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Nursing 232- Exam 2 > Pediatric Disorders > Flashcards

Pediatric Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Recite the vaccination rap (see word document)

A 
can i get a Beat
2,4,6 and go
Be DR.HIP
DR.HIP
I Be DR.HIP
For 12 to 18 months i had MAAD HPV
4 to 6 years a Very DIM time for me
11 to 12 Tada He likes Men
at 16 was when he Married ben.
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2
Q

______is a virus that causes gastroenteritis . This disease causes severe watery ____, often with vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. In babies and young children, it can lead to ______.

A
  • Rotavirus
  • Diarrhea (leading cause of diarrhea in children around the world)
  • Dehydration
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3
Q

_____ is a serious disease caused by a toxin (poison) made by _____. It causes a thick coating in the back of the ___ or _____ that makes it hard to ____ or ____. It can be _____.

A
  • Diphtheria
  • Bacteria
  • Nose or throat
  • Breathe or swallow
  • DEADLY
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4
Q

_____ AKA _____is a very serious respiratory (in the ____ and _____ ) infection caused by the _____bacteria. It causes violent coughing you can’t stop. Most harmful for _____ and can be ____.

A
  • Whooping cough AKA Pertussis
  • Lungs and breathing tubes
  • Pertussis bacteria
  • Young babies
  • DEADLY
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5
Q

The vaccine called ____ (Prevnar) protects against the _____ types that cause most of the severe illness in children. The vaccine can also help prevent some ______.

A
  • PCV13
  • 13 types of Pneumococcal bacteria
  • Ear infections
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6
Q

The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine protects against how many types of bacteria? What ages are this recommended for? What if cigarette use is involved?

A
  • 23 types of bacteria (Pneumovax)
  • Recommended for 65 and older, and 2 years and older at high risk for disease.
  • Also recommended for 19-64 if cigarettes are used
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7
Q

Poliomyelitis is a disease caused by _____. Can lead to lifelong ____ or even _____.

A
  • Polio virus
  • Paralysis
  • DEATH
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8
Q

what age can the first flu vaccination be administered? who is especially at danger if they contract the flu (3 answers)

A
  • 6 months

* Young children, anyone with asthma, diabetics

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9
Q

If a pregnant woman gets infected with this Virus it can cause serious birth defects? what is the vaccination for this?

A
  • Rubella

* MMR

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10
Q

Children who get the MMR vaccine that is combined with Varicella (chicken pox) vaccine between 12-23 months have a high risk of _____caused by _____.

A

*Seizures
*Caused by fever
(this is rare)

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11
Q

At what ages is it recommended that the HPV vaccine be given? How many doses and How far apart?

A
  • 11-12 years old

* 2 doses- 6 months apart

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12
Q

Teens and young adults who start the HPV series later, at ages ____ through ____, will continue to need ___ doses of HPV vaccine to protect against _____ causing HPV infection.

A
  • 15-26
  • Three doses
  • Cancer causing HPV infection
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13
Q

Both Cleft Lip/Palate are _____ anomalies resulting from failure of ____/____ structure to ___ during embryonic development.. The cause is? Are these isolated conditions?

A
  • Congenital
  • Tissue/bony structure
  • Fuse
  • Cause unknown, possibly environmental
  • Can be isolated or component of another disease/syndrome
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14
Q

About 50% of all clefts are what? Describe this type?

A
  • Cleft-lip palate

* Combo of both cleft lip and palate

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15
Q

Over exposure to radiation in the environment, which can lead to birth defects is due to what natural disaster?

A

Carol

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16
Q

Clefts are more common in ____ children with ethnic backgrounds of ___ and ____, and less common in ____.

A
  • Male children
  • Asians and American Indians
  • Less common in African Americans
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17
Q

Although causes for Clefts are unknown, what are some possible cause?

A
  • Deficiency in folic acid
  • Alcohol
  • Smoking
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18
Q

What 3 medications may contribute to Cleft disorders?

A
  • Accutane
  • Pheytoin
  • Topamax
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19
Q

5 complications that can come from Cleft disorders?

A
  • Breathing Issues
  • Feeding/swallowing problems
  • Repeat ear infections/hearing loss
  • Speech/Language delays
  • Dental problems
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20
Q

How does a nurse assess for a cleft palate?

A

*Can either be visualized or palpated with gloved finger if mild.

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21
Q

In cleft disorders, secondary to fluid in ____ ear, ear _____ inserted to alleviate _____.

A
  • Middle ear
  • Ear tubes
  • Fluid build up
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22
Q

What age can a cleft lip be repaired? What does the infant need to be free of in order for surgery to be performed?

A
  • At any age but usually done at 10-12 weeks old

* Oral, respiratory, systemic infections

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23
Q

In cleft disorders, nasal and maxillary processes fail to close around __-___ weeks after conception

A

*4-10 weeks

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24
Q

When is the cleft palate surgery postponed until? Why?

A
  • 6 to 18 months

* Allows for physiologic changes to take place first.

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25
Q

POST OP CARE for Cleft surgery.

  • What restrictions is the child placed on?
  • Positioning for child?
  • How is the suture line kept in tact?
  • Interventions are geared towards what?
A
  • NPO immediately after surgery
  • Placed on back or side
  • Logan bow or steri strips taped to face
  • Prevention of suture disruption
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26
Q

What is used for feeding of cleft client post operatively? What does it do?

A
  • A special nipple known as a Breck feeder or Haberman feeder
  • Regulates the flow of formula into mouth
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27
Q

3 Interventions to avoid suture disruption in cleft surgery?

A
  • No suctioning, straws, pacifiers
  • No breastfeeding (special nipple
  • Soft elbow restraints may be used for 2 to 3 weeks to prevent child from touching suture line
28
Q

Extent of cleft palate can be seen when?

A

*During crying

29
Q

Hydrocephalus is characterized by an imbalance between____production and absorption, resulting in enlarged ______ and an increase in ____. If left untreated, can lead to ______.

A
  • CSF
  • ENLARGED VENTRICLES
  • INCREASED ICP
  • PERMANENT BRAIN DAMAGE
30
Q

Hydrocephalus occurs before _____ start to fuse. When do these usually close?

A
  • Cranial sutures/fontanels
  • Anterior fontanels close 12-14 months
  • posterior close around 4 months
31
Q

Cause of hydrocephalus can be ____ or ____.

A

*congenital or acquired

32
Q

Normal ICP for infants? Young children?

A
  • 2-6 for infants

* 3-7 for young children

33
Q

Arnold Chiari Malformation is a malformation of the brain, consisting of ______ displacement of the _____ _____. through the ____ ____. This causes _______ hydrocephalus as a result of the obstruction of the _____.

A
  • Downward
  • Cerebellar tonsils
  • Foramen magnum
  • Non communicating
  • CSF
34
Q

Hydrocephalus is often associated with ________, which should be observed for. What is this a type of and what occurs?

A

*Myelomeningocele
*Type of spina bifida
*Birth defect in which spinal canal and back bone do not close before birth. Visible outside of the body.
(Most severe form)

35
Q

What allergy is associated with Myelomeningocele?

36
Q

Type of _____ where spinal cord is malformed but the spinal cord and nerves are normal.

A

*SB occulta

37
Q

Type of ____ where the membrane that surrounds the spinal cord is enlarged, creating a mass.

A

Meningocele

38
Q

4 S/S of SEVERE spina bifida?

A
  • Visualization of myelomeningocele
  • Neurological deficits
  • Hip and joint deformities
  • Impaired bowl and bladder
39
Q

4 S/S of moderate/mild spina bifida

A
  • Visualization of meningocele or myelomeningocele
  • Weakness
  • Paralysis
  • Sensory loss
40
Q

5 S/S of hydrocephalus

A
  • SUNSETTING EYES (Downward deviation)
  • Rapid increase in head circumference
  • Vomiting
  • Lethargy/irritability
  • Seizures
41
Q

Average size of newborn head circumference? How much larger is the head circumference than the chest circumference in a hydrocephalus client?

A
  • 35 cm

* 6 cm or larger difference

42
Q

Surgical Treatment for hydrocephalus is accomplished by removal of _____, or a shunt that provides primary ____ of the ___ from the ___. Called a ______ Shunt

A
  • obstruction/tumor
  • Drainage of CSF
  • Ventricles
  • VP shunt
43
Q

When can Spina Bifida be diagnosed prenatally?

A

*12-14 weeks prenatally

44
Q

What Prenatal blood test can be done to determine if SPINA BIFIDA is present? What will it look like and why?

A
  • Alpha-fetoprotein

* Increased value may signify Neural Tube defect (open neural defect leaks into amniotic fluid

45
Q

What can be used to identify neurological structures inside the sac?

A

*MRI or CT scan

46
Q

What can be taken by mother to help prevent spina bifida, and how much?

A
  • Folic Acid

* 400 mcg

47
Q

Besides folic acid, what are 4 other preventative measures that can be taken for spina bifida?

A
  • GOOD NUTRITION
  • Decrease environmental factors
  • Decrease exposure to hyperthermia
  • If DM is present, have glucose carefully monitored.
48
Q

What is the priority nursing concern for baby with spina bifida? (2 parts)

A
  • Infection of Sac

* Prevention of injury

49
Q

In spina bifida client, If sac ruptures and break, patient is at risk for what?

A

Meningitis

50
Q

what are two types of medications that have links to the cause of spina bifida?

A
  • anticonvulsants

* antipsychotics

51
Q

What can be done to prevent infection in spina bifida client?

A
  • Side lying position

* Sterile Gauze (prevent from drying)(no alcohol or iodine)

52
Q

5 S/S of shunt malfunction or infection?

A
  • Increased head circumference/Bulging fontanelle
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Drowsiness
  • Convulsions
53
Q

increase in number of cells/Increased mass

A

*Hyperplasia

54
Q

increased size of the muscle cells.

A

*Hypertrophy

55
Q

Pyloric stenosis Occurs when the circular muscle of the pylorus becomes _____, causing _____ of the pylorus and _____ of the _____ outlet. The enlarged size is a result of____ and _____.

A
  • Thickened
  • Constriction
  • Obstruction of gastric outlet
  • Hypertrophy and Hyperplasia

(note: this is right above duodenum)

56
Q

When does pyloric stenosis usually present? Who is it more common in?

A
  • 1-4 weeks of age

* More common in first born children and males.

57
Q

Surgical treatment for pyloric stenosis: _____is performed to relieve the obstruction. An _____ is made along the _____ to split the ____.

A
  • Pyloromyotomy
  • Incision
  • Anterior pylorus
  • Splits the muscle
58
Q

5 classic S/S of pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Projectile nonbilious vomiting
  • Fussiness(high pitched cry)/Constant hunger (weight loss)
  • Abdominal distention
  • Visible pyloric waves from LUQ to RUQ immediately before vomitting
  • Olive size nodule
59
Q

With pyloric stenosis a palpable olive size nodule may be present where?

60
Q

Signs of dehydration accompany _____ in pyloric stenosis. What are 4 signs of dehydration in an infant? What lab value may increase due to dehydration?

A
  • Accompany vomitting
  • Sunken fontanels
  • Decreased urine output
  • Poor skin turgor
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • H/H
61
Q

What two labs will be increased in pyloric stenosis? What 3 will be decreased? What does this signify?

A
  • Increased Ph and Bicarb
  • Decreased Na, K, Cl
  • METABOLIC ALKALOSIS
62
Q

Normal ranges for Ph? Bicarb? Na? K? CL?

A
  • 7.35-7.45 (ph)
  • 22-26 (Bicarb)
  • 135-145 (Na)
  • 3.5-5 (K)
  • 96-106 (Cl)
63
Q

Prior to surgery for pyloric stenosis an infant should be kept _____. Restore ____ with IV fluids. Check hydration status with ____ and ___. Maintain _____. Protect against _____.

A
  • Kept NPO
  • Restore fluid and electrolytes
  • Check hydration status w/ I+O and specific gravity
  • Maintain NG tube
  • Protect against infection
64
Q

Why is an NG tube used in Pyloric stenosis prior to surgery?

A

*Gastric lavage - stomach irrigation

65
Q

Normal Specific gravity range? What does it mean if its low/high?

A
  • 1.001-1.030
  • Low means dilute urine (Kidney failure)
  • High means concentrated urine (Dehydration)
66
Q

what can be offered by mouth post Pyloromyotomy? For how long?

A
  • Clear liquids

* 4 to 6 hours post op (slowly and frequently)

Nursing 232- Exam 2 (11 decks)

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