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Radiology > High Yield Trivia > Flashcards

High Yield Trivia Flashcards

1
Q

Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) - put the __________ side down

A

Bad

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2
Q

Bronchial Foreign Body —put the ________ side down (if it stays that way, it’s positive)

A

Lucency

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3
Q

Papillomatosis has a small (2% ) risk of squamous cell CA

A

.

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4
Q

only variant that goes between the esophagus and the trachea. This is associated with trachea stenosis.

A

Pulmonary sling

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5
Q

Thymic rebound—

A

seen after stress (chemotherapy). Can be PET-Avid

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6
Q

most common mediastinal mass in child (over 10)

A

Lymphoma

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7
Q

Anterior mediastinal mass with calcification

A

either treated lymphoma or thymic lesion (lymphoma doesn’t calcify unless treated)

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8
Q

Most common posterior mediastinal mass in child under 2

A

Neuroblastoma (primary thoracic does better than abd)

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9
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis—age?

A

3 weeks to 3 months (NOT at birth, NOT after 3 months)

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10
Q

Criteria for HPS

A

4mm and 14mm (4mm single Wall, 14mm length)

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11
Q

Annular pancreas presentation in child, adult

A

Children: duodenal obstruction
Adult: pancreatitis

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12
Q

Most common cause of bowel obstruction in child over 4

A

Appendicitis

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13
Q

Intussusception—age

A

3 months to 3 years is ok, earlier or younger think lead point

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14
Q

Gastroschisis is always on the ____side

A

ALWAYS on the Right side

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15
Q

Which has associated anomalies: omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

Omphalocele has associated anomalies. Gastroschisis does not.

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16
Q

Physiologic gut hernia normal at 6-8 weeks

A

.

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17
Q

______ is elevated with hepatoblastoma

A

AFP

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18
Q

_______ is elevated with hemangioendothelioma

A

Endothelial growth factor

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19
Q

Most common cause of pancreatitis in a kid

A

Trauma (seatbelt)

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20
Q

Weigert Meyer rule

A

Duplicated ureter on top inserts inferior and medial

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21
Q

Most common tumor of the fetus or infant

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

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22
Q

Most common cause of idiopathic scrotal edema

A

HSP

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23
Q

Most common cause of acute scrotal pain age 7-14

A

Torsion of testicular appendages

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24
Q

Etiology for testicular torsion

A

Bell Clapper Deformity

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25
Q

SCFE is a Salter Harris Type _____

A

Type 1

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26
Q

Physiologic Periostitis of the Newborn—age?

A

NOT NEWBORN! Doesn’t occur in newborn. Seen around 3 months.

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27
Q

Acetabular Angle should be ______, and Alpha Angle should be _______

A

Acetabular <30,

Alpha >60

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28
Q

Most common benign mucosal lesion of the esophagus

A

Papilloma

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29
Q

Esophageal webs have increased risk for ____

A

Cancer and Plummer-Vinson Stndrome (anemia + web)

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30
Q

Dysphasia Lusoria —cause?

A

Compression by a right subclavian artery (most patients with aberrant rights don’t have symptoms)

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31
Q

Achalasia has increased risk of ____

A

Squamous cell cancer (20 years later)

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32
Q

Most common mesenchymal tumor of GI tract

A

GIST

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33
Q

Most common location for GIST

A

Stomach

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34
Q

Krukenberg tumor (what is it)

A

Stomach (GI) met to the ovary

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35
Q

Menetrier’s— involves the ____ and spares the _____

A

Involves the FUNDUS

Spares the ANTRUM

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36
Q

Most common location for sarcoid (in the GI tract)

A

Stomach

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37
Q

Gastric remnants have an increased risk of cancer years after Billroth

A

.

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38
Q

Most common internal hernia

A

Left sided paraduodenal

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39
Q

Most common site of peritoneal carcinomatosis

A

Retrovesical space

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40
Q

Injury to bare area of the liver can cause _____

A

Retroperitoneal bleed

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41
Q

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis associated with _________

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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42
Q

Extrahepatic ducts are normal with ________

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

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43
Q

__________ are positive with primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Anti-mitochondrial Antibodies

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44
Q

Mirizzi Syndrome—(what is it)

A

Stone in the cystic duct obstructs CBD

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45
Q

Mirizzi has a 5x increased risk of ______

A

GB cancer (5x increased risk)

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46
Q

Dorsal pancreatic agenesis—associated with ________

A

Diabetes and polysplenia

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47
Q

Hereditary and Tropical Pancreatitis—age of onset, increased risk of _____

A

Early age of onset,

Increased risk of cancer

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48
Q

Felty’s Syndrome—features?

A

Big spleen,
RA,
Neutropenia

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49
Q

Splenic Artery Aneurysm—more common in _______; more likely to rupture in _________

A

more common in WOMEN.

more likely to rupture in PREGNANT WOMEN.

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50
Q

Most common islet cell tumor

A

Insulinoma

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51
Q

Most common islet cell tumor with MEN (not overall most common!)

A

Gastrinoma

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52
Q

Ulcerative colitis has increased risk of ______

A

Colon cancer (if it involves colon past the splenic flexure). UC involving just rectum does not increase cancer risk.

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53
Q

Calcifications in a renal CA—associated with _______

A

Improved survival

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54
Q

RCC bone mets appearance

A

“Always” lytic

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55
Q

Increased risk of _______ with dialysis

A

Malignancy

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56
Q

Horseshoe kidneys more susceptible to ________

A

Trauma

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57
Q

Most common location for TCC

A

Bladder

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58
Q

Second most common location for TCC

A

Upper urinary tract

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59
Q

Which is more commonly multifocal: bladder TCC or upper tract TCC?

A

Upper tract TCC more commonly multifocal. (Upper tract 12%; bladder 4%)

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60
Q

Weigert Meyer Rule

A

Upper pole inserts medial and inferior

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61
Q

Ectopic ureters—associated with _____

A

Incontinence in women (NOT men)

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62
Q

Leukoplakia vs Malakoplakia: which is pre-malignant?

A

Leukoplakia is pre-malignant. (Malakoplakia is not)

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63
Q

Extraperitoneal bladder rupture is ____ common, and managed _______

A

Extraperitoneal bladder rupture is MORE common and managed MEDICALLY

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64
Q

Intraperitoneal bladder rupture is ______ common and managed _______

A

Intraperitoneal bladder rupture is LESS common and managed SURGICALLY

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65
Q

Only stones not seen on CT

A

Indinavir stones

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66
Q

Stones not seen on plain films

A

Uric acid stones

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67
Q

Endometrial tissue in a rudimentary horn (even one that does not communicate) increases risk of ______

A

Miscarriage

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68
Q

Arcuate Uterus (does OR does not?) have increased risk of infertility

A

Does NOT (it’s a normal variant )

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69
Q

Fibroids with higher T2 signal respond _______ to UAE

A

Better

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70
Q

_______ Fibroid Degeneration is most common subtype

A

Hyaline Fibroid Degeneration

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71
Q

Adenomyosis — favors _____, spares _______

A

Favors POSTERIOR WALL,

Spares CERVIX

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72
Q

Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (NHPCC)—30-50x increased risk of _______

A

Endometrial cancer

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73
Q

Tamoxifen— increases risk of ______

A

Endometrial cancer and endometrial polyps

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74
Q

Cervical cancer —
treatment for types
WITH parametrial involvement (2B) or WITHOUT (2A)

A

WITH (2B)—chemo/radiation.

WITHOUT (2A)—Surgery

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75
Q

Vaginal cancer in adults is usually ____

A

Squamous cell

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76
Q

Vaginal Rhabdomyosarcoma—age?

A

Children/teens

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77
Q

Ovaries on PET (premenopausal vs post-menopause)

A

Premenopausal ovaries can be hot (depending on phase of cycle). Post menopause should never be hot.

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78
Q

Transformation subtypes: endometrioma=________;

Dermoid=_____________

A

Endometrioma =Clear cell;

Dermoid = squamous

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79
Q

Postpartum fever can from ____

A

Ovarian vein thrombophlebitis

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80
Q

Fractured penis—what is it really

A

Rupture of corpus cavernosum and surrounding tunica albuginea

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81
Q

Prostate Cancer most commonly in _____ zone. -ADC _______

A

Most commonly PERIPHERAL ZONE. -ADC DARK

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82
Q

BPH nodules—location

A

Central zone (prostate cancer in peripheral zone)

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83
Q

Most common association with prostatic utricle

A

Hypospadias

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84
Q

Seminal vesicle cysts—associated with _____

A

Renal agenesis and ectopic ureters

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85
Q

Cryptorchidism—increases risk of _____

A

Cancer (in BOTH testicles); not reduced by orchiopexy

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86
Q

Immunosuppressed patients can get ____________, hiding behind the blood-testes barrier

A

Testicular lymphoma

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87
Q

Most common cause of correctable infertility in men

A

Varicocele

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88
Q

Undescended testicles are more common in _________

A

Premature kids

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89
Q

Membranes disrupted before 10 weeks, increased risk of ________

A

Amniotic bands

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90
Q

Earliest visualization of embryo is the “_______ Sign “

A

“Double Bleb Sign “

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91
Q

Hematoma greater than _______ the circumference of the chorion has increased risk of ______

A

Hematoma greater than 2/3 the circumference of the chorion has increased risk of ABORTION (2x increased risk)

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92
Q

Biparietal Diameter—how measured

A

Recorded at level of thalamus,

From outer edge of near skull to the inner table of the far skull

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93
Q

Abdominal Circumference—does not include ______

A

Subcutaneous soft tissues

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94
Q

Abdominal Circumference—where measured?

A

Recorded at level of the junction of the umbilical vein and left portal vein

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95
Q

Parameter classically involved with asymmetric IUGR

A

Abdominal Circumference

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96
Q

Femur Length (does OR does not?) include the epiphysis

A

does NOT include the epiphysis

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97
Q

Umbilical Artery Systolic/Diastolic Ratio — should not exceed _____ at 34 weeks

A

3

Makes you think pre-eclampsia and IUGR

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98
Q

Placenta previa mimic

A

Full bladder

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99
Q

Nuchal ligament — measured at what age? and should be what size?

A

Measured between 9-12 weeks.
Should be < 3mm
(greater than 3mm associated with downs)

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100
Q

Lemon sign (repro) will disappear after ________

A

24 weeks

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101
Q

Most common cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus in a neonate

A

Aqueductal Stenosis

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102
Q

______ valve is the most anterior

A

Tricuspid

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103
Q

________ valve is the most superior

A

Pulmonic

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104
Q

There are ___(number)___ lung segments on the right, and _____ on the left.

A

10 on the right,

8 on the left

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105
Q

If it goes ______, it’s in the posterior mediastinum.

A

Above the clavicles

cervicothoracic sign

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106
Q

Azygos lobe has _____ layers of pleura

A

4 layers

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107
Q

Most common pulmonary vein variant

A

Separate vein draining the right middle lobe

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108
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patient

A

Strep pneumonia

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109
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

PCP

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110
Q

Immune status of patient with aspergilloma

A

Normal immune patient

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111
Q

Immune status of patient with Invasive Aspergillosis?

A

Immune compromised patient

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112
Q

Fleischner Society Recommendations do NOT apply to patients with ___________

A

Known cancers

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113
Q

Most suspicious pattern (chest)

A

Eccentric calcifications in a solitary pulmonary nodule pattern

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114
Q

Most suspicious morphology you can have (chest)

A

A part solid nodule with a ground glass component

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115
Q

Lung CA most commonly presents as _____

A

Solitary nodule

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116
Q

Stage 3B lung CA is (resectable or unresectable?)

A

unresectable
(Contralateral nodal involvement; ipsilateral or contralateral scalene or supraclavicular nodal involvement,
Tumor in different lobes.)

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117
Q

Most common cause of unilateral lymphangetic carcinomatosis

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma lung cancer invading the lymphatics

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118
Q

There is a _____(time)___ latency between initial exposure and development of lung cancer or _______. (My note: I’m assuming asbestos or inhaled toxin/irritant?)

A

20 year latency.

Pleural Mesothelioma

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119
Q

Earliest and most common finding with asbestos exposure

A

Pleural effusion

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120
Q

Silo Filler’s Disease : agent, pathology pattern

A

Nitrogen dioxide,

Pulmonary edema pattern

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121
Q

First finding of UIP on CXR

A

Reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle

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122
Q

Most common recurrent primary disease after lung transplant

A

Sarcoidosis

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123
Q

Pleural plaque of asbestosis typically spares ______

A

Costophrenic angles

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124
Q

Most common manifestation of mets to the pleura

A

Pleural effusion

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125
Q

There is an Association with mature teratomas and ______.

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

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126
Q

Injury close to the carina is going to cause ________, rather than _______

A

Will cause PNEUMOMEDIASTINUM.

Rather than Pneumothorax.

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127
Q

MRI is ___(superior or inferior )__ for assessing superior sulcus tumors because _________.

A

MRI is SUPERIOR.

Because you need to look at BRACHIAL PLEXUS.

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128
Q

Most common benign esophageal tumor. (And where most common location?)

A

Leiomyoma.

Most common in distal 1/3.

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129
Q

Esophageal Leiomyomatosis May be associated with _______

A

Alport’s Syndrome

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130
Q

Bronchial/tracheal injury must be evaluated with _______

A

Bronchoscopy

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131
Q

“If you say COP also say _____.”

A

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

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132
Q

“If you say BAC also say ______”

A

Lymphoma

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133
Q

Bronchial atresia is classically in the ______

A

LUL

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134
Q

Are they simple?:

  • Pericardial cysts
  • Bronchogenic cysts
A

Pericardial cysts MUST be simple.

Bronchogenic cysts don’t have to be simple.

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135
Q

Post treatment, PAP follows rule of ______.

A

Rule of 1/3s:
1/3 gets better,
1/3 doesn’t,
1/3 progresses to fibrosis.

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136
Q

Dysphagia Lusoria presents later in life as ________ develops

A

Atherosclerosis

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137
Q

Carcinoid is _____ on PET

A

COLD

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138
Q

Wegener’s is now called ________ (bc Wegener was a Nazi.)

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

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139
Q

The right atrium is defined by the ____

A

IVC

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140
Q

The right ventricle is defined by the _________

A

Moderator band

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141
Q

The _____ papillary muscles insert on the septum.

A

Tricuspid. (Mitral ones do NOT.)

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142
Q

PET appearance of lipomatous hypertrophy of the intra-atrial septum

A

Can be PET Avid

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143
Q

LAD gives off _______

A

Diagonals

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144
Q

RCA gives off ____

A

Acute marginals

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145
Q

LCX gives off_____

A

obtuse marginals

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146
Q

RCA perfuses ___ and ____

A

SA and AV nodes (most of the time)

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147
Q

Dominance is decided by which vessel _____ (cardiac Section).
It’s the ___(Right or Left)___ 85% of time.

A

Dominance is decided by which vessel lives off the posterior descending.
It’s the RIGHT 85%.

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148
Q

Treatment for LCA from Right Coronary Cusp

A

ALWAYS gets repaired

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149
Q

Treatment for RCA from Left Coronary Cusp

A

Repaired if symptoms

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150
Q

Most common location of myocardial bridging

A

Mid portion of the LAD

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151
Q

Coronary Artery Aneurysm:
Most common cause in
Adult?
Child?

A 
Adult = Atherosclerosis
Child = Kawasaki
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152
Q

Left Sided SVC empties into ______

A

The coronary sinus

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153
Q

Most common cause of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease

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154
Q

Most common cause of tricuspid atresia

A

Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

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155
Q

“Double most common vascular ring is _____”

A

The double aortic arch

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156
Q

Most common congenital heart disease

A

VSD

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157
Q

Most common ASD

A

Secundum

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158
Q

Infracardiac TAPVR classically shown with _______ in a newborn

A

Pulmonary edema in a newborn

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159
Q

Prognosis :
“L” Transposition type?
“D” Transposition type?

A

“L” Transposition is congenitally corrected (they are “L”ucky).

“D” Transposition type is Doomed.

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160
Q

Truncus is associated with _____

A

CATCH-22 (DiGeorge)

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161
Q

Rib notching from coarctations spares the _________

A

1st and 2nd ribs

162
Q

Prognosis for recovering function: infarct with 50% involvement?

A

Unlikely to recover function

163
Q

Microvascular Obstruction ___(is OR is not?)___ seen in chronic infarct

A

is NOT

164
Q

Most common cause of restricted cardiomyopathy

A

Amyloid

165
Q

Primary amyloid can be seen in multiple myeloma

A

.

166
Q

Most common neoplasm to involve the cardiac valves

A

Fibroelastoma

167
Q

Congenital absence of the pericardium (most commonly):

  • Complete or partial?
  • when partial, describe which part
A
  • PARTIAL most common
  • involves pericardium over LEFT atrium and adjacent pulmonary artery. (The LEFT atrial appendage is the most at risk to become strangulated.)
168
Q

Glenn Shunt: describe

A

SVC to pulmonary artery (vein to artery)

169
Q

Blalock-Taussig Shunt: describe

A

Subclavian Artery to Pulmonary Artery (Artery-Artery)

170
Q

Ross Procedure: describe

A

Replaces aortic valve with pulmonic, and pulmonic with a graft (done for kids)

171
Q

Aliasing is common with Cardiac MRI. Fix it by: ?

A

1) opening your FOV,
2) oversampling the frequency encoding direction, OR
3) switching phase and frequency encoding directions.

172
Q

Giant Coronary Artery Aneurysms (>8mm): prognosis

A

Don’t regress.

Associated with MIs.

173
Q

Wet Beriberi

A

Thiamine deficiency.

Can cause Dilated cardiomyopathy.

174
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

175
Q

Second most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Fibroma

176
Q

Most common complication of MI

A

Myocardial remodeling

177
Q

Unroofed coronary sinus is associated with _____

A

Persistent left SVC

178
Q

Most common source of cardiac mets

A

Lung cancer (lymphoma #2)

179
Q

A-Fib is most commonly associated with _____

A

Left atrial enlargement

180
Q

Most common cause of tricuspid insufficiency

A

RVH (usually from pulmonary hypertension/ cor pulmonale)

181
Q

Artery of Adamkiewicz:

  • comes off on __(Right or left?)__
  • between ______
A

Comes off on LEFT side (70%)

between T8-L1 (90%).

182
Q

Arch of Riolan: parts?

A

Middle colic branch of the SMA with the left colic of the IMA

183
Q

Most common hepatic vascular variant (and description)

A

Right hepatic artery replaced off the SMA.
Proper right hepatic artery is ANTERIOR the RIGHT portal vein.
Replaced right hepatic artery is POSTERIOR to the MAIN portal vein.

184
Q

Most common hepatic venous variant

A

Accessory right inferior hepatic vein

185
Q

First branch off popliteal

A

Anterior tibialis

186
Q

Common Femoral Artery: begins at the level of _____

A

Inguinal ligament

187
Q

Superficial Femoral Artery: begins once the _____

A

Begins once the CFA (common fem art) gives off the profunda femurs

188
Q

Popliteal Artery: terminates as the ____ and ______

A

Anterior tibial Artery And

Tibioperoneal Trunk

189
Q

Popliteal Artery: begins as the ____

A

SFA exits the adductor canal

190
Q

Axillary Artery: begins at the ____

A

First rib

191
Q

Brachial Artery: begins as it crosses ______

A

Teres major

192
Q

Brachial Artery: bifurcates to the ____ and ______

A

Ulnar and radial artery

193
Q

Intraosseous Branch: typically arises from the _______

A

Ulnar artery

194
Q

Superficial arch: from the ____.

Deep Arch: from the ______.

A

Superficial Arch: from the Ulna.

Deep Arch: from the Radius.

195
Q

The “coronary vein” is the _____

A

Left gastric

196
Q

Enlarged splenorenal shunts are associated with _______

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

197
Q

Aortic Dissection and Intramural Hematoma are both caused by ______

A

Hypertension (70%)

198
Q

Penetrating ulcer is from ______

Vascular section

A

Atherosclerosis

199
Q

Strongest predictor of progression of dissection in intramural hematoma

A

Maximum aortic diameter >5cm

200
Q

Leriche Syndrome triad

A

Claudication,
Absent/Decreased femoral pulses,
Impotence

201
Q

Most common associated defect with aortic coarctation

A

Bicuspid aorta (80%)

202
Q

Most common subtype of thoracic outlet syndrome

A

Neurogenic compression

203
Q

Splenic Artery Aneurysm:

  • more common in which population?
  • more likely to rupture in which population?
A
  • more common in pregnancy.

- more likely to rupture in pregnancy.

204
Q

Median Arcuate Compression: worse with ______

A

Expiration

205
Q

Colonic Angiodysplasia: associated with ____\

A

Aortic stenosis

206
Q

Popliteal Aneurysm stats:

  • % of patients with PA who have AAA?
  • % of patients with AAA who have PA?
  • % of PAs that are bilateral ?
A
  • 30-50% have AAA
  • 10% of AAA patients have PA
  • 50-70% of PAs are bilateral
207
Q

Popliteal Entrapment: cause (anatomical)

A

Medial deviation of the popliteal artery by the medial head of the gastrocnemius

208
Q

Type ____ Takayasu is the most common

A

Type 3 (arch + abdominal aorta)

209
Q

Most common vasculitis in a kid

A

HSP (Henoch-Schonlein Purpura)

210
Q

Tardus parvus infers stenosis ____(direction)_____ to that vessel

A

Proximal

211
Q

ICA Peak Systolic Velocity:

3 categories/cut-offs

A

<125: No Significant Stenosis
(<50%)
125-230: stenosis (“Moderate”)
>230: >70% Stenosis (“Severe”)

212
Q

18G needle will accept _____ inch guidewire

19G needle will accept _____ inch guidewire

A

18G=0.038 inch

19G=0.035 inch

Note: 0.038, 0.035, 0.018 wires are INCHES!!

213
Q

3 French = _____

A

1 mm

214
Q

French size is the __(inside OR outside?)__ of a catheter,

And the __(inside OR outside?)__ of a sheath

A

French:
OUTSIDE of a catheter,
INSIDE of a sheath

215
Q

End Hole Only Catheters = ____

A

Hand Injection Only

216
Q

Side Hole + End Hole =______

A

Power Injection OK, Coils NOT OK

217
Q

Double flush technique is for….?

A

For neuro IR —no bubbles ever

218
Q

“Significant lesion” means….? (IR)

A

A systolic pressure gradient >10mmHg at rest

219
Q

Don’t stick a drain in….? (3 things. IR.)

A

Tumors,
Acute hematoma ,
Those associated with acute bowel rupture and Peritonitis

220
Q

Renal Artery Stenting for renal failure: tends to not work if _____

A

Cr >3

221
Q

Persistent sciatic artery is prone to _______

A

Aneurysm

222
Q

Even if the cholecystostomy tube instantly resolves all symptoms, you need to leave the tube in for ________ , otherwise you are going to get _____

A

MUST leave tube in 2-6 weeks (until the tract matures).

Or you’ll get a bile leak.

223
Q

MELD scores greater than 24 are at risk of _______

A

Early death with TIPS

224
Q

Target gradient post tips (for esophageal bleeding) is _____

A

Between 9 and 11

225
Q

Absolute contraindications for TIPS

A

Heart failure,

Severe hepatic failure

226
Q

Most common side effect of BRTO (IR)

A

Gross hematuria

227
Q

Sensitivity (required rate to detect):

  • GI Bleed Scan?
  • Angiography?
A

GI Bleed Scan: 0.1 mL/min

Angiography: 1.0 mL/min

228
Q

For GI Bleed: after performing an embolization of the GDA (for duodenal ulcer), you need to do a run of the _____ to look at the_______

A

SMA

inferior pancreaticoduodenal

229
Q

Most common cause of lower GI bleed

A

Diverticulosis

230
Q

TACE vs systemic chemo, which is better for survival length?

A

TACE will prolong survival better than systemic chemo

231
Q

TACE: contraindication (sometimes)

A

Portal Vein Thrombosis (sometimes considered contraindication) due to risk of infracting liver

232
Q

Go _____ the rib for Thora

A

Above

233
Q

Left Bundle Branch Block needs _____ before a thoracic angiogram

A

A pacer

234
Q

Never inject contrast through a _______ for a thoracic angiogram

A

Swan ganz catheter

235
Q

You treat pulmonary AVMs at _____ (size)

A

3mm

236
Q

Hemoptysis: do you typically see active extravasation with the active bleed?

A

No. Active extravasation is NOT typically seen with the active bleed

237
Q

UAE— Gonadotropin-releasing medications (often prescribed for fibroids) should be stopped for _____prior to the case

A

3 months

238
Q

The general rule for transgluteal is to avoid ________ and _______ by access through __________. (IR)

A

Avoid the sciatic nerves and gluteal arteries .

Access through the sarcospinous ligament medially (close to the sacrum, inferior to the piriformis)

239
Q

When to pull an abscess catheter

A

As a general rule,

  • when the patient is better (no fever, wbc normal), and
  • output is <20cc over 24 hours.
240
Q

The the thyroid biopsy is non-diagnostic, you have to wait _______ before you re-biopsy.

A

3 months

241
Q

Approach for percutaneous nephrostomy

A

Posterior lateral approach

242
Q

You can typically pull a sheath with an ACT <150-180.

A

.

243
Q

Artery calcifications (common in diabetics) make compression difficult, and can lead to a false elevation of ________. (IR)

A

The ABI

244
Q

Most common type of endoleaks

A

Type 2

245
Q

Types of endoleaks that are high pressure and need fixing stat

A

Type 1 and Type 3

246
Q 
Circumaortic Left renal vein:
Anterior one is \_\_\_(location)\_\_.
Posterior one is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Filter should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
(IR)
A

Anterior one is SUPERIOR.
Posterior one is INFERIOR.
Filter should be BELOW THE LOWEST ONE.

247
Q

Risk of _____ is increased with IVC filters. (IR)

A

DVT

248
Q

What do you do with a Filter with clot > 1cm^3?

A

Filter stays in

249
Q

What do you do: Budd Chiari with fulminant liver failure

A

Needs a TIPS

250
Q

What do you do: Pseudoaneurysm of the pancreaticoduodenal artery

A

“ sandwich technique”— distal and proximal segments of the artery feeding off the artery must be embolized

251
Q

Median arcuate ligament syndrome: first line therapy

A

Surgical release of the ligament

252
Q

Massive hemoptysis: likely source

A

Bronchial artery. Particles bigger than 325 micrometers

253
Q

Acalculus cholecystitis: treatment (IR)

A

Percutaneous cholecystostomy

254
Q

Hepatic Encephalopathy after TIPS: treatment (IR; 2 options)

A

You can either

1) one place a new covered stent constricted in the middle by a loop of suture – deployed in the pre-existing TIPS,
2) place 2 new stents – parallel to each other (one covered self expandable, one uncovered balloon expandable)

255
Q

Treatment for Recurrent variceal bleeding after placement of a constricted stent

A

Balloon dilation of the constricted stent

256
Q

Appendiceal Abscess: treatment

A

Drain placement

(just remember: a drain should be used for a mature/walled off abscess and no frank peritoneal symptoms.)

257
Q

Inadvertent catheterization of the colon (after trying to place a drain in an abscess)—what to do?

A

Wait 4 weeks for tract to mature—verify by over-the-wire tractogram—then remove the tube.

258
Q

DVT with severe symptoms and no response to systemic anticoagulation—what to do?

A

Catheter Directed Thrombolysis

259
Q

Geiger Mueller: max dose it can handle

A

100 mR/h

260
Q

Define “major spill”:

  • Tc-99m
  • Tl-201
  • In-111
  • Ga-67
  • I-131
A
  • Tc-99m >100 mCi
  • Tl-201 > 100 mCi
  • In-111 >10 mCi
  • Ga-67 >10 mCi
  • I-131 > 1 mCi
261
Q

Annual dose limit to the public

A

100 mrem

262
Q

Not greater than _____ per hour in an “unrestricted area”

A

Not greater than 2 mrem/hr

263
Q

Total body dose per year

A

5 rem

264
Q

Total equivalent organ dose (including skin) per year

A

50 rem

265
Q

Total equivalent extremity dose per year

A

50 rem (500 mSv)

266
Q

Total dose to embryo/fetus over entire 9 months

A

0.5 rem

267
Q

NRC allows no more than ____ of Mo per 1 mCi Tc, at the time of administration

A

0.15 micro Ci

NOTE: micro!

268
Q

Chemical purity (Al in Tc) is done with ______

A

pH paper

269
Q

Allowable amount of Al in Tc is ______

A

<10 micro g

270
Q

Radiochemical purity (looking for free Tc) is done with _______

A

Thin layer chromatography

271
Q

Free Tc occurs from _____

A

Lack of stannous ions or accidental air injection (which oxidizes)

272
Q

Prostate cancer bone mets are uncommon with a PSA less than ____

A

10 mg/ml

273
Q

Flair phenomenon occurs ______ after therapy (time frame)

A

2 weeks-3 months

274
Q

________ Study is more sensitive for lytic mets (NM)

A

Skeletal Survey

275
Q

AVN: hot or cold?

  • early
  • middle
  • late
A
  • early: COLD
  • Middle: HOT (repairing)
  • Late: COLD
276
Q

Particle size for VQ Scan

A

10-100 micrometers

277
Q

Xenon is done ______ during the VQ Scan

A

First

278
Q

Classic thyroid uptake blocker

A

Amiodarone

279
Q

Hashimotos increases risk of ______

A

Lymphoma

280
Q

Hot nodule on Tc shouldn’t be considered benign until ________

A

you show that it’s also hot on I-123. (Concept of the discordant nodule)

281
Q

History of methimazole treatment (even years prior) makes I-131 treatment _________

A

More difficult

282
Q

Methimazole side effect

A

Neutropenia

283
Q

Thyroid uptake Blocker of choice in pregnancy

A

PTU

284
Q

Sestamibi in the parathyroid depends on ____ and ____

A

Blood flow and mitochondria

285
Q

PET imaging post therapy, when to do it:

  • After chemotherapy
  • after radiation

And why wait?

A

After chemo: 2-3 weeks.
After radiation: 8-12 weeks.

This avoids stunning—false negatives, and inflammatory induced false positives.

286
Q

Most commonly used agent for somatostatin receptor imaging.

And “the classic use is for _____”

A

In-111 Pentetreotide

Classic use is for CARCINOID TUMORS

287
Q

Meningiomas: take up octreotide?

A

Yes. Meningiomas take up octreotide.

288
Q

Prior to MIBG, you should block the thyroid with ______ or _______

A

Lugols Iodine or Perchlorate

289
Q

Left bundle branch block: can cause a false ______ defect in the ________

A

False POSITIVE

In the VENTRICULAR SEPTUM (spares the apex)

290
Q

Pulmonary uptake of Thallium is an indication of ______

A

LV dysfunction

291
Q

MIBG mechanism

A

Analog of Norepinephrine—actively transported and stored in neurosecretory granules

292
Q

MDP mechanism

A

Phosphate analog —works via chemisorption

293
Q

Sulfur Colloid mechanism

A

Particles phagocytized by RES

294
Q

The order of tumor prevalence in NF-2

A

Same as the mnemonic MSME:

Schwannoma >meningioma>ependymoma

295
Q

Etiology of Sturge Weber

A

Maldeveloped draining veins

296
Q

All phakomatosis (NF-1, etc) EXCEPT ________ are autosomal _______.

A

All phakomatosis
(NF-1, NF-2, TS, VHL)
EXCEPT STURGE WEBER are autosomal DOMINANT.

(So family screening is a good idea)

297
Q

Most common primary brain tumor in adult

A

Astrocytoma

298
Q

“Calcifies 90% of the time” (Neuro, tumors)

A

Oligodendroglioma

299
Q

Restricted diffusion in ventricle: differential

A

Watch out for Choroid Plexus Xanthogranuloma (NOT a brain tumor, a benign normal variant.)

300
Q

Pituitary : T1 big and bright

A

Pituitary Apoplexy

301
Q

Pituitary: normal T1 bright

A

Posterior part (because of storage of vasopressin, and other storage proteins)

(My note: I’m not sure this makes sense. Grammar equivocal. Adjust as needed)

302
Q

Pituitary: T2 Bright

A

Rathke cleft Cyst

303
Q

Pituitary: calcified

A

Craniopharyngioma

304
Q

CP Angle: invades internal auditory canal

A

Schwannoma

305
Q

CP Angle: invades both internal auditory canals

A

Schwannoma with NF2

306
Q

CP Angle: restricts on diffusion

A

Epidermoid

307
Q

Peds, neuro: arising from vermis

A

Medulloblastoma

308
Q

Peds, neuro: 4th ventricle “toothpaste” out of 4th ventricle

A

Ependymoma

309
Q

Adult myelination pattern

A

T1 at 1 year, T2 at 2 years

310
Q

Myelinated at birth

A

Brainstorm and posterior limb of the internal capsule

311
Q

NOT in the cavernous sinus

A

CN2, CNV3 (typo?)

312
Q

Persistent trigeminal Artery (vertebral to carotid) increases the risk of ______

A

Aneurysm

313
Q

Subfalcine herniation can lead to _____

A

ACA infarct

314
Q

ADEM lesions __(will always OR will not?)__ involve the calloso-septal interface.

A

Will NOT

315
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami progresses from ____ to _____ to ______.

A

BODY to GENU to SPLENIUM

316
Q

Post Radiation changes start _____ (time)

A

After 2 months (latent period)

317
Q

_____is first with Alzheimer Dimentia

A

Hippocampus atrophy

318
Q

Most common TORCH

A

CMV

319
Q

Toxo abscess __(does OR does not?)__ restrict diffusion

A

Does NOT

320
Q

Small cortical tumors can be occult without ______

A

IV contrast

321
Q

JPA and Ganglioglioma (can OR do OR do not?) enhance and are (high OR low?) grade.

A

CAN

LOW

322
Q

Most common fracture (neuro)

A

Nasal bone

323
Q

Most common fracture pattern (neuro).

What does it involve?

A

Zygomaticomaxillary Complex Fracture (Tripod).

Involves the zygoma, inferior orbit, and lateral orbit

324
Q

Supplemental oxygen can mimic ______ on FLAIR

A

SAH

325
Q

Most common location for hypertensive hemorrhage

A

Putamen

326
Q

Restricted diffusion without bright signal on FLAIR should make you think ______

A

Hyperacute (<6 hours) stroke

327
Q

Enhancement of a stroke: Rule of ___ (and describe)

A

Rule of 3s:
Starts at 3 days,
Peaks at 3 weeks,
Gone at 3 months

328
Q

Most common systemic vasculitis to involve the CNS

A

PAN

329
Q

Most common type of craniosynostosis

A

Scaphocephaly

330
Q

Piriform aperture stenosis is associated with ________

A

Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis issues

331
Q

Most common primary petrous apex lesion

A

Cholesterol granuloma

332
Q

Large vestibular aqueduct Syndrome has absence of the bony modiolus in _____ % of cases

A

90%

333
Q

Octreotide Scan will be ______ for esthesioneuroblastoma

A

Positive

334
Q

Main vascular supply to the posterior nose

A

Sphenopalatine artery (terminal internal maxillary artery)

335
Q

Warthins tumors (do OR do not?) take up pertechnetate

A

DO

336
Q

Sjorgens gets salivary gland ______

A

Lymphoma

337
Q

Most common intra-ocular lesion in an adult

A

Melanoma

338
Q

Enhancement of nerve roots for 6 weeks after spine surgery: _________.

A

for 6 weeks: NORMAL.

After that, arachnoiditis.

339
Q

Most important factor for outcome in a traumatic cord injury

A

Hemorrhage in the cord

340
Q

Currarino Triad

A

Anterior Sacral Meningocele,
Anorectal malformation,
Sarcococcygeal osseous defect

341
Q

Most common type of Spinal AVF

A

Type 1 (Dural AVF)

“By far more common”

342
Q

Herpes spares _______. (neuro)

What doesn’t spare it?

A

Basal ganglia

MCA infarcts do not.

343
Q

First sign of a SNAC or SLAC wrist

A

Arthritis at the radioscaphoid compartment

344
Q

SLAC wrist has a ______ deformity

A

DISI

345
Q

The pull of the _______ tendon is the cause of the ___(direction)___ dislocation in the Bennett Fracture

A

Abductor pollucis longus tendon

Dorsolateral

346
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome has an associated with ____

A

Dialysis

347
Q

Degree of femoral head displacement predicts risk of ____

A

AVN

348
Q

What part of the scaphoid is at risk of AVN with fracture ?

A

Proximal pole

349
Q

Most common cause of sacral insufficiency fracture

A

Osteoporosis in old lady

350
Q

Patella dislocation is nearly always which direction?

A

Lateral

351
Q

Tibial plateau fracture is way more common which direction?

A

Laterally

352
Q

SONK favors the __(direction?)__ knee

A

MEDIAL knee (area of max weight bearing)

353
Q

________ excludes Ank Spon

A

Normal SI joints

354
Q

Looser Zones are a type of _____

A

Insufficiency fracture

355
Q

T score of ______ marks osteoporosis

A

-2.5

356
Q

First extensor compartment

A

DeQuervains

357
Q

First and second extensor compartments

A

Intersection Syndrome

358
Q

6th extensor compartment

A

Early RA

359
Q

Flexor pollicis _____ goes through the carpal tunnel.

Flexor pollicis ______ does not.

A

LONGUS goes through.

BREVIS does not.

360
Q

Do pisiform recess and radiocarpal joint normally communicate?

A

Yes.

361
Q

The periosteum is intact in which of the following?:

  • Perthes
  • ALPSA
  • True Bankart
A

Periosteum intact in Perthes and ALPSA.

Disrupted in true Bankart.

362
Q

Buford complex: describe

A

Absent anterior/superior labrum,

Along with thickened middle glenohumeral ligament

363
Q

Which side of medial meniscus is thicker?

A

Posterior

364
Q

Most commonly torn ankle ligament

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

365
Q

TB in the spine: effect on disc space

A

Spares the disc space

so can brucellosis

366
Q

Scoliosis curvature points __(away from or toward?)__ the osteoid osteoma

A

AWAY FROM

367
Q

The only benign skeletal tumor associated with radiation

A

Osteochondroma

368
Q

Mixed Connective Tissue Disease requires ________ for diagnosis

A

Serology (ribonucleoprotein)

369
Q

Medullary Bone Infarct will have ____ in the middle

A

Fat

370
Q

Bucks Handle Meniscal tears are what direction/orientation?

A

Longitudinal

371
Q

Physical exam test for ACL

A

Anterior Drawer Sign

372
Q

Physical exam test for PCL

A

Posterior drawer sign

373
Q

Physical exam test for MCL

A

“McMurray”

My note: I don’t know what this is & assumed physical exam finding from context. Correct if needed

374
Q

No _____ on mag views. (mammo)

A

Grid

375
Q

BR-3 : % chance of cancer

A

Less than 2%

376
Q

BR-5: % chance of cancer (mammo)

A

> 95%

377
Q

Nipple enhancement on post contrast MRI

A

Can be NORMAL! Don’t call it Paget’s!

378
Q

Quadrant with highest density of breast tissue (and therefore the most breast cancers)

A

Upper outer

379
Q

Majority of blood (60%) is via _____(vessel)

Mammo

A

Internal mammary

380
Q

Majority of lymph (97%) goes to the ________

Mammo

A

Axilla

381
Q

The sternalis muscle can only be seen on ____ view

A

CC View

382
Q

Most common location for ectopic breast tissue

A

Axilla

383
Q

Best phase in cycle to have a mammogram (and MRI)

A

Follicular phase (day 7-14)

384
Q

Breast tenderness is max around day ________

A

Day 27-30

My note: written by a dude, for dudes without ladies. Otherwise would know the girls hurt right before period.

385
Q

Most comprehensive risk model (mammo)

But it does not include _______.

A

Tyrer Cuzick

Doesn’t include BREAST DENSITY.

386
Q

If you had more than _____ Gy of chest radiation as a child, you can get a screening MRI

A

20Gy

387
Q

BRCA ___ is seen (more than the other type) with male breast cancer

A

BRCA 2

388
Q

BRCA 1 and 2: age of demographic

A

BRCA 1: more in younger patients

BRCA 2: more post menopausal

389
Q

BRCA ____ is more often a triple negative CA

A

BRCA 1

390
Q

Use the __(Angle)__ for kyphosis, pectus excavatum, and the avoid a pacemaker/line. (Mammo )

A

LMO

391
Q

Use the __(angle)__ to help catch milk of calcium layering. (mammo)

A

ML

392
Q

Which morphology for calcification has highest suspicion for malignancy? (Mammo)

A

Fine pleomorphic

393
Q

Are intramammary lymph nodes in the fibroglandular tissue?

A

No!

394
Q

Surgical scars getting denser: diagnosis

Mammo

A

Think recurrent cancer.

Surgical scars should get lighter.

395
Q

Can you have isolated intracapsular rupture?

Mammo

A

Yes! You CAN!

396
Q

Can you have isolated extracapsular rupture?

Mammo

A

NO! You CAN NOT!

It’s always with intra.

397
Q

If you see silicone in a lymph node, you need to recommend ________ to evaluate for _______.

A

MRI

to evaluate for INTRACAPSULAR RUPTURE

398
Q

Number one risk factor for implant rupture (mammo)

A

Age of implant

399
Q

Tamoxifen causes a ______ in parenchyma uptake, then _______. (mammo)

A

DECREASE in parenchyma uptake,

then REBOUND.

400
Q

T2 Bright Things: usually benign or malignant?

Except________

(Mammo)

A

Usually BENIGN .

Don’t forget COLLOID CANCER is T2 bright.

401
Q

Tibial pseudoarthroses

A

NF-1

Radiology (8 decks)

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