Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiology > Pearls & Gems > Flashcards

Pearls & Gems Flashcards

1
Q

Cervical kyphosis

A

NF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lateral thoracic meningocele

A

NF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bilateral optic nerve gliomas

A

NF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannoma

A

NF-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Retinal hamartoma

A

TS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Retinal angioma

A

VHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Brain tumor with restricted diffusion

A

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Brain tumor crossing midline

A

GBM (or lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cyst and Nodule in Child (neuro)

A

Pilocystic Astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyst and Nodule in Adult (neuro)

A

Hemangioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Multiple hemangioblastomas (neuro)

A

Von Hippel Lindau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Swiss cheese tumor in ventricle (neuro)

A

Central neurocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CN3 palsy

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CN6 palsy

A

Increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ventricles out of size to atrophy (neuro)

A

NPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemorrhagic putamen

A

Methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Decreased FDG uptake in the lateral occipital cortex

A

Lewy body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TORCH with periventricular calcification

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TORCH with hydrocephalus

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TORCH with hemorrhagic infarction

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neonatal infection with frontal lobe atrophy

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rapidly progressing dementia + rapidly progressing atrophy

A

CJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Expanding the cortex (neuro)

A

Oligodendroglioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tumor acquired after trauma (LP)

A

Epidermoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Palate separated from the maxilla/Floating Palate

A

LeFort 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maxilla separated from the face (or “pyramidal”)

A

LeFort 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Face separated from the cranium

A

LeFort 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Airless expanded sinus (neuro)

A

Mucocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DVA

A

Cavernous malformation nearby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Single vascular lesion in the pons

A

Capillary telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Elevated NAA peak (neuro)

A

Canvans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tigroid appearance (neuro section)

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Endolymphatic sac tumor (neuro)

A

VHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T1 bright in the petrous apex

A

Cholesterol granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Restricted diffusion in the petrous apex

A

Cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lateral rectal palsy + otomastoiditis

A

Grandenigo Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cochlea and semicircular canal enhancement

A

Labrinthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Conductive hearing loss in adult

A

Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Noise induced vertigo

A

Superior semicircular canal dehiscence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Widening of the maxillary ostium

A

Antrochonal polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Inverting papilloma (neuro)

A

Squamous cell CA (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Adenoid cystic carcinoma of salivary gland

A

Perineural spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Left sided vocal cord paralysis

A

Look in the AP window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bilateral coloboma

A

CHARGE Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Retinal detachment + small eye

A

Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bilateral small eye

A

Retinopathy of prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Calcification in the globe of a child

A

Retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fluid-fluid levels in the orbit

A

Lymphangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Orbital lesion, worse with valsalva

A

Varix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pulsatile exophthalmos

A

NF-1 and CC Fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sphenoid wing dysplasia

A

NF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Scimitar sacrum

A

Currarino Triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bilateral symmetrically increased T2 signal in the dorsal columns

A

B12 (or HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Owl eye appearance of spinal cord

A

Spinal cord infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Enhancement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina

A

Guillain barre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Subligamentous spread of infection

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Posterior elbow dislocation

A

Capitellum fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Chondroblastoma in an adult

A

Clear cell chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Malignant epiphyseal lesion

A

Clear cell chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Permeative lesion in diaphysis of a child

A

Ewings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T2 bright lesion in the sacrum

A

Chordoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Lytic T2 DARK lesion (MSK)

A

Fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sarcomatous transformation of an infarct

A

MFH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Epiphyseal lesion that is NOT T2 Bright

A

Chondroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Short 4th metacarpal

A

Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism and Turner Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Band like acro-osteolysis

A

Hajdu-Cheney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Fat containing tumor in the retroperitoneum

A

Liposarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sarcoma in the foot

A

Synovial sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Avulsion of the lesser trochanter

A

Pathological fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cross over sign (MSK section)

A

Pincher type femoroacetabular impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Segond fracture

A

ACL Tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Reverse Segond fracture

A

PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Arcuate sign (MSK Section)

