PBL - Ottitis Media With Effusion Flashcards

1
Q

Name the four tonsils.

A

Pharyngeal
Tubal
Lingual
Palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two folds surrounding the palatine tonsils?

A

Palatopharyngeal

Palatoglossal folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the arterial supply of the palatine tonsils?

A

Facial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the epithelium of the palatine tonsil?

A

Non-keratinised squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is another name for the pharyngeal tonsil?

A

Adenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the pharyngeal tonsil located?

A

The upper posterior nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the pharyngeal tonsil?

A

Pseudostratified squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the tubal tonsil located?

A

Surrounds the opening of the Eustachian tube into the pharynx -tubal elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the tubal tonsil?

A

Pseudostratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the lingual tonsil located?

A

The posterior aspect of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the epithelium of the lingual tonsil.

A

Non-keratinised squamous epithelium invaginated to form a single crypt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Waldeyer’s ring?

A

An uninterrupted ring formed by the tonsil around the start of the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do the tonsils protect against respiratory infections?

A

They hold a lot of micro-organisms that are around the throat area and mount an immune response against them
- protect respiratory tract from infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which bone does the external auditory canal lie in?

A

The temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epithalamus lining for the tympanic membrane?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are ceruminous glands?

A

Specialised sweat glands that secrete cerumen

- helps prevent dust and foreign objects from entering the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which window in the middle ear does the stapes articulate with?

A

Oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function and innervation of tensor tympani?

A

Limits movement and increases tension on the eardrum to prevent inner ear damage by loud noises
- innervated by mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function and innervation of the stapedius muscle?

A

This is the smallest skeletal muscle
Dampens large vibrations of the stapes due to loud noise - protecting the oval window
Innervated by the facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does the Eustachian tube open?

A

It’s normally closed at the pharyngeal end

Opens during swallowing and yawning - allowing air to enter and leave the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What liquid is contained in the bony labyrinth?

A

Perilymph - surrounds the membranous labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the bony labyrinth.

A

A series of cavities in the petrous portion of the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the membranous labyrinth.

A

A series of epithelial sacs and tubes within the bony labyrinth

  • has same general form as bony labyrinth
  • contains hearing and balance receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What liquid does the membranous labyrinth contain?

A

Endolymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two parts of the membranous labyrinth in the vestibule?

A

Saccule
Utricule
- connected by a small duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the nerves that make up the vestibular nerve?

A

Ampullary nerves
Urticular nerves
Saccular nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the three channels of the cochlea?

A

Cochlear duct
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani

28
Q

Describe the scala vestibuli

A

Channel above the cochlear duct
Ends at the oval window
Part of bony labyrinth and so filled with perilymph

29
Q

Describe the scala tympani

A

Channel below the cochlear duct
Ends at the round window
Part of bony labyrinth and so filled with perilymph

30
Q

How are the scala tympani and vestibuli connected?

A

At the apex of the cochlear - helictrema

31
Q

What is the name of the membrane that separates the scale vestibuli from the cochlear duct?

A

Vestibular membrane

32
Q

What is the name of the membrane that separates the scala tympani from the cochlear duct?

A

Basilar membrane

33
Q

What rests on the basilar membrane?

A

The organ of corti

34
Q

Describe the hair cells of the organ of Corti.

A

Each hair cell has 40-80 stereocilia that extends into the endolymph
At their basal ends, the cells synapse both with first order sensory neurons and motor neurons from the coho clear branch of the sensory nerve

35
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the cochlear sensory neurons located?

A

In the spiral ganglion

36
Q

Describe acute Ottis media

A

An acute infection of the middle ear

Abrupt onset of signs and symptoms related to middle ear inflammation and effusion

37
Q

Describe Otitis media with effusion.

A

Presence of fluid in the middle ear
Without signs and symptoms of acute otitis media
May occur spontaneously due to poor Eustachian tube function or as an inflammatory response following AOM

38
Q

List the risk factors for otitis media.

A
Preschool ages children 
Children between 3 months and 3 years 
Premature birth
Male gender
Ethnicity - Native American, Inuit 
Family history of recurring otitis media 
Siblings in house
Genetic syndromes 
Low socioeconomic status 
Orofacial abnormalities - cleft lip and palate 
Bottle fed infants
39
Q

Describe ways in which fluid can easily reach middle ear

A

Dysfunction of Eustachian tube allows reflex of fluid and bacteria into ear from nasopharynx
Children have shorter, wider and more horizontal Eustachian tube
Infection spreads more easily in infants as they spend most of their day lying down
Bottle fed infants - angle of feeding allows more milk reflex into middle ear

40
Q

What is middle ear effusion an expression of?

A

Underlying mucosal inflammation

41
Q

Briefly describe the aetiology of acute otitis media and otitis media with effusion.

A

Most cases are following an upper respiratory tract infection that had been present for several days
Respiratory viruses found in middle ear exudates
AOM and OCE interrelated aetiologies
Acute infection often followed by inflammation, effusion and recurrent infection

42
Q

How do persistent middle ear infections cause hearing problems?

A

Decreases motility of the the tympanic membrane

- barrier to sound conduction

43
Q

What is the pathophysiology of otitis media with effusion?

A

Tubal tonsils hypertrophy in response to infection - blocking the Eustachian tube opening
New air can’t access middle ear
Respiratory epithelium in middle ear contains mucous secreting cells
Mucous builds up in inner ear

44
Q

Describe conductive hearing loss

A

Occurs usually in the external or middle ear
Interferes with the ability of sound to be transmitted to the inner ear - just makes things sound quieter
Usually treated successfully with surgery

45
Q

Describe sensorineuroal hearing loss

A

Occurs in the inner ear (sensory) or vestibular nerve (neural)
Normally permanent as the human inner ear and hair cells only has limited regeneration capacity

46
Q

What are some causes of conductive hearing loss

A

Build up of ear wax/fluid
Ruptured ear drum
Otosclerosis of ear ossicles prevent free movement

47
Q

What can cause sensory sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Damage to hair cells in cochlear

Can occurs naturally in ageing (presbycusis)

48
Q

What happens to sound in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

It becomes distorted and the quality and volume of sound is affected
- speech is hard to understand

49
Q

What hearing loss is present if there is a negative Rinne’s test?

A

Conductive hearing loss in that ear

50
Q

What is a normal Weber’s test called?

A

Mid-line Weber’s

51
Q

What is the problem when a Weber’s test indicates sound lateralising towards the right ear?

A

A right conductive hearing loss or a left sensorineural hearing loss

52
Q

What is the problem when a Weber’s test indicates sound lateralising towards the left ear?

A

Either a left conductive hearing loss or a right sensorineural hearing loss

53
Q

What is the most common treatment for glue ear?

A

Grommets

54
Q

Describe the procedure for inserting grommets.

A

The patient is put under general anaesthetic

A small incision is made in the eardrum and a grommet inserted through it

55
Q

What is the function of a grommet?

A

Helps drain fluid away from middle ear and also helps maintain the air pressure in the middle ear cavity

56
Q

How are grommets removed?

A

As the eardrum heals, the grommet is slowly pushed out and eventually falls out of the ear
- between 6-15 months
Some require surgical removal as they don’t fall out

57
Q

How successful are grommets?

A

30% of children need further grommets inserted to fully treat the condition

58
Q

What are the four main ways in which hearing loss affects children?

A
  • Developmental delay in receptive and expressive communication skills (speech and language)
  • Language deficit causes learning problems that result in reduced academic achievement
  • Communication difficulties lead to social isolation and poor-self concept
  • Impact on vocational choices
59
Q

Describe vocabulary development in children with hearing loss.

A

Vocab development is slower
Learns concrete words (cat, jump) more easily that abstract words (after, jealous)
Difficulty with function words (and, an, are)
Vocabulary gap widens with age
Difficulty understanding words with multiple meanings

60
Q

Describe sentence structure development in children with hearing loss

A

Comprehend and produce shorter/simpler sentences
Difficulty in understanding and writing complex sentences
Misunderstandings

61
Q

Describe speaking development in children with hearing loss.

A

Can’t hear quiet speech sounds - s, sh, f, t and k - and so don’t include them in their speech
May not be able to hear their own voice when speaking

62
Q

Describe academic achievement in children with hearing loss.

A

Difficulties in all aspects of school, especially reading and mathematical concepts
Score 1 to 4 grades lower than kids who can hear
- gap widens as the children progress through school

63
Q

When does newborn hearing screening offered?

A

Within 4-5 weeks of birth

64
Q

What is the first test offered in the newborn hearing screening programme, and how is it performed?

A

Automated Otoacoustic Emission (AOAE) screening

  • soft tipped probe placed into the ear
  • sound are played
  • a normal response (echo) sound be detected from the cochlear
65
Q

What is the second line test offered in the newborn hearing screening programme, and how and why is it performed?

A

It’s an automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) test

  • performed when the AOAE test doesn’t yield a clear response
  • electrodes are placed on the head and neck of the baby
  • sounds are played
  • responses are detected through the electrodes
66
Q

What is the benefit of the AABR over the AOAE?

A

Measures auditory pathways as well as integrity of the inner ear

  • can detect the condition auditory neuropathy
  • children are deaf, but with normal otoacoustic emissions