superficial 2nd

112
Q

Deep partial thickness (2nd D*) Mgmt?

A

Often require Excise and graft

113
Q

Full thickness burn (3 and 4th D*) attributes?

A

All layers of skin involved
Color = Dry, white, dark red, brown/black in colors
Does not blanch
No feeling/pain

114
Q

Full thickness burn (3 and 4th D*) Mgmt?

A

Surgical - grafting

+- Reconstruction if 4th D*

115
Q

Difference between 3rd and 4th degree?

A

4th degree involves Fascia, Muscle, or bone

And requires reconstruction

116
Q

Blanching vs Non-blanching burns?

A

Blanches - Superficial (1st D)
Blanches - Superficial partial thickness (2nd D)
Less blanching/pain - Deep partial thickness (2nd D)
No blanching/pain - Full thickness burn (3 and 4th D)

117
Q

Suspect inhalation burn if what is present?

A

Facial burns
Singed nasal hairs
Carbonaceous Sputum
Hoarseness = Supraglottic injury

118
Q

Infant BSA rule?

A

HEAD, FRONT, BACK = 18
Arm = 9/per
Leg = 14/per

119
Q

Transfer to PEDs to burn center when?

A

> 10% Partial/full thickness (<10yo or >50yo)
20% if 11-49yo
Partial/full thick - Face,Hands,Feet,Genitals,Major Joints
Electrical, Chemical, Inhalation
Burns w/ trauma
Burns w/ comorbidities

120
Q

Acute Mgmt of burns?

A 
Early intubate - inhalation burn
100% humidified air
CO toxicity reversal
IVF
PVT hypothermia
Wound Care
Pain control
121
Q

IVF mgmt calculation of acute mgmt of burns?

A

LR - Initial blous = 20mL/kg
Parkland formula over next 48h
Titrate Urine output >1mL/Kg/hr

122
Q

Parkland formula is?

A

LR - 4mL/kg/BSA % over 24hrs
Half w/in 1st 8hrs
Half over next 16hrs

123
Q

After LR in Parklands formula what should be next fluid used?

A

D5 1/4 NS - Next 24hrs

124
Q

Burns will put metabolism in what type of state?

A

Hypermetabolic - nutrition support required

125
Q

What topical agents are recommended for Burn wounds?

A

Silver sulfadiazine

Polymyxin B - (Bacitracin/Neomycin) (Neosporin)

126
Q

TXT of acute poisoning?

A

Single or Multiple dose activated charcoal

Toxin specific antidotes

127
Q

Activated charcoal purpose?

A

Decrease drug absorption w/in 1hr of ingestion

128
Q

What will activated charcoal not work against?

A

Caustic/corrosive agents
Hydrocarbons
Heavy metals

129
Q

When should multiple dosed activated charcoal be used?

A

Ingested life threatening quantity of

  • Carbamazepine
  • Dapsone
  • Phenobarbital
  • Quinine
  • Theophylline
130
Q

Txt of ASA or methotrexate ingestion?

A

Alkalization of urine - PVT reabsorption

131
Q

Dialysis may be required for acute poisoning if?

A 
Methanol, Ethylene glycol
ASA
Theophylline
Bromide
Lithium
132
Q

DO NOT perform these procedures in acute poisoning of pts?

A

Syrup of ipecac

Gastric lavage

133
Q

Complications of poisoning

A

Dysrythmias
GI S/S
Seizures

134
Q

Classic triad of Narcotic poisoning?

A

Miosis
Decreased AMS
Resp depression

135
Q

TXT of Narcotic poisoning?

A

Naloxone (Narcan)
<1yo - 1 ampule
>1yo - 2 ampules
RPT doses Q/20-60m (T1/2)

136
Q

Iron poisoning presents as?

A 
Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis 30-60m after ingestion 
AND lasts 4-6 hr
Pt may appear okay at 2-12hrs 
BUT
HOTN starts at 12-48h
137
Q

Complications of Iron poisoning?

A

Hepatitis
HOTN
Bleeding GI w/ scarring or stenosis >3wks

138
Q

TXT of Iron poisoning?

A

Deferoxamine (IM, SQ, IV)
Support
- Hemodialysis or Trxf PRN

139
Q

When is Deferoxamine CI?

A

Renal failure

140
Q

What infection may result in Iron poisoning?

A

Yersinia Sepsis

141
Q

APAP poisoning lab value?

A

> 140mg/kg

142
Q

APAP poisoning presents as?