A

Fibular Head avulsion or PCL tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Deep interchondylar notch

A

ACL tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bilateral patellar tendon ruptured

A

Chronic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Wide ankle mortise

A

Show me the proximal fibula (Maisonneuve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bilateral calcaneus fractures

A

Show me the spinal compression fracture (“lover’s leap”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Dancer with lateral foot pain

A

Avulsion of 5th metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Old lady with sudden knee pain with standing

A

SONK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Looser’s Zones

A

Osteomalacia or rickets (vit D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Unilateral RA with preserved joint spaces

A

RSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

T2 Bright tumor in finger

A

Glomus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Blooming in tumor in finger

A

Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath (PVNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Atrophy of teres minor

A

Quadrilateral space syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Subluxation of the biceps tendon

A

Subscapularis tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Too many bow ties (MSK Section)

A

Discoid meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Celery Stalk ACL -T2

A

Mucoid degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Drumstick ACL-T1

A

Mucoid degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Acute flat foot

A

Posterior tibial tendon tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Boomerang shaped peroneus brevis

A

Tear or split tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Meniscoid Mass in the lateral gutter of the ankle

A

Anteriolateral impingement Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Scar between 3rd and 4th metatarsals

A

Morton’s neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Osteomyelitis in the spine

A

IV drug user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Osteomyelitis in the spine with kyphosis

A

TB (Gibbus Deformity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Unilateral SI joint lysis

A

IV drug user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Psoas muscle abscess

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Rice bodies in joint

A

TB - sloughed synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Calcification along the periphery (MSK Section)

A

Myositis ossificans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Calcifications more dense in the center (MSK Section)

A

Osteosarcoma - reverse zoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Permeative lesion in diaphysis of a child

A

Ewings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Long lesion in a long bone

A

Fibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Large amount of edema for the size of the lesion (MSK)

A

Osteoid osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Cystic bone lesion that is not T2 bright

A

Chondroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Lesion in the finger of a kid

A

Periosteal chondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Looks like NOF in the anterior tibia with anterior bowing

A

Osteofibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

RA + Pneumoconiosis

A

Caplan Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

RA + big spleen + neutropenia

A

Felty Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Epiphyseal overgrowth

A

JRA (or hemophilia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Reducible deformity of joints - in hand

A

Lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Destructive mass in a bone of a leukemia patient

A

Chloroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Shrinking breast

A

ILC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Thick Coopers ligaments (mammo)

A

Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Thick fuzzy coopers ligaments - with normal skin (mammo)

A

Blur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Dashes but no dots (mammo Section)

A

Secretory calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Cigar shaped calcifications (mammo)

A

Secretory calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Popcorn calcifications (mammo)

A

Degenerated fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Breast within a breast

A

Hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Fat-fluid level (mammo)

A

Galactocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Rapid growing fibroadenoma (mammo)

A

Phyllodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Swollen red breast not responding to antibiotics

A

Inflammatory breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Lines radiating to a single point (mammo)

A

Architectural distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Architectural distortion + calcifications (mammo)

A

IDC + DCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Architectural distortion without calcifications (mammo)

A

ILC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Stepladder Sign (mammo)

A

Intracapsular rupture on US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Linguine sign (mammo)

A

Intracapsular rupture on MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Residual calcs in the lumpectomy bed (mammo)

A

Local recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

No calcs in the core (mammo)

A

Milk of calcium (requires polarized light to be seen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Subglottic hemangioma (peds)

A

PHACES Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

PHACES Syndrome (peds)

A

Cutaneous hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Ropy appearance (peds)

A

Meconium aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Post term delivery (peds)

A

Meconium aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Fluid in the fissures (peds)

A

Transient tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

History of c-section (peds)

A

Transient tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Maternal sedation (peds)

A

Transient tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Granular opacities + premature (peds)

A

RDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Granular opacities + term + high lung volume (peds)

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Granular opacities + term + low lung volume (peds)

A

B-hemolytic strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Band like opacities (peds)

A

Chronic lung disease (BPD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Linear lucencies (peds)

A

Pulmonary interstitial emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia (peds)

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Lung cysts and nodules (peds)

A

LCH or papillomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Lower lobe bronchiectasis (peds)

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Upper lobe bronchiectasis (peds)

A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Posterior mediastinal mass, under 2 (peds)

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

No air in stomach (peds)

A

Esophageal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Excessive air in stomach (peds)

A

H type TE fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Anterior esophageal impression (peds)

A

Pulmonary sling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Pulmonary Sling (peds)

A

Tracheal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Single bubble (peds)

A

Gastric (antral or pyloric) atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Double Bubble (peds)

A

Duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Duodenal atresia (peds)

A

Downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Single bubble with distal gas (peds)

A

Maybe Mid Gut Volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Non-bilious vomiting (peds)

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Paradoxical aciduria (peds)

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Bilious vomiting - in an infant (peds)

A

Mid gut volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Corkscrew duodenum (peds)

A

Mid gut volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Reversed SMA and SMV (peds)

A

Malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Absent gallbladder (peds)

A

Biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Triangle cord sign (peds)

A

Biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Asplenia (peds)

A

Cyanotic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Infarcted spleen (peds)

A

Sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Gall stones (peds)

A

Sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Short microcolon (peds)

A

Colonic atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Long microcolon (peds)

A

Meconium ileus or distal ileal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Saw tooth colon (peds)

A

Hirschsprung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Calcified mass in the mid abdomen of a newborn

A

Meconium peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Meconium ileus equivalent (peds)

A

Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (CF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Abrupt caliber change of the aorta below the celiac axis (peds)

A

Hepatic hemangioendothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Cystic mass in the liver of a newborn

A

Mesenchymal Hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Elevated AFP, with mass in the liver of a newborn

A

Hepatoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Common bile duct measures more than 10mm (peds)

A

Choledochal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas (peds)

A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Unilateral renal agenesis (peds)

A

Unicornuate uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Neonatal renal vein thrombosis

A

Maternal diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Neonatal renal artery thrombosis

A

Misplaced umbilical artery catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Hydro on fetal MRI

A

Posterior urethral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Urachus (peds)

A

Bladder adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Nephroblastomatosis with necrosis (peds)

A

Wilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Solid renal tumor of infancy

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Solid renal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Midline pelvic mass, in a female (peds)

A

Hydrometrocolpos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Right sided vericocele (peds)

A

Abdominal pathology

183
Q

Blue Dot Sign (peds)

A

Torsion of the testicular appendages

184
Q

Hand or foot pain/swelling in an infant

A

Sickle cell with hand foot syndrome

185
Q

Extratesticular scrotal mass (peds)

A

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

186
Q

Narrowing of the interpedicular distance (peds)

A

Achondroplasia

187
Q

Platyspondyly (flat vertebral bodies ) (peds)

A

Thanatophoric

188
Q

Absent tonsils after 6 months (peds)

A

Immune deficiency

189
Q

Enlarged tonsils well after childhood (like 12-15)

A

Cancer….probably lymphatic

190
Q

Mystery liver abscess in kid

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

191
Q

Narrowed B ring (GI)

A

Schatzki (Schat”B”ki Ring )

192
Q

Esophageal concentric rings

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

193
Q

Shaggy or plaque-like esophagus

A

Candidiasis

194
Q

Looks like candida, but an asymptomatic old lady (GI)

A

Glycogen Acanthosis

195
Q

Reticular mucosal pattern (GI)

A

Barretts

196
Q

High stricture with an associated hiatal hernia (GI)

A

Barretts

197
Q

Abrupt shoulders (GI)

A

Cancer

198
Q

Killian dehiscence (GI)

A

Zenker diverticulum

199
Q

Transient, fine transverse folds across the esophagus

A

Feline esophagus

200
Q

Bird’s beak (GI)

A

Achalasia

201
Q

Solitary esophageal ulcer

A

CMV or AIDS

202
Q

Ulcers at the level of the arch or distal esophagus

A

Medication induced

203
Q

Breast cancer + bowel Hamartomas

A

Cowdens

204
Q

Desmoid tumors + bowel polyps

A

Gardners

205
Q

Brain tumors + bowel polyps

A

Turcots

206
Q

Enlarged left supraclavicular node

A

Virchow Node (GI Cancer)

207
Q

Crosses the pylorus (GI)

A

Gastric lymphoma

208
Q

Isolated gastric varices

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

209
Q

Multiple gastric ulcers

A

Chronic aspirin therapy

210
Q

Multiple duodenal (or jejunal) ulcers

A

Zollinger-Ellison

211
Q

Pancreatitis after Billroth 2

A

Afferent Loop Syndrome

212
Q

Weight gain years after Roux-en-Y

A

Gastro-gastro fistula

213
Q

Clover leak sign - duodenum (not sure if supposed to be clover leaf)

A

Healed peptic ulcer

214
Q

Sand like nodules in the jejunum

A

Whipples

215
Q

Sand like nodules in the jejunum + CD4 less than 100

A

MAI

216
Q

Ribbon-like bowel

A

Graft vs Host

217
Q

Ribbon like jejunum

A

Long standing celiac

218
Q

Moulage pattern (GI)

A

Celiac

219
Q

Fold reversal - of jejunum and ileum

A

Celiac

220
Q

Cavitary (low density) lymph nodes (GI)

A

Celiac

221
Q

“Hide bound” or “stack of coins” (GI)

A

Scleroderma

222
Q

Megaduodenum

A

Scleroderma

223
Q

Duodenal obstruction with recent weight loss

A

SMA Syndrome

224
Q

Coned shaped cecum

A

Amebiasis

225
Q

Lead pipe (GI)

A

Ulcerative colitis

226
Q

String sign (GI)

A

Crohns

227
Q

Massive circumferential thickening, without obstruction (GI)

A

Lymphoma

228
Q

Multiple small bowel target signs

A

Melanoma

229
Q

Obstructing old lady hernia (GI)

A

Femoral hernia

230
Q

Sac of bowel

A

Paraduodenal hernia

231
Q

Scalloped appearance of the liver

A

Pseudomyxoma Peritonei

232
Q

HCC without cirrhosis

A

Hepatitis B

233
Q

Capsular retraction (GI..liver)

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

234
Q

Periportal hypoechoic infiltration + AIDS

A

Kaposi’s

235
Q

Sparing of the caudate lobe (GI)

A

Budd Chiari

236
Q

Large T2 bright nodes + budd chiari

A

Hyperplastic nodules

237
Q

Liver high signal in phase, low signal out phase

A

Fatty liver

238
Q

Liver low signal in phase, high signal out phase

A

Hemochromatosis

239
Q

Multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic strictures

A

PSC

240
Q

Multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic strictures + papillary stenosis

A

AIDS cholangiopathy

241
Q

Bile ducts full of stones

A

Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis

242
Q

Gallbladder comet tail artifact

A

Adenomyomatosis

243
Q

Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas

A

CF

244
Q

Sausage shaped pancreas

A

Autoimmune pancreatitis

245
Q

Autoimmune pancreatitis

A

IgG4

246
Q

IgG4 (GI)

A

RP Fibrosis ,
Sclerosing Cholangitis,
fibrosing medianstinitis,
inflammatory pseudotumor.

247
Q

Wide duodenal sweep

A

Pancreatic cancer

248
Q

Grandmother pancreatic cyst

A

Serous cystadenoma

249
Q

Mother pancreatic cyst

A

Mucinous

250
Q

Daughter pancreatic cyst

A

Solid pseudopapillary

251
Q

Bladder stones

A

Neurogenic bladder

252
Q

Pine cone appearance (GU…bladder)

A

Neurogenic bladder

253
Q

Urethra cancer

A

Squamous cell CA

254
Q

Urethra cancer - prostatic portion

A

Transitional cell CA

255
Q

Urethra cancer - in a diverticulum

A

Adenocarcinoma

256
Q

Vas deferens calcifications

A

Diabetes

257
Q

Calcifications in a fatty renal mass

A

RCC

258
Q

Protrude into the renal pelvis

A

Multilocular cystic nephroma

259
Q

No functional renal tissue

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

260
Q

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

Contralateral renal issues (50%)

261
Q

Emphysematous pyelonephritis

A

Diabetic

262
Q

Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis

A

Staghorn stone

263
Q

Papillary necrosis (renal)

A

Diabetes

264
Q

Shrunken calcified kidney

A

TB

265
Q

Bilateral medulla nephrocalcinosis

A

Medullary Sponge Kidney

266
Q

Big bright kidney with decreased renal function

A

HIV

267
Q

History of lithotripsy

A

Page kidney

268
Q

Cortical rim sign (renal)

A

Subacute renal infarct

269
Q

History of renal biopsy

A

AVF

270
Q

Reversed diastolic flow (renal)

A

Renal vein thrombosis

271
Q

Sickle cell trait (renal)

A

Medullary RCC

272
Q

Young adult, renal mass + severe HTN

A

Juxtaglomerular cell tumor

273
Q

Squamous cell bladder CA

A

Schistosomiasis

274
Q

Entire urinary bladder calcified

A

Schistosomiasis

275
Q

Urachus (GU)

A

Adenocarcinoma of the bladder

276
Q

Long stricture in the urethra

A

Gonococcal

277
Q

Short stricture in the urethra

A

Straddle Injury

278
Q

IVC greater than 28mm (IR)

A

Mega Cava

279
Q

Mega Cava (IR)

A

Birds Next Filter

280
Q

Hairpin turn - during bronchial angiography (IR)

A

Anterior medullary (spinal cord) artery

281
Q

Fever, WBC, nausea, and vomiting after uterine Artery embolization

A

Post Embolization Syndrome (obviously could also be infection)

282
Q

Most medial vessel in leg

A

Posterior tibial

283
Q

The source of 85% of upper GI Bleeds

A

Left gastric

284
Q

The source of bleeding from a duodenal ulcer

A

GDA

285
Q

Pulmonary AVM (IR)

A

HHT

286
Q

Most feared complication of bronchial artery embolization

A

Spinal cord infarct

287
Q

High risk of bleeding for liver transplant (IR)

A

Transjugular approach

288
Q

Most feared complication of brachial arterial access

A

Compartment syndrome

289
Q

Cold painful fingers during dialysis

A

Steal Syndrome

290
Q

Ulcer on medial ankle (IR)

A

Venous stasis

291
Q

Ulcer on dorsum of foot (IR)

A

Ischemia or infected ulcer

292
Q

Ulcer on plantar surface of foot (IR)

A

Neutropenic ulcer

293
Q

Unicornuate uterus

A

Look at the kidneys

294
Q

T-shaped uterus

A

DES Related or Vaginal Clear Cell CA

295
Q

Marked enlargement of the uterus

A

Adenomyosis

296
Q

Adenomyosis (repro)

A

Thickening of the junctional zone (>12mm)

297
Q

Wolffian duct remnant

A

Gartner Duct Cyst

298
Q

Theca Lutein Cysts

A

Moles and multiple gestations

299
Q

Theca Lutein Cysts + pleural effusions

A

Hyperstimulation Syndrome (patient on fertility meds)

300
Q

Low level internal echoes (repro)

A

Endometrioma

301
Q

T2 shortening (repro)

A

Endometrioma- “shading sign”

302
Q

Fishnet appearance (repro)

A

Hemorrhagic cyst

303
Q

Ovarian fibroma + pleural effusion

A

Meigs Syndrome

304
Q

Snow Storm Uterus

A

Complete mole - 1st trimester

305
Q

Serum B-hCG levels that rise in the 8-10 weeks following evacuation of molar pregnancy

A

Choriocarcinoma

306
Q

Midline cystic structure near the back of a bladder of a man

A

Prostatic utricle

307
Q

Lateral cystic structure near the back of the bladder of a man

A

Seminal vesicle cyst

308
Q

Isolated orchitis

A

Mumps

309
Q

Onion skin appearance (repro )

A

Epidermoid cyst

310
Q

Multiple hypoechoic masses in the testicle

A

Lymphoma

311
Q

Cystic elements and macro-calcifications in the testicle

A

Mixed germ cell tumor

312
Q

Homogenous and microcalcifications (repro, testicle)

A

Seminoma

313
Q

Gynecomastia + testicular tumor

A

Sertoli Leydig

314
Q

Fetal macrosomia

A

Maternal diabetes

315
Q

One artery adjacent to the bladder (repro)

A

Two vessel cord

316
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester

A

Placenta previa

317
Q

Mom doing cocaine (repro)

A

Placenta abruption

318
Q

Thinning of the myometrium - with turbulent doppler

A

Placenta creta

319
Q

Mass near the cord insertion , with flow pulsating at the fetal heart rate

A

Placenta chorioangioma

320
Q

Cystic mass in the posterior neck - antenatal period

A

Cystic hygroma

321
Q

Pleural effusions, and ascites on prenatal US

A

Hydrops

322
Q

Massively enlarged bilateral kidneys (repro)

A

ARPKD

323
Q

Twin peak sign (repro)

A

Dichorionic diamniotic

324
Q

Obliteration of Raider’s Triangle (chest)

A

Aberrant right subclavian

325
Q

Flat waist sign (chest)

A

Left lower lobe collapse

326
Q

Terrorist + mediastinal widening

A

Anthrax

327
Q

Bulging fissure (chest)

A

Klebsiella

328
Q

Dental procedure gone bad, now with jaw osteo and pneumonia

A

Actinomycosis

329
Q

Culture negative pleural effusion, 3 months later with airspace opacity

A

TB

330
Q

Hot-tub (chest)

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

331
Q

Halo sign (chest)

A

Fungal pneumonia - invasive aspergillosis

332
Q

Reverse halo or atoll sign (chest)

A

COP

333
Q

Finger in glove (chest)

A

ABPA

334
Q

ABPA (chest)

A

Asthma

335
Q

Septic emboli + jugular vein thrombus (chest)

A

Lemierre

336
Q

Lemierre (chest)

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

337
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes with SIADH (chest)

A

Small cell lung CA

338
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes with PTH (chest)

A

Squamous cell CA

339
Q

Small cell lung CA + proximal weakness (chest)

A

Lambert Eaton

340
Q

Cavity fills with air , post pneumonectomy

A

Bronchopleural fistula

341
Q

Malignant bronchial tumor

A

Carcinoid

342
Q

Malignant tracheal tumor

A

Adenoid cystic

343
Q

AIDS patient with lung nodules, pleural effusion, and lymphadenopathy

A

Lymphoma

344
Q

Gallium negative (chest)

A

Kaposi

345
Q

Thallium negative (chest)

A

PCP

346
Q

Macroscopic fat and popcorn calcifications (chest)

A

Hamartoma

347
Q

“Bizarre shaped cysts “ (chest)

A

LCH

348
Q

Lung cysts in a TS patient

A

LAM

349
Q

Panlobular emphysema - NOT alpha 1

A

Ritalin lung

350
Q

Honeycombing (chest, lung)

A

UIP

351
Q

“The histology was heterogenous” (chest, lung)

A

UIP

352
Q

Ground glass with subpleural sparing

A

NSIP

353
Q

UIP lungs + parietal pleural thickening

A

Asbestosis

354
Q

Cavitation in the setting of silicosis

A

TB

355
Q

Air trapping seen 6 months after lung transplant

A

Chronic rejection / bronchiolitis obliterans Syndrome

356
Q

“Crazy Paving” (chest)

A

PAP

357
Q

History of constipation (chest)

A

Lipoid pneumonia - inferring mineral oil use/aspiration

358
Q

UIP + air trapping

A

Chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis

359
Q

Dilated esophagus + ILD

A

Scleroderma (with NSIP)

360
Q

Shortness of breath when sitting up (chest)

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

361
Q

Episodic hypoglycemia

A

Solitary fibrous tumor of the pleura

362
Q

Pulmonary HTN with normal wedge pressure

A

Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease

363
Q

Yellow nails (chest)

A

Edema and chylous pleural effusions (Yellow Nail Syndrome)

364
Q

Persistent fluid collection after pleural drain/tube placement

A

Extrapleural hematoma

365
Q

Displaced extrapleural fat

A

Extrapleural hematoma

366
Q

Massive air leak, in the setting of trauma (chest)

A

Bronchial or tracheal injury

367
Q

Hot on PET - around the periphery (chest)

A

Pulmonary infarct

368
Q

Multi-lobar collapse (chest)

A

Sarcoid

369
Q

Classic bronchial infection

A

TB

370
Q

Panbronchiolitis

A

“Tree in bud” (not centrilobular or random nodules)

371
Q

Bronchorrhea

A

Mucinous BAC

372
Q

ALCAPA

A

Steal Syndrome

373
Q

Supra-valvular Aortic Stenosis (cardiac)

A

Williams Syndrome

374
Q

Bicuspid Aortic Valve and Coarctation

A

Turners syndrome

375
Q

Isolated right upper lobe edema (cardiac)

A

Mitral regurgitation

376
Q

Peripheral pulmonary stenosis

A

Alagille Syndrome

377
Q

Box shaped heart

A

Ebsteins

378
Q

Right arch with mirror branching (cardiac)

A

Congenital heart

379
Q

Hand/thumb defects + ASD

A

Holt Oram

380
Q

Ostium primum ASD (or endocardial cushion defect)

A

Downs

381
Q

Right sided PAPVR (cardiac)

A

Sinus venosus ASD

382
Q

Calcification in the left atrium wall (cardiac)

A

Rheumatic heart disease

383
Q

Difficult to suppress myocardium

A

Amyloid

384
Q

Blood pool suppression on delayed enhancement (cardiac)

A

Amyloid

385
Q

Septal bounce

A

Constrictive pericarditis

386
Q

Ventricular interdependence (cardiac)

A

Constrictive pericarditis

387
Q

Focal thickening of the septum - but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Sarcoid

388
Q

Ballooning of the left ventricular apex (cardiac)

A

Tako-Tsubo

389
Q

Fat in the wall of a dilated right ventricle (cardiac)

A

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

390
Q

Kid with dilated heart and mid wall enhancement

A

Muscular dystrophy

391
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyoma

A

Tuberous sclerosis

392
Q

Bilateral atrial thrombus (cardiac)

A

Eosinophilic cardiomyopathy

393
Q

Diffuse LV Subendocardial enhancement not restricted to a vascular distribution

A

Cardiac amyloid

394
Q

Glenn procedure (cardiac)

A

Acquired pulmonary AVMs

395
Q

Pulmonary vein stenosis

A

Ablation for A-fib

396
Q

Multiple cardiac myxomas

A

Carney’s Complex

397
Q

Vessel in the fissure of the ligamentum venosum (vascular)

A

Replaced left hepatic artery

398
Q

Vessel coursing of the pelvic brim (vascular)

A

Corona Mortis

399
Q

Ascending aorta calcifications

A

Syphilis and Takayasu

400
Q

Tulip bulb aorta

A

Marfans

401
Q

Really shitty Marfan’s variant

A

Loeys-Dietz

402
Q

Tortuous vessels (vascular)

A

Loeys-Dietz

403
Q

Renal artery stenosis with HTN in a child

A

NF-1

404
Q

Nasty looking saccular aneurysm, without intimal calcifications

A

Mycotic

405
Q

Tree bark intimal calcifications (vascular)

A

Syphilitic (Luetic) aneurysm

406
Q

Painful aneurysm in smoker, sparing the posterior wall

A

Inflammatory aneurysm

407
Q

Turkish guy with pulmonary artery aneurysm

A

Behcets

408
Q

GI bleed with early opacification of a dilated draining vein

A

Colonic Angiodysplasia

409
Q

Spider web appearance of hepatic veins on angiogram

A

Budd Chiari

410
Q

Non-decompressible varicocele (vascular)

A

Look in the belly for badness

411
Q

Right sided varicocele (vascular)

A

Look in the “below” (typo?? Maybe belly??) for badness

412
Q

Swollen left leg (vascular)

A

May Thurner

413
Q

Popliteal aneurysm

A

Look for the AAA (and the other leg)

414
Q

Most dreaded complication of popliteal aneurysm

A

Distal emboli

415
Q

Great saphenous vein on the wrong side of the calf - lateral side

A

Marginal vein of servelle —which is supposedly pathognomonic for Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome.

416
Q

“Asian” (vascular)

A

Takayasu

417
Q

Involves the aorta (vascular. Duh.)

A

Takayasu

418
Q

Kids with vertigo and aortitis

A

Cogan Syndrome

419
Q

Nasal perforation + cavitary lung lesions

A

Wegners

420
Q

Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage (vascular)

A

Microscopic polyangitis

421
Q

Smoker + hand angiogram

A

Buergers

422
Q

Construction worker + hand angiogram

A

Hypothenar hammer

423
Q

Unilateral tardus parvus in the carotid

A

Stenosis of the innominate

424
Q

Bilateral tardus parvus in the carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

425
Q

Bilateral reversal of flow in carotids

A

Aortic regurg

426
Q

Lack of diastolic flow on carotid US

A

Brain death

427
Q

Hot clumps of signal in the lungs on Liver Spleen sulfur colloid

A

Too much Al in the Tc

428
Q

HOT spleen (NM)

A

WBC Scan or Octreotide (sulfur colloid will be warm spleen)

429
Q

Bone scan with Hot skull sutures

A

Renal osteodystrophy

430
Q

Bone scan with focal breast uptake

A

Breast CA

431
Q

Bone scan with renal cortex activity

A

Hemochromatosis

432
Q

Bone scan with liver activity

A

Either too much Al,
amyloid,
hepatoma, or
liver necrosis

433
Q

Bone scan with sternal lesion

A

Breast CA

434
Q

Bone scan with diffusely decreased bone uptake

A

Free Tc or bisphosphonate therapy

435
Q

Tramline along periosteum of long bones

A

Lung CA

436
Q

Super hot mandible in adult (NM)

A

Fibrous dysplasia

437
Q

Super hot mandible in child (NM)

A

Caffeys

438
Q

Periarticular uptake of delayed scan (NM)

A

RSD

439
Q

Focal uptake along lesser trochanter (NM)

A

Prosthesis loosening

440
Q

Tracer in the brain on VQ study

A

Shunt

441
Q

Tracer over the liver on ventilation with xenon

A

Fatty liver

442
Q

Gallium negative, Thallium positive (NM)

A

Kaposi

443
Q

High T3, high T4, low TSH -low thyroid uptake

A

Quervains (Granulomatous thyroiditis)

444
Q

Persistent tracer in the lateral ventricles > 24 hours (NM)

A

NPH

445
Q

Renal uptake on sulfur colloid

A

CHF

446
Q

Renal transplant uptake on sulfur colloid

A

Rejection

447
Q

Filtered renal agent (NM)

A

DTPA (or GH)

448
Q

Secreted renal agent (NM)

A

MAG-3

449
Q

PET with increased muscle uptake (NM)

A

Insulin

450
Q

Diffuse FDG uptake in the thyroid on PET

A

Hashimoto

451
Q

I see the skeleton on MIBG

A

Diffuse neuroblastoma bone mets

452
Q

Cardiac tissue taking up FDG more intense than normal myocardium

A

Hibernating myocardium

453
Q

Made with a generator (NM)

A

Tc99 and Rubidium

Radiology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions