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C130 > PCO Pilot Checkout > Flashcards

PCO Pilot Checkout Flashcards

1
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within _______ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstruction. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______.

A

25ft; 10ft

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2
Q

When offloading married pallets, how many 55-gallon drums are placed under each pallet?

A

4

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3
Q

During a Method A combat offload, to set the power, advance the throttles to approximately ________ of torque.

A

5,000lbs

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4
Q

What is a good characteristic of using ERO procedures?

A

Expedites aircraft or cargo movement

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5
Q

During any type of defensive maneuver, the crew must _____________.

A

Be aware of aircraft energy, wingtip, and ground clearance

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6
Q

During mission planning for operations at a Tactical LZ, which of the following information sources would you study to obtain information such as surrounding obstacles, weight bearing capacities, runway dimensions, and surface composition?

A

LZ Survey

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7
Q

If utilizing the ‘Iron Cross’ method for NVG altitude sectoring, the corridor should be how wide?

A

6NM

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8
Q

Drop zone controllers transmit mean effective winds for drop altitude based on which reference?

A

Above Ground Level (AGL)

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9
Q

Plan MSA at an indicated altitude of _________ above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or ________ plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within ______ of route centerline to include the aircraft urn radius.

A

500ft; 400ft; 5NM

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10
Q

Which of the following FAA airspace classifications do not require two-way radio communications for VFR operations?

A

E and G

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11
Q

Low level visual arrivals are normally flown at high speed and very low level altitude. They are designed for an approach to an LZ when ______________.

A

The primary threat is from SAMs or ADA

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12
Q

Which type arrival does NOT permit the crew to dissipate energy through bank angle and “G” loading?

A

Straight-In

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13
Q

Which publication describes required markings and dimensions for Landing Zones?

A

AFI 13-217

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14
Q

When performing an NVG max effort landing, crews must avoid factor obstacles and may descend from the NVG enroute altitude when __________.

A

Aircraft position is positively known and terrain clearance is assured along the approach

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15
Q

On an NVG final approach, the pilot monitoring (PM) should verbalize airspeed and VVI beginning at _________.

A

300ft AGL

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16
Q

As PF, you are accomplishing an NVG takeoff with a takeoff/refusal speed of 105 KIAS. At 90 KIAS, you experience an NVG failure. You should ________.

A

Consider continuing the takeoff as it may be safer than performing a high-speed abort

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17
Q

Which of these options is NOT a good recommendation if threat considerations are the primary factor?

A

Accelerate to 250 KIAS before the airfield fence line, then execute a zoom maneuver to clear the small arms WEZ

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18
Q

The right-hand restraint detent latches (locks) provide ______ pounds forward restraint and ______ pounds aft restraint.

A

20,000lbs; variable 0 to 4,000lbs

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19
Q

The maximum load that may be extracted over the cargo ramp during airdrop is ______ pounds.

A

42,000lbs

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20
Q

For other than unilateral training, a successful drop is if ______ of the loads land within the boundaries of the surveyed DZ and are recovered in usable condition by friendly forces.

A

90%

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21
Q

During an airdrop, CCT/STT furnished surface and mean effective winds are reported as _______, while onboard computers may provide winds in magnetic, true or grid reference.

A

Magnetic

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22
Q

Ground parties and aircrews must coordinate and brief NO-DROP markings for ______ DZs.

A

All types of

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23
Q

Cross-check the pressure altimeter with the radar altimeter during the ________ to ensure the aircraft is at or above the minimum AGL drop altitude. Identify a point to conduct this cross-check during mission planning.

A

Run-In

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24
Q

No more than _______ paratroopers shall be dropped from the ramp on a single pass.

A

20 static-line

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25
Q

During a heavy equipment airdrop, if the release mechanism fails to release electrically, the loadmaster will ______ after hearing and seeing “Green Light”.

A

Pull manual release handle

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26
Q

During a CDS drop, at “GREEN LIGHT”, the PM will turn on the green light and place his/her other hand on the _______ in case of an emergency.

A

Flap Lever

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27
Q

During an LCLA airdrop, execute the airdrop with ______ flaps and the ramp and door open.

A

50%

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28
Q

The ______ will acknowledge the no-drop call

A

PM and loadmaster

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29
Q

A towed parachutist will indicate consciousness and that a reserve parachute is ready by ______.

A

Maintaining a tight body position with both hands on the reserve

30
Q

When notified of a heavy equipment malfunction, the PF will maintain drop airspeed and AGL altitude (if possible) and avoid flying over or upwind of water or built up areas to the maximum extent possible. Make ______ to airdrop the platform.

A

No further attempt

31
Q

For a CDS malfunction, if the loads jammed in the ramp area, notify the engineer to ______ when the door is released from the unlock. If this is necessary, the loadmaster will close the ramp after securing the load.

A

Stop closing action

32
Q

If an SATB falls on the ramp, make no attempt to remove the bundle from the ramp prior to closing the ramp and door. Do not attempt further airdrops utilizing the ______.

A

Bomb rack

33
Q

What is a disadvantage of large formations?

A

Requires more detailed departure/arrival planning

34
Q

Your aircraft is on the runway for formation takeoff. A preceding aircraft aborts the takeoff. What’s the correct action for your aircraft, if you have NOT started your takeoff roll?

A

Hold until the runway is clear

35
Q

During a visual formation departure (prior to acceleration), your aircraft develops a maintenance problem that does not allow you to continue the mission. What is your best course of action?

A

Notify lead of intentions and hold clear of traffic while remaining VMC

36
Q

Under what circumstances must the formation leader announce unplanned enroute airspeed changes to the formation?

A

At night, for airspeed changes of 15 knots or more

37
Q

During crosswind conditions, it may be necessary for wingmen to adjust their lateral formation position in order to maintain the same relative ground track as lead over the drop zone. This statement is true (degrees drift)

A

With greater than 3 degrees drift

38
Q

When flying a visual formation recovery, when should a landing aircraft execute a go-around?

A

When the landing interval from the preceding aircraft is less than 15 seconds

39
Q

SKE formation aircraft receive SKE maneuver commands from ______ .

A

The aircraft whose slot number is programmed as their selected leader

40
Q

Which indicator displays cross track and relative altitude information?

A

ADI

41
Q

For how long must the BITE check run to ensure completion of the automatic test feature?

A

2 minutes

42
Q

Formation lead will climb at what airspeed / VVI during SKE departure?

A

180KIAS / 1500fpm

43
Q

When must the SKE Parameters checklist be completed?

A

Prior to takeoff when SKE will be used during flight

44
Q

What airspeed do wingmen fly during the initial departure?

A

Up to 190 KIAS, then up to 210 KIAS once leveled at assembly altitude until in position

45
Q

When performing a SKE formation lead change, lead will ______.

A

Turn 45 degrees from base heading in the safest direction until 1 NM offset from the formation, then drift back to rejoin at the end of the formation (IMC) or any position (VMC).

46
Q

In a SKE formation, which of the following is true for an overrunning wingman?

A

Set 1,000 feet cross track in the safest direction

47
Q

What conditions are there to initiate a descent for a SKE formation airdrop?

A

1) Lead’s position is positively known
2) The entire formation is within 3 NMs of DZ run-in course centerline
3) The last aircraft in the formation is at or past the DZ entry point (or the last aircraft in the flight or element if using the waterfall descent procedure)

48
Q

When do wingmen initiate their climb for the Drop Zone Escape on a SKE airdrop?

A

At their lead’s “E” prep for the escape maneuver

49
Q

What is the maximum recommended taxi speed on hard surface taxiways?

A

20 KTS

50
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within ______ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstruction. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______.

A

25ft; 10ft

51
Q

Who is authorized to operate the dual rails during combat offload operations?

A

Loadmaster

52
Q

For a Method A combat offload, a taxiway or ramp at least ______ long is required.

A

500ft

53
Q

Where will the safety observer be positioned during a combat offload?

A

At the bottom of the flight deck ladder

54
Q

During Method B combat offload, the loadmaster will state “stop” when approximately how much of the pallet remains on the ramp?

A

1 foot

55
Q

During a Method A combat offload, to set the power, advance the throttles to approximately _______ of torque?

A

5,000 in/lbs

56
Q

During a Method A combat offload, the loadmaster lowers the ramp to which of the following positions?

A

ADS position (lever)

57
Q

What is a positive characteristic of using ERO procedures?

A

To expedite aircraft or cargo movement

58
Q

Who will monitor the aircraft brakes, inter-phone, and radios during ERO operations?

A

At least one pilot in the seat

59
Q

Where will the safety observer be stationed during an ERO?

A

Forward of the cargo in the cargo compartment

60
Q

Boundary, Enemy, Security Forces and Topography (BEST) are considerations for ______.

A

Airfield Security

61
Q

During mission planning for operations at a Tactical LZ, which of the following information sources would you study to obtain information such as surrounding obstacles, weight bearing capacities, runway dimensions and surface composition?

A

LZ Survey

62
Q

If utilizing the ‘Iron Cross’ method for NVG altitude sectoring, the corridor should be how wide?

A

6 NM

63
Q

Many tactical operations require VFR conditions to be utilized. Which of the following establishes the minimum ceiling and visibility criteria allowable for VFR flight operations?

A

AFI 11-202V3

64
Q

Drop zone controllers transmit mean effective winds for drop altitude based on which reference?

A

Above Ground Level (AGL)

65
Q

Plan MSA at an indicated altitude of _______ above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or ______ plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within ______ of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius.

A

500ft; 400ft; 5 NM

66
Q

What document contains a list of surveyed drop zones and landing zones?

A

ZAR

67
Q

During peacetime operations, routes will not be planned or flown within less than how many nautical miles from known sensitive environmental areas?

A

1 NM

68
Q

Which of the following FAA airspace classifications do not require two-way radio communications for VFR operations?

A

E and G

69
Q

When flying at night (with or without NVGs), potential for spatial disorientation increases with ______.

A

Rapid changes in airspeed, steep bank angles, and changing “G” loads

70
Q

Which tactical VFR arrival is easily adaptable to landing on either runway?

A

Beam

C130 (8 decks)

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