A

2-24h - N/V, Malaise, diaphoresis
24-48h - pt looks better but hepatotoxic effects starts
>48h - Hepatic necrosis (Jaundice, HO-Glu, Coag d/o) AND then
Hepatic encephalopathy = coma

143
Q

TXT of APAP poisoning?

A

N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst/Mucosil)

- Load dose > q4h 17 doses

144
Q

Pathophys of ASA poisoning?

A

Early - Respiratory Alkalosis - Tachy-P

Late - Metabolic acidosis - Late severe anion gap

145
Q

ASA poisoning presents as?

A

1st - Hyperventilation

N/V > Dehydration > Fever

146
Q

Mgmt of ASA poisoning?

A 
Serum ASA levels - If NL rpt at 6h post ingestion
Charcoal
Monitor
Urine alkalizatione (IV Bicarb, D5W)
Support
147
Q

Lead poisoning presents as?

A

Insidious onset of -
Weak, Lethargy, Atacia, growth delay, School issues
- Convulsions, Coma - if severe

148
Q

Lead poisoning CBC diff appearance?

A

Hypochromic microcytic anemia

149
Q

TXT of lead poisoning?

A

EDTA
Dimercaprol - peanut oil (CI?)
Succimer (DMSA-Dimercaptosuccinic acid)

150
Q

CO poisoning presents as?

A

Flu-like S/S (HA, malaise, nausea)
Cherry-red complexion
Groups of people affected

151
Q

Dx of CO poisoning?

A

Carboxy-Hgb level

Hx of flu-like illness ass/w groups

152
Q

TXT of CO poisoning?

A

100% O2 - nonrebreather

Hyperbaric Oxygen PRN

153
Q

Methanol poisoning presents as due to what metabolite?

A

Formic acid > Retinal edema, Optic papillitis

154
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning presents as due to what metabolite?

A

Oxalic acid > Renal/CNS toxicity

155
Q

TXT of Methanol/ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

10% ethanol AND D5W

Fomepizole - alcohol dehydrohenase inhibitor

156
Q

Supplementation for Methanol vs ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Methanol = Folic acid

Ethylene glycol = Thiamine and B6

157
Q

Methanol/ethylene glycol poisoning will both present w/ what pH d/o Metabolic/respiratory-Alkalosis/acidosis?

A

Metabolic acidosis

158
Q

Organophosphate poisoning presentas as? Mnemonic?

A 
SLUDGE
S- Salivation
L- Lacrimation
U- Urination
D- Defacation/Diarrhea
G- Gastroenteritis
E- Emesis
AND - Pinpoint pupils
159
Q

TXT of Organophosphate poisoning?

A

In order!!!
1L - Atropine 0.05mg/kg - until secretion stops
THEN
Pralidoxime (2-PAM) for muscle weakness

160
Q

Hydrocarbon poisoning TXT?

A

O2 and respiratory support

161
Q

Nicotine poisoning presents as?

A

Moderate dose - Tachy-C, HTN, and SLUDGE
Large dose - CNS depression, paralysis, Resp failure
- coma/death

162
Q

TXT of Nicotine poisoning

A

Charcoal
Atropine
Support

163
Q

Types of FOB ingestion requiring surgical retrieval?

A

Button batteries
Toothpicks/Open safety pins
FOB w/ GI S/S - (pain/vomiting)
FOB remaining in Esophagus > 18h OR GI tract >5D

164
Q

MC side FOB aspiration go?

A

Right mainstem bronchus

165
Q

TXT of FOB aspiration?

A

Endoscopic retrieval

166
Q

Urticaria is?

A

Hives - IgE mediated response

- Swelling of the dermis that is pruritic

167
Q

Angioedema is?

A

Urticaria that extends into dermis causing swelling +- erythema but w/out itching.

168
Q

Which is accompanied w/ itching - Urticaria or Angioedema?

A

Urticaria only

169
Q

Anaphylaxis rxn is?

A

Systemic IgE rxn - V-dil and increased permeability

170
Q

Anaphylactoid rxn is?

A

Systemic non-IgE rxn - Histamine release to Anaphylatoxins - Serum sickness

171
Q

Anaphylatoxins include?

A

C3a and C5a - complement

172
Q

Anaphylaxis TXT?

A

1L - Epinephrine > IV vasopressors if refract HOTN
Avoidance
ABC’s, IVF, O2, monitor

173
Q

Cautions to consider w/ Anaphylaxis?

A

Relapse 4-6hr after initial event

174
Q

Anaphylaxis PVT?

A

EpiPen -
Epi Jr. - 15-30kg
EpiPen - >30kg

Phase 2 PEDs (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions