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C130 > PCO End of Course Exam > Flashcards

PCO End of Course Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The first consideration while planning an airland combat mission should be:

A

The threat.

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2
Q

What should be your primary planning consideration affecting an NVG approach?

A

Terrain and obstacles.

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3
Q

During NVG airland operations, if the airfield has a certified IFR approach, you should:

A

Back up the instrument approach with a Self-Contained Approach.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for airland arrivals?

A

Concentric circles

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5
Q

If utilizing the Arrival and Departure Corridors(“Iron Cross”) method to determine NVG altitude sectoring, the arrival corridor should be how wide?

A

6 NM

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6
Q

Incorporating decision points, developing multiple approach options, and establishing Go/No-go criteria are all examples of:

A

Tactical Flexibility.

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7
Q

When performing an objective area analysis prior to an NVG airland operation, which of the following would be helpful?

A

FLIP, ASRR, JEPPESON publications & One-meter and five-meter imagery & PFPS, FALCONVIEW, SKYVIEW

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8
Q

Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased “G” loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:

A

Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to a low-level arrival?

A

Makes LZ acquisition less difficult.

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10
Q

What colors are the day landing zone marking panels?

A

Orange and cerise

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11
Q

Which airfield marking pattern (AMP) is normally used for NVG landings?

A

AMP-3

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12
Q

Day low level arrivals are normally flown at what altitude range above the ground?

A

300 to 500 feet

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13
Q

Low altitude arrivals are normally flown at what minimum altitude above field elevation for NVG visual approaches?

A

500-1000 feet AGL

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a major factor in determining a slowdown point for a straight-in arrival to an LZ?

A

Airfield Lighting

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15
Q

Which type arrival does NOT permit the crew to dissipate energy through bank angle and “G” loading?

A

Straight-in

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16
Q

Which tactical VFR arrival is easily adaptable to landing on either runway?

A

Abeam

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17
Q

Which of the following high altitude descents involves flying at L/D max airspeeds until 20,000 feet and then 250 KIAS?

A

Penetration descent

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18
Q

When performing an NVG max effort landing, crews must avoid factor obstacles and may descend from the NVG enroute altitude when:

A

The LZ is in sight and will remain in sight or the aircraft position is positively known. & Terrain clearance is assured within 3 NM of the LZ. & The aircraft is in a safe position to land.

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19
Q

You should climb out at charted performance values if which of the following is your primary concern?

A

Terrain and obstacles & Small arms fire

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20
Q

If NVG failure is more than a battery failure, execute a go-around if within how many miles of landing (or use normal lights)?

A

Short final

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21
Q

If the copilot flies the instrument approach, what is the minimum altitude where control should be transferred to the pilot for an NVG landing?

A

300 feet AGL

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22
Q

When flying an NVG assault landing the pilot should:

A

Avoid a very steep “two-step” approach.

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23
Q

On an NVG final approach, the pilot not flying (PNF) shall inform the pilot when the VVI exceeds _____ feet per minute when below _____ feet AGL.

A

1,000, 300

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24
Q

What descent rate should the pilot generally not exceed on short final for an NVG assault landing?

A

1,000 fpm

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25
Q

Maximum effort operations must fall into what area of the crosswind charts?

A

Recommended

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26
Q

What is the minimum runway length required for a maximum effort takeoff (non-peacetime)?

A

Charted minimum field length for maximum effort takeoff

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27
Q

Peacetime restrictions to maximum effort operations prohibit the use of runways less than how many feet in length?

A

3,000

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28
Q

What is the minimum runway length required for a maximum effort landing (non-peacetime)?

A

Ground roll plus 500 feet

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29
Q

At aircraft gross weights less than 130,000 pounds, what is the maximum allowable rate-of-sink?

A

540 fpm

30
Q

When using the landing charts, what percent of a tail wind component is applied?

A

150

31
Q

What engine/braking configuration is used to compute landing performance during peacetime?

A

Two-engine reverse/two-engine ground idle/full brakes

32
Q

Which of the following is used to determine minimum field length for an assault landing?

A

Ground roll

33
Q

An assault landing with the Anti-skid System inoperative is:

A

Not authorized.

34
Q

Normally, you should be offset for the CARP on a drift corrected heading by what point?

A

The IP

35
Q

Which crewmember’s requirements determine when the preslowdown checklist will be initiated?

A

Loadmaster

36
Q

Which block letters are authorized for non-circular drop zones?

A

A and S

37
Q

Which of the following is the proper signal for a “no drop” condition?

A

Red flare/Smoke

38
Q

Once the pilot flying has acknowledged the DZ in sight and the CARP confirmed, who is responsible for lateral offset (run-in course)?

A

Pilot flying

39
Q

After a CDS airdrop, when may the pilot call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?

A

At “load clear”

40
Q

Who should acknowledge a “no drop” call?

A

Pilot monitoring and loadmaster

41
Q

A towed paratrooper will indicate ready to cut by:

A

Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute.

42
Q

If the load fails to extract with multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes outside the aircraft, the loadmaster will do which of the following:

A

Ensure the right rail control handle is in Emergency.

43
Q

When notified of a CDS malfunction, the pilot flying should first:

A

Extend additional flaps.

44
Q

If an SATB exits the aircraft and fails to separate, what action should be taken?

A

The loadmaster should cut it loose.

45
Q

In a visual formation, you will find the timeline of events on:

A

The Form 280

46
Q

A “Push” call requires a formation check-in on the new frequency. T/F?

A

False

47
Q

Formation taxi interval with 2 engines at normal ground idle and 2 engines at low speed ground idle is:

A

One aircraft length.

48
Q

During a formation takeoff:

A

If your aircraft aborts, the navigator should transmit an abort call (three times using formation positon number) on interplane and the copilot will transmit the call on the primary ATC frequency as the situation allows. & Consider not using HAVE QUICK or secure radios for interplane. & If using the feed on method, takeoff on the runway centerline.

49
Q

Correct altitude references during day visual formation are:

A

Terrain, radar altimeter, and position relative to lead.

50
Q

When donning NVGs during night visual formation:

A

All members of the formation should don NVGs at the same time. MCs should designate a pre-briefed point or signal for the formation to goggle.

51
Q

The best way to avoid wake vortices (and complete your mission) is to:

A

Maintain formation integrity during the airdrop. Keep your 2,000-foot interval and your normal lateral spacing (if drift < 3°).

52
Q

The proper procedure for a visual formation escape is:

A

After the “red light” and “load clear” call whichever is later accelerate to 140 KIAS, descend/climb and turn to escape altitude and heading.

53
Q

During a formation downwind recovery approximately 10 to 12 seconds after lead’s break, formation wingmen will:

A

Establish 45 degrees of bank, retard power to flight idle after the bank is established, configure the aircraft as airspeed allows and slow to 140 KIAS or final approach speed, whichever is higher.

54
Q

During a visual formation landing, formation lead should:

A

Touchdown as early on the runway as conditions allow so as to reduce wake turbulence for follower aircraft.

55
Q

For a SKE formation, the Form 280 should, in addition to the information needed for a visual formation, include:

A

Master and deputy master assignments, slot numbers, and pre-flight IMC airdrop information.

56
Q

During SKE formation ground operations, lead must:

A

Conduct an FCI check prior to takeoff.

57
Q

When climbing out after takeoff during a SKE assembly, formation wingmen:

A

Climb at speeds up to 190 KIAS to close to enroute spacing. After reaching assembly altitude may accelerate up to 210 KIAS to complete the rejoin.

58
Q

A SKE computer turn:

A

Shows your position throughout the turn via the TWS and range indicators based on the information the formation leader relays via the FCI.

59
Q

After slowdown as #2 in a SKE formation, if you notice your drift on SCNS is different from that called back from lead, you should use that drift to calculate your drift offset as that will be more accurate. T/F?

A

False

60
Q

Do not initiate descent from the last enroute altitude until the following conditions are met:

A

Lead’s position is positively known, the entire formation is within 3 NM of planned DZ run-in centerline course, and the last aircraft is past the DZ entry point.

61
Q

The crew must discuss and establish tolerances to back up the
navigator during IMC drop execution. For a SKE wingmen during
an IMC airdrop, you should call a no-drop if:

A

Someone on the crew believes the drop will occur outside of the pre-briefed safety box.

62
Q

For a SKE Procedure Turn, number two aircraft in each element will delay 18 seconds after lead’s turn. Second element lead times for 36 seconds. This timing is based on 4,000 feet in-trail position. A SKE wingman will modify this timing by _______________ if 1000 feet short at the start of the inbound turn.

A

Decreasing the time 2 seconds.

63
Q

For a SKE straight-in recovery, inbound to the recovery base, lead directs the formation to establish approach separation. Upon receiving this:

A

Reduce airspeed by 30 knots, but no lower than 150 knots. reset SKE in-track distance to establish 6,000 feet (or as briefed) separation between aircraft and drift back until the separation is established.

64
Q

Minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is obstacle clearance speed plus ________ knots.

A

10

65
Q

When computing an acceleration time check, what percent of a head wind component is applied?

A

100

66
Q

What is the minimum runway width (in feet) for tactical assault operations?

A

60

67
Q

When executing a descending slowdown maneuver, reduce power to attain which of the following airspeeds?

A

140 KIAS

68
Q

Which crew positions will immediately acknowledge a no drop call?

A

Pilot monitoring and loadmaster.

69
Q

The minimum acceptable altitude for emergency parachutist bailout using static lines is which of the following?

A

400 feet AGL.

70
Q

When notified of a HE malfunction with multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes outside the aircraft, the pilot flying should:

A

Apply maximum power. & Direct the flight engineer to close the bleed air valves. & Avoid turning if at all possible and land straight ahead if unable to maintain level flight.

71
Q

When notified of a CDS malfunction which of the following is the pilot’s first procedure?

A

Extend additional flaps and lower the nose to maintain a slight nose down attitude.

C130 (8 decks)

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