Closed-Book Test MQF

Question 1

During other than unilateral training with a six ship, who can replace duty lead if they abort after stations time?

Answer 1

(Both b & c)

• A flight lead crew &
• For IMC airdrops, every crew in a flight lead position must also be an AWADS crew

Question 2

For peace-time do not use runways less than 3,000 feet. For peace-time, compute landing performance with two engines in reverse, and two engines in ground idle (True or False)?

Answer 2

True

Question 3

All tactical/max effort operations must fall in the “______” area of charts (corrected for RCR).

Answer 3

Recommended

Question 4

NVG enroute leg altitudes are computed at _______ within the tactical corridor. The standard width for a tactical corridor is 3 NM. Tactical corridor width can vary from 1 NM minimum either side of centerline, to as wide as desired (10 NM either side is the max recommended). Corridors do not have to be symmetrical, but must be annotated when different from the standard.

Answer 4

Higher of ‘a’ or ‘b’

• an indicated altitude of 500-feet above the highest spot terrain elevation
• an indicted altitude of 400-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour

Question 5

MSA is an initial VFR altitude that provides additional terrain clearance while the aircrew analyzes situations that require interruption of low-level operations (route disorientation and equipment malfunctions or when either pilot must leave the seat during low-level operations, etc). (True or False)?

Answer 5

True

Question 6

Compute minimum IFR enroute altitude by _______ ?

Answer 6

All of the above

• Adding 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made obstruction, terrain feature, or spot elevation)
• Within 5 NMs of route centerline (10 NMs outside the US unless 5 NM authorized by MAJCOM/DO)
• Round the altitude up to the next 100-foot increment

Question 7

To compute ESA, add ______ feet (______ feet in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within ___ NM either side of the planned route.

Answer 7

1,000; 2,000; 22

Question 8

During night VMC airdrops, after slowdown you may descend to drop altitude ______.

Answer 8

When the DZ is in sight and will remain in sight, or when a positive position is identified and adequate terrain clearance is assured.

Question 9

Fly minimum IMC drop altitudes at _______ feet above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made obstruction, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or ______ feet plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever highest, within ___ nautical miles either side of the run-in centerline from ______ to ______ or as specified in AFI 11-231, whichever is higher.

Answer 9

500, 400, 3, DZ entry, DZ exit

Question 10

Due to peacetime route restrictions, routes will not be flown with less than ___ NM separation (___ NMs in excess of ___ KIAS) when below ______ feet AGL from known sensitive environmental areas such as hospitals, fish hatcheries, ostrich and em farms, large poultry complexes, recreation areas, institutions, and similar locations.

Answer 10

1; 3; 250; 2,000

Question 11

On Tac Low Level flights, avoid prohibited airspace by what distance?

Answer 11

3 NM

Question 12

Low-level navigation charts will be annotated with any added, deleted, or changed information in the most recent CHUM or supplement. In no case will CHUM coverage be less than ___ NMs either side of the entire planned route of flight.

Answer 12

22

Question 13

For NVG approaches and landings, the navigator will program a backup ARA approach in SCNS and configure the radar to monitor the approach course to assist the pilot in LZ acquisition, approach, and landing. (True or False)?

Answer 13

True

Question 14

Which of the following statements concerning Combat Offload Procedures is false?

Answer 14

• Explosives and munitions may be combat offloaded with user concurrence.

True STUFF:

• Many explosive items have specific “drop” criteria that, if exceeded, render the item useless or dangerous to the user
• Explosives and munitions rigged for airdrop may be combat offloaded without MAJCOM/A3/DO approval
• A taxiway or ramp at least 500 feet long is required; however, 1,000 feet is desired to provide a margin of safety

Question 15

Crews are allowed to operate on runways with AMP 4 lighting. (True or False)

Answer 15

False

Question 16

Formation takeoff and land minimums are:

Answer 16

All of the above

• the minimums for the airport navigation aid
• not lower than 200 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility (RVR 5000)
• During IFR formation operations, adhere to both ceiling and visibility minimums

Question 17

Minimum formation taxi interval is:

Answer 17

Both ‘a’ & ‘b’

• One aircraft length (4 engines)
• Two aircraft lengths (2 engines)

Question 18

For aborts during takeoff, the navigator immediately transmits an abort call (three times using formation position number) on _______ and the copilot on ______.

Answer 18

interplane, primary frequency

Question 19

At night, lead will announce unplanned airspeed changes of ____ knots or greater.

Answer 19

15

Question 20

Using visual procedures, rejoining aircraft will maintain _______ the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted.

Answer 20

500 feet above or below

Question 21

For tactical recoveries, (overhead/downwind), roll out on final at no less than ______ feet AGL. Aircraft will not _____ _____ preceding aircraft during the recovery.

Answer 21

150, descend below

Question 22

For visual recoveries, the desired landing interval is _____ seconds, minimum _____ seconds.

Answer 22

20; 15

Question 23

The priority of (FCI) signals during SKE operations is ______.

Answer 23

altitude, heading, airspeed

Question 24

During SKE procedures, element leads will not exceed ______ degrees of bank for planned enroute turns. For formation check turns all aircraft (including element leads) will use ______ degrees of bank unless otherwise briefed.

Answer 24

20, 30

Question 25

For a SKE enroute rejoin, the rejoining aircraft must be stabilized in position at formation altitude by _____(IMC) or _____ (VMC).

Answer 25

Initial Point/ One minute prior to TOT

Question 26

If the formation is within 3 nm of DZ course centerline and leads position is positively known, when may aircraft in an IMC SKE formation descend from the last enroute altitude to drop altitude?

Answer 26

When the last aircraft in the formation is at or past the DZ entry point (or the last aircraft in the flight or element if using the waterfall decent procedures)

Question 27

In preflight planning, you determine that obstacle clearance with one engine inoperative cannot be maintained on the AWADS/SKE run-in. You can overcome this problem by:

Answer 27

Any of the above:

• Increase drop altitude
• Adjust the number of aircraft
• Revise run-in and /or escape course

Question 28

What is desired aircraft separation for a SKE formation on final approach? What is the minimum separation?

Answer 28

6,000 feet; 5,000 feet

Question 29

The time required by the ______ will determine when tactical checklists must be accomplished enroute.

Answer 29

loadmaster

Question 30

The 20 minute and 10 minute advisory calls (in addition to the one minute and five second advisories) are required for ______ airdrops?

Answer 30

Personnel

Question 31

During personnel airdrops, the aircraft must be at or above drop altitude and stable not later than _____ minute(s) out (_____ minute(s) out for jump master directed drops) to allow the jump master access to the paratroop door.

Answer 31

1; 2

Question 32

Except for a personnel airdrop, the aircraft must be level at drop altitude and on drop airspeed by when?

Answer 32

“Green Light” time

Question 33

The ______ and ______ will acknowledge the “no drop” call.

Answer 33

Pilot monitoring, Loadmaster

Question 34

Quick don masks are emergency equipment and are not approved for pre-breathing or high-altitude operations (at or above FL 200). (True or False)?

Answer 34

True

Question 35

One loadmaster may be used on personnel drops (up to 13,999 feet MSL) when utilizing the ramp and door or, only one paratroop door is opened.

Answer 35

True

Question 36

Air deflector must be operational if paratroop doors are used. If an air deflector does not extend, do not open the affected troop door.

Answer 36

True

Question 37

If operational requirements dictate, the ramp and door and paratroop doors may be opened at the same time to facilitate combination airdrops. (True or False)?

Answer 37

False

Question 38

Combination drops are restricted to single ship or the last aircraft of an equipment formation. (True or False)?

Answer 38

True

Question 39

It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross wights less than ______ pounds?

Answer 39

104,000

Question 40

Under satisfactory conditions (static line exit), the minimum acceptable emergency bailout altitude is _____ feet above the terrain.

Answer 40

400

Question 41

Minimum emergency bailout altitude for free-fall parachutists is _____ feet AGL.

Answer 41

2,000

Question 42

Should a parachutist become entangled during exit and towed behind the aircraft during flight, the pilot will _____.

Answer 42

Maintain drop airspeed, at least the minimum drop altitude (AGL) for ht retype parachute being used, and avoid flying over or up wind of water or built up areas.

Question 43

Should a parachutist become entangled during exit from a troop door and towed behind the aircraft in flight, the pilot must always lower the landing gear and set the flaps to 100% as soon as possible. (True or False)?

Answer 43

False

Question 44

During training the first priority is to ______ for a towed parachutist from a paratroop door and to ______ for a towed parachutist from the cargo ramp and door.

Answer 44

Retrieve the parachutist whether he or she is conscious or unconscious; cut the parachutist free if consciousness is indicated

Question 45

With multiple 28 foot extraction chutes deployed outside the aircraft, the following are true EXCEPT:

Answer 45

Power may be reduced to achieve decreased rage while slowing to max effort takeoff speed
True statements:
- Max thrust will be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent
- Drag produced by the chutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off
- Max effort takeoff speed is 1.2 X power on stall speed and provides an acceptable airspeed margin for zero bank angle