Patrol Flashcards

90th

1
Q

What is a type of search where the area to be searched is divided into sectors and is assigned to individual patrols?

A

What is a type of search where the area to be searched is divided into sectors and is assigned to individual patrols?

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2
Q

BDOC will coordinate sector searches as directed by who?

A

Flight Chief

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3
Q

Who will BDOC brief and request assistance from if a sector search is near the WSA?

A

RDA

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4
Q

What would the gates initiate during sector searches to enhance the operations?

A

Stop-Check-Pass

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5
Q

Who can authorize a selective unit recall to assist in sector searches?

A

The SFS/CC, operations officer or on duty FCC/FC

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6
Q

Who can authorize a selective unit recall to assist civilian police to find a felon, when they believe the perpetrator is on the installation?

A

The SFS/CC, operations officer or on duty FCC/FC

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7
Q

When can the the SFS/CC, operations officer or on duty FCC/FC authorize a selective unit recall?

A

The SFS/CC, operations officer or on duty FCC/FC can authorize a selective unit recall to assist in sector searches or to assist off-base civilian police to find a felon, when they believe the perpetrator is on the installation.

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8
Q

If a large area such as an office or a warehouse must be searched, subdivide the scene into what to complete the search?

A

Sectors

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9
Q

When conducting Zone or sector searches, where would the patrolman start his/her search?

A

Start searching the sector or zone in which the incident occurred and work outward.

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10
Q

Zone or Sector Searches should be conducted, not only of the area in which the crime or incident occurred, but also where?

A

The area beyond the scene, when possible.

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11
Q

Facilities requiring checks IAW AFI 31-101 and DoD directives are listed on what document?

A

The building check sheet.

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12
Q

Why will building checks be conducted randomly

A

to avoid setting a predictable pattern.

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13
Q

What hazards would a patrolman relay to BDOC during building checks?

A

Report any hazards such as insufficient lighting or vegetation growth that could conceal a perpetrator.

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14
Q

Any unsecure building will be reported to whom?

A

Building Custodian

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15
Q

What is one of the most dangerous incidents for patrols to respond to?

A

Domestic disturbance/Family Violence

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16
Q

When should emergency responders turn off lights and sirens when responding to Domestic disturbance/Family Violence situations?

A

Ensure responding units turn off emergency equipment when in hearing/seeing distance from the affected area.

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17
Q

What information must BDOC give to the responding patrols?

A

Brief responding patrols if log indicates there is/are POW(s) inside the government quarters (responding patrols should not assume no weapons are present even though log does not indicate they are).

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18
Q

Once order has been restored who must be contacted?

A

Contact the first sergeant of the military member (both first sergeants if both are active duty members).

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19
Q

Who is responsible for the actions of assigned personnel both on and off duty?

A

The Unit Commander

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20
Q

Who is responsible for the behavior of military sponsors and their family members within military housing areas?

A

The Unit Commanders

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21
Q

SF members should recognize this command responsibility and duty to inform the commander of incidents of family violence involving unit personnel and their family members, who is this notification usually made through?

A

The First Sergeant

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22
Q

Who will be notified and used as necessary to assist LE patrols during hostage/barricaded subject operations?

A

TRF

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23
Q

When would SF not need approval from the 90 MW/CC during non-nuclear hostage situations?

A

No assault will be conducted without the approval of the 90 MW/CC (non-nuclear hostage situations only) unless deadly force against hostages is confirmed or imminent.

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24
Q

No assault will be conducted without whose approval during non-nuclear hostage situations?

A

90 MW/CC

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25
Q

What are the initial on scene actions by patrols during Hostage/barricaded subject operations?

A

The initial on-scene actions by patrols will be to contain the situation to the smallest area possible and evacuate personnel from within.

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26
Q

Who will establish the inner cordon during Hostage/barricaded subject operations, and what will they factor in when establishing the cordon

A

The OSC will establish the size of the inner security cordon factoring in the type of terrain and weapons being used.

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27
Q

How many security zones are established at hostage/barricaded subject situations, and what are they?

A

Two, Inner and Outer

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28
Q

During a Hostage situation which cordon takes priority?

A

Inner

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29
Q

When can the outer cordon during a hostage/barricaded subject situation be established?

A

The outer cordon can be established as additional forces arrive on-scene.

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30
Q

Where is the inner cordon established during hostage/barricaded subject situation?

A

This is established immediately around the affected area. It is set up to completely surround the area and is just within range of weapons and voice.

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31
Q

Personnel posted on the inner cordon during a hostage/barricaded should not be visible to whom?

A

Subject or victims

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32
Q

Who determines the distance and size of the outer cordon of a hostage/barricaded subject situation?

A

The OSC determines the distance and size of the outer cordon.

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33
Q

The outer cordon of a hostage situation should be at a minimum of how far outside of the range of perpetrators weapons?

A

100 meters

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34
Q

When will the hostage negotiation team be recalled on-scene?

A

The hostage negotiation team will be recalled on-scene as soon as the determination is made that hostages exist.

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35
Q

What will the OSC develop after assessing the situation and capability of the subjects during hostage/barricaded subject situations?

A

I mmediate Action Plan

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36
Q

When making an immediate action plan what information must the on scene commander factor in?

A
  • The SF OSC will factor in number of hostages
  • Size and layout of structure
  • Number of suspect(s)
  • Weapons involved
  • Training and experience of available SF personnel and other tactical planning factors.
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37
Q

Once the Immediate action plan has been established, who will the on scene commander brief the plan to?

A

The incident commander

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38
Q

What must the patrolman take into account before initiating a high speed pursuit?

A

The SF Patrol must take into account the safety of the public and him/herself.

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39
Q

When does a high speed pursuit occur?

A

High speed pursuit occurs when a suspect who is believed to have committed or attempted to commit a major offense attempts to flee from pursuing SF at speeds in excess of 10 mph or more over the speed limit.

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40
Q

What must a patrol know prior to initiating a high speed pursuit?

A

Patrols must know or have reasonable belief a major offense has been committed by the suspect prior to engaging in this type of pursuit or directing the use of installation barriers.

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41
Q

A high speed pursuit may continue off the installation if approved by whom?

A

This pursuit may continue out of our jurisdiction off the installation if authorized by SFS/CC, operations officer or flight leadership.

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42
Q

The patrolman must ensure that what is utilized for off base pursuits?

A

Ensure utilization of the mutual aid/CPD frequencies for CPD, LCSO, and Wyoming highway patrol support as needed for off base pursuits.

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43
Q

How will hijack situations be treated

A

As a hostage situation

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44
Q

How will funds be escorted on FE Warren AFB?

A

Funds between $25.00 and $7,500.00 require no escort. Funds between $7,500.01 and $24,999.99 require one additional employee escort. Funds in the amount of $25,000.00 or higher require armed escort.

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45
Q

Custodian fund self escorts will be documented on what form?

A

90 SFS funds escort log.

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46
Q

If an excessive amount of time has expired without the custodian terminating the movement what actions will be initiated?

A

Initiate duress procedures on the custodian.

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47
Q

Patrols will conduct fund escorts in accordance with what AFI?

A

AFI 31-101

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48
Q

SF will only escort government funds unless directed by whom?

A

90 MW/CC

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49
Q

In addition to performing routine duties and procedures, each patrol must be knowledgeable of mission tasks in accordance with what AFI(s)?

A

AFI 31-101 and AFI 31-218.

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50
Q

What level of protection must the patrol and EC ballistic vest be?

A

Level IIIA or better

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51
Q

How can patrols ensure they optimize their effectiveness to respond to incidents?

A

By actively patrolling their areas of responsibility.

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52
Q

Weather permitting, How many housing walk throughs per shift should patrols conduct?

A

Patrols should accomplish no less than three housing walk-throughs per shift (weather permitting).

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53
Q

What facilities must patrols physically walk through each shift, and how often should these walk throughs be accomplished?

A
  • Patrols should accomplish no less than three housing walk-throughs per shift (weather permitting).
  • Physically walk through facilities once per shift (e.g. BX, commissary, shoppette, billeting, Fall Hall, Freedom Elementary School).
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54
Q

What must patrols know the location and layout of?

A

Patrols must know the location and layout of all high risk facilities, alarmed facilities and controlled areas.

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55
Q

List three examples of proactive community policing efforts sponsored by 90 SFS for security operations.

A

The annual Pumpkin Patrol, Frontiercade, open house events and Fort D.A. Russell Days are examples of proactive community policing efforts sponsored by the 90 SFS for security operations.

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56
Q

Who will provide community policing at the school?

A

The FC and/or Police 1 will ensure only our most knowledgeable/professional and senior patrolmen provide community policing at the school.

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57
Q

What will not be brought in by patrols conducting community policing at the school, unless response is required?

A

Patrols will not bring M-4s inside the school unless a patrol response requires it.

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58
Q

All vehicle discrepancies during change-over will be reported to whom?

A

BDOC and vehicle section

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59
Q

Damage, missing and/or broken equipment during change-over warrants immediate notification to whom?

A

Flight Commander (FCC)/Flight Chief (FC) notification.

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60
Q

Vehicles at or below what fuel level will be refueled prior to shift change?

A

75%

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61
Q

What patrol vehicle information must be logged in the blotter back and when is this information given to BDOC?

A

Vehicles used for LE patrol will have their registration number, mileage, and discrepancies recorded on the blotter back at the beginning of each shift.

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62
Q

During winter months what must the patrolman ensure is completely cleared of snow on their vehicles?

A

During winter months, patrol vehicles will have all windows, light bars, headlights, tail-lights and public address speaker completely cleared of all snow (to include those assigned vehicles on standby).

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63
Q

Drivers will ensure there is at least how much of a clearance between vehicles/fixed object before parking/driving.

A

2 Feet

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64
Q

When may an SF member be subject to monetary liability for damage to GOV’s?

A

For damage to GOVs caused by the members gross negligence, willful misconduct or deliberate unauthorized use.

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65
Q

What patrols are responsible for a specific patrol zone?

A

Each patrol, with the exception of the supervisor, will be responsible for a specific patrol zone.

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66
Q

Upon initial arrival in the zone after posting, the patrol will make a cursory check of the entire area. During this check, the patrol should be taking mental notes of what information?

A

Construction sites, dormitory parties or gatherings, traffic conditions, etc. and monitor these activities during patrol.

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67
Q

When will all active pick-up/restriction orders and BOLOs be reviewed

A

At the beginning of each shift?

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68
Q

Who has an inherent responsibility to monitor and support static posts and gates in their patrol area?

A

Mobile patrols

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69
Q

What traffic hazards will be reported to BDOC?

A

Identify and report road hazards, malfunctioning traffic control devices and other substandard situations and report them to BDOC.

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70
Q

Who will approve the blotter and all paperwork prior to submission?

A

FC/FCC

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71
Q

When will all paperwork be turned in?

A

Complete and turn in paperwork for review NLT the next duty day after the incident.

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72
Q

Who is responsible for obtaining the appropriate signature within 24 hours or sooner from the respective CC for search authorization?

A

It will be the responsibility of the requesting party who seeks search authorization to obtain the appropriate signature within 24 hours or sooner from the respective CC.

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73
Q

Who is the release authority for all documents once the completed paperwork is received and processed as official records, and when are those documents usually available?

A

The release authority for all documents is S5R once the completed paperwork is received and processed as official records, usually 3-5 working days after receipt of the completed paperwork.

74
Q

Who is the OPR for release of all police reports?

A

S5R

75
Q

When would a patrol report actions that could affect the patrol‟s ability to respond, such as field interviews, walking patrols, etc. to BDOC?

A

As they are initiated

76
Q

Who is the command and control for all LE posts and patrols until this is transferred to an OSC?

A

Regardless of rank, the DS is the command and control for all LE posts and patrols until this is transferred to an OSC.

77
Q

Where is the BNSF sterile zone?

A

East of Old Glory Rd.

78
Q

What are the BNSF Sectors and their locations?

A

Red: I-25 to Old Glory.

  • Blue: Old Glory to South Frontier.
  • Orange: South Frontier to Roundtop Road.
79
Q

Who is responsible to publish the RIEVC check sheets for gates 1 and 5, and how often are they created?

A

90 SFS/S5T will be responsible to publish the semi-annual RIEVC check sheets for Gates 1 and 5.

80
Q

Who is responsible for determining and approving random vehicle inspection checks?

A

90 MW/CC

81
Q

Who will develop RAM vehicle inspection checks and how often will they be developed?

A

on a monthly basis by 90 SFS/S2.

82
Q

If a building is found unsecured or a report of an unsecured building is received, how will patrols respond?

A

Respond as a crime in progress.

83
Q

When there is no Forced Entry, and the building was left unsecure, who would be listed as the offender in the report?

A

List the Facility Manager/Building Custodian as offender on the SFMIS report.

84
Q

What are the procedures if a building is found unsecure?

A
  • Secure the perimeter of the facility and have a patrol conduct a