PCOL 832 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Receptors can be___.

A

Enzymes, ion channels.

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2
Q

Endocrine signaling is

A

Signaling through blood. Examples include: steroids, catecholamines.

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3
Q

Paracrine signaling is

A

Signaling on neighboring cells in close proximity. Example: insulin release of acetylcholine, neurotransmission

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4
Q

Autocrine signaling is

A

Signaling when the secretory cell is the target cell. Ex: T-lymphocytes ligand is the antigen.

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5
Q

Juxtacrine signaling is

A

Direct contact between cells, one with the ligand and the other with the receptor, ligand/hormone is not secreted, it is attached to the cell.

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6
Q

Which signaling method is this: Macrophages release cytokines, cytokines act on nearby cells lining blood vessels to cause vasodilation.

A

Paracrine signaling

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7
Q

which type of signaling method is this: T lymphocytes are presented with an antigen by dendritic cells. T cell is triggered to produce and secrete IL2, a cytokine. IL2 binds receptor on surface of naive T cell and induces it to proliferate.

A

Autocrine signaling

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8
Q

Which type of signaling method is this: Naive T lymphocytes are presented with an antigen by dendritic cells. The ligand is the antigen (foreign). It is attached to the DC membrane rather than being secreted. Ligand binds CD28 receptor on a Naive T-cell. Binding triggers immune response against foreign protein or entity, such a s microbe.

A

Juxtacrine

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9
Q

A stimulus triggers a cell to secrete a ___

A

chemical messenger

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10
Q

A bound receptor triggers a series of events inside the cells that elicit a response. This is referred to as ____.

A

Signal Transduction

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11
Q

Cell compartmentalization is achieved mostly by ____

A

Lipid membranes

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12
Q

Which organelles are common to most cell types?

A

-Mitochondria
-Cytoplasm
-Golgi
-Lysosomes

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13
Q

The plasma membrane and most other organelle membranes are ___

A

lipid bilayers

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14
Q

The layers of lipid bilayer are composed of ____ and ____

A

phospholipids and cholesterol

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15
Q

____ plays an important role in regulating movement of molecules in and out of the cell.

A

Plasma membrane

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16
Q

Hydrophilic ___ face ____ of cell

A

Head, inside and outside

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17
Q

Hydrophobic ___ make up the ___ of bilayer.

A

tail, middle

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18
Q

Where are integral proteins located?

A

They span the membrane or are embedded in the membrane.

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19
Q

Where are peripheral proteins?

A

Associate with membranes via interactions with integral membrane proteins or by covalent attachment to special lipids.

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20
Q

Carbohydrates form the ___ on the exterior side of the protein.

A

glycocalyx

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21
Q

What does glycocalyx contain?

A

It contains glycoproteins and glycolipids that surround the cell membranes of many cells.

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22
Q

Oligosaccharides are attached to proteins through either N-glycosidic (____) or O-glycosidic (____) bonds.

A

Asparagine, serine

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23
Q

The ____ makes the cell surface very hydrophilic and restricts the passage of hydrophilic molecules through the ____.

A

glycocalyx, plasma membrane

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24
Q

What are the three transport systems for molecules to cross?

A

Active, Passive, Vesicular

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25
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

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26
Q

what are the two mechanisms of passive transport?

A

1.Simple diffusion
2. Facilitative diffusion

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27
Q

In passive transport the ion moves ____ the concentration

A

With

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28
Q

In passive transport ion moves from ____ concentration to ____ concentration.

A

High to low

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29
Q

Which molecules freely cross the membrane? which type of transport is this?

A

gases (o2, co2), Water, Steroids (lipid-soluble). This is simple diffusion

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30
Q

Drugs that are small molecules often use ___ to enter cells.

A

transport/carrier

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31
Q

In active transport, ions move ___ the concentration gradient from ___ concentration to ___ concentrations.

A

against, low to high

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32
Q

what is an example of secondary active transport?

A

In a Na/glucose transporter, glucose moves from low to high (against) concentration gradient but does not require ATP. It uses the energy from stored Na ion gradient which did involve ATP. Rather it is powered by Na/K pump.

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33
Q

Which 3 transporters work together to maintain cellular homeostasis and what type is each?

A

2 active (Na/K ATPase and Na/glucose)
1 Passive (facilitated diffusion of glucose GLUT)

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34
Q

What is efflux pump refer to?

A

After drug enters the cell, it can be pumped out by active transporters

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35
Q

Which type of ions move through vesicular transport?

A

Macromolecules and macromolecular complexes.

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36
Q

What is this called? Plasma membrane invaginates around macromolecules and encloses them in a vesicle which them moves them into cytoplasm.

A

Endocytosis

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37
Q

What does it refer to when pathogens are engulfed?

A

Phagocytosis

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38
Q

What is receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

When a ligand binds a receptor on the surface of a cell and the plasma membrane engulfs it into a coated vesicle.

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39
Q

what is exocytosis?

A

When vesicles inside the cell fuse with the plasma membrane and their contents are extruded into extracellular fluid.

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40
Q

which cell organelle is surrounded by lipid bilayer membrane?

A

Lysosomes

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41
Q

what is the function of a lysosome?

A

Break down variety of macromolecules.

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42
Q

Lysosomes break down macromolecules at a low PH, how is the acidity maintained?

A

By ATPase that pump hydrogen against the gradient into the lysosome.

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43
Q

Neutrophils/Macrophages engulf pathogens or dead cells to form phagosomes. Phagosomes fuse with _____and their contents are degraded/

A

Lysosomes

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44
Q

Inner membrane of mitochondria is highly impermeable and has ____.

A

Cristae

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45
Q

What is the space inside the inner membrane of mitochondria called?

A

Mitochondrial Matrix

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46
Q

What is contained in the mitochondrial matrix?

A

Enzymes involved in fuel oxidation as well as DNA that encodes several ETC proteins

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47
Q

Glycogen is stored in which cell organelle?

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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48
Q

Which organelle contains enzymes for synthesis of lipids?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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49
Q

Drugs and toxins are primarily metabolized in ____ of a cell.

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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50
Q

Ribosomes are located outside of which cell organelle?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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51
Q

Where is the site of initial sorting of newly synthesized proteins?

A

Rough ER

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52
Q

Where is the site of initial post-transational modification like N-linked glycosylation?

A

Rough ER

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53
Q

Specialized form of smooth endoplasmic reticulum found specifically in muscle cells is called?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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54
Q

Which organelle is involved in sorting and distribution of proteins and lipids synthesized in the Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

Golgi

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55
Q

The ___ further processes the proteins that were initially modified in the ER.

A

Golgi

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56
Q

____ formation is the target of several cancer therapeutics.

A

Microtubule

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57
Q

What are microtubules make of?

A

Tubulin subunits

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58
Q

Which type of filament provide structural support for the plasma and nuclear membranes?

A

Intermediate filaments

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59
Q

Which type of filament control cell shape and cell movement?

A

actin filament

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60
Q

The nucleus is surrounded by a ___ ___ ___ membrane.

A

double lipid bilayer

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61
Q

___ is located in the nucleus.

A

Nucleolus

62
Q

What is it called when chromatin are tightly compacted?

A

Heterochromatin

63
Q

What is it called when chromatin are loosley compacted?

A

Euchromatin

64
Q

__ have XX chromosomes.

A

Females

65
Q

Hydrophobic ligands are sensed by ___ receptors.

A

Intracellular

66
Q

Hydrophilic ligands are sensed by ___receptors.

A

plasma membrane receptors

67
Q

When a ligand binds to an extracellular domain, it causes conformational change that activates the domain. What are the three events that may occur?

A
  1. Opening of a channel in the membrane
  2. Activation of an enzyme in the receptor
  3. Change in activity of proteins bound to the receptors intracellular domain.
68
Q

MAP kinase signaling is initiated by activation of a ____

A

tyrosine kinase receptor

69
Q

What are examples of “activation of an enzymatic activity”?

A

1.tyrosine kinase receptor
2. Serine/threonine kinase receptor

70
Q

What is one example of serine/thyrosine kinase signaling:

A

TGF-beta signaling

71
Q

What is one example of tyrosine kinase activity?

A

Jak-Stat

72
Q

Inhibitors of Jak Kinase are approved for treatment of which three diseases?

A

1.Rheumatoid Arthritis
2.Psoriasis
3.Myelofibrosis

73
Q

True or false: Cytokines are hormones.

A

False, it is a small protein

74
Q

Cytokines bind ____ receptors.

A

plasma membrane

75
Q

Define transcription factor:

A

It is a protein that binds directly to a specific DNA sequence

76
Q

Proteins bound by ___, alter gene expression through regulation of transcription factors.

A

second messengers

77
Q

signaling pathways regulate _____ to alter gene expression and elicit a cellular response.

A

transcription factors

78
Q

what is a promoter?

A

Upstream to the start site of transcription and is where RNA polymerase binds the gene to begin transcription.

79
Q

what is an enhancer?

A

Can be upstream or downstream the gene body or even in intron regions. They act to strengthen or weaken the promoter’s ability to attract RNA polymerase.

80
Q

Sodium is high ___ the cell and low ___the cell.

A

Outside, inside

81
Q

Moving something with its concentration gradient (H to L) to generate chemical energy to move another molecule against its gradient (L to H) is an example of which transporter?

A

NA Glucose Co-transporter

82
Q

There is an excess of transporter molecules outside of the cell, they have to bind to proteins but there are a limited number of proteins, so the rate will stabilize. This refers to:

A

Saturation kinetics

83
Q

What happens to oxygen during fuel oxidation?

A

It goes to water

84
Q

The fed state is regulated by ___ hormone.

A

Insulin

85
Q

True or false: Fat and triglycerides are the same.

A

True

86
Q

Glycerol and fatty acids are connected by ___

A

lipolysis

87
Q

Esters form between ___ and ____

A

fatty acids and hydroxyl groups

88
Q

Peptide bonds form between a ___ and ____ group.

A

carboxylic acid and amino

89
Q

Esters are ____ products between fatty acids and ___

A

condensation, alcohol

90
Q

Do proteins contain ester groups?

A

No

91
Q

Which has no double bonds: Saturated or Unsaturated?

A

Saturated

92
Q

What is a glycerol?

A

It is a 3 carbon molecule with 3 hydroxyl groups

93
Q

What is a choline?

A

Quaternary ammonium + alcohol

94
Q

___ is a pathological metabolic state marked by extreme and uncontrolled ketosis.

A

Ketoacidosis

95
Q

What are three examples of ketone bodies?

A

-Acetate
-Acetoacetate
-B-Hydroxybutyrate

96
Q

Acetate is formed by the nonenzymatic ___ of acetoacetate.

A

decarboxylation

97
Q

In the ___ state, the liver takes in more glucose from the blood than it releases.

A

Fed

98
Q

Which process takes place after insulin release following feeding?

A

Glycogenesis

99
Q

___ is the process of breakdown of fat into fatty acids and glycerol for energy.

A

Lipolysis

100
Q

Where does lipolysis take place?

A

adipose tissue

101
Q

where does glycogenolysis take place?

A

Liver and muscle cells

102
Q

what is the primay enzyme of glycogen breakdown?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

103
Q

what is the starting molecule of lipogenesis:

A

acetyl-CoA

104
Q

Acetyl-CoA is used to synthesize ____ in a process called ____

A

fatty acids, fatty acid synthesis

105
Q

Fatty acids are combined with ___ to form ___

A

glycerol, triglycerides

106
Q

which hormone promotes lipogenesis?

A

Insulin

107
Q

Why is fat an excellent source of energy?

A

Less oxygen present in fat, don’t have to waste energy to carry out. Fat is least oxidized.

108
Q

___ is when something gives away electrons. ___ is the gain of electrons.

A

Oxidized, Reduction

109
Q

Cell signals ___ when fat storages are full.

A

leptin

110
Q

which protein peptide is involved in food intake?

A

Leptin

111
Q

what is a chylomicron?

A

Lipoproteins that are produced by the gut after fat digestion. Chylomicrons transport triglycerides

112
Q

Muscle stores ___ but only for its ___ use.

A

Glycogen, own

113
Q

what is the non-toxic form of ammonia called?

A

Urea

114
Q

___ are the signature metabolites of starvation.

A

Ketone bodies

115
Q

which two hormones/molecules stimulate glycogenolysis?

A

Glucagon and epinephrine

116
Q

In a fasted state, the brain and red blood cells use glucose released by the?

A

Liver

117
Q

Under glucagon control, adipose tissues are induced to release _____ and ___ from stored triaglyceride.

A

Fatty acids and glycerol

118
Q

___ produces lactate which return to the liver as substrate for gluconeogenesis.

A

RBC

119
Q

The glycerol released from adipose tissue is used by the ___ for ____.

A

liver, gluconeogenesis

120
Q

____ (NOT triglycerides) serve as fuel for erythrocytes.

A

Glucose

121
Q

High glucose diet= ___ urea excretion

A

small because no need to break down any protein

122
Q

In a fasting state, Urea excretion is ____. Because body has to break down protein for glucose.

A

High

123
Q

Ketone body formation takes place in the ____ and ____

A

kidney cortex and liver

124
Q

What does a low Km value indicate?

A

That less substrate is needed for the enzyme

125
Q

What is the third class of enzymes and what is an example.

A

Hydrolases: Proteases

126
Q

what is the 2nd class of enzymes and what is an example:

A

Transferases: Kinases

127
Q

What is the 1st class of enzymes?

A

Oxidoreductases

128
Q

going from acetoacetate to B-hydroxybutyrate, which rxn is taking place?

A

Oxidoreductases

129
Q

____ are irreversible inhibitors of the neuronal enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

A

organophosphates

130
Q

what is AMP in terms of glycolytic flux?

A

AMP is a potent allosteric activator of glycolytic flux (glucose- pyruvate)

131
Q

Increase in AMP in a cell =

A

Glycolysis is turned on

132
Q

example of covalent adduction?

A

Penicillin

133
Q

which inhibitors from covalent adducts that permanently alter the target?

A

Irreversible covalent inhibitors.

134
Q

Phase 1 reactions include:

A

Reduction, Oxidation, Hydroxylation, Hydrolysis

135
Q

Phase 2 reaction include:

A

Conjugation, Sulfation, Methylation, Glucuronidation

136
Q

Low Km = ___ Affinity

A

high

137
Q

The lower the Km, the ___ the enzyme is capable of turning over a substrate.

A

better

138
Q

Ethanol to Aldehyde is done through which enzyme?

A

Alchohol dehydrogenase

139
Q

Aldehyde to Acid is done through which enzyme?

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

140
Q

Write the nucleotide and nucleoside of G

A

Nucleotide: Guanine, Nucleoside: Guanosine

141
Q

write the nucleotide and nucleoside of C

A

Nucleotide: Cytosine, Nucleoside: Cytidine

142
Q

ribose is ___ and deoxyribose is ___

A

OH, H

143
Q

Hydrolysis turns ___ to ____

A

ADP to ATP

144
Q

what does NAD stand for?

A

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide

145
Q

what are coenzymes?

A

Non-protein organic molecules

146
Q

which coenzyme is part of lactic acid dehydrogenase?

A

NAD

147
Q

Competitive inhibition ___ Km and ___ Vmax

A

Increased Km and has no effect on Vmax

148
Q

cAMP has ___ ester bonds.

A

2

149
Q

which bonds connect phosphate bonds together?

A

anhydride bonds

150
Q

which rxn converts glucose 6-p to glucose 1-p?

A

isomerization

151
Q
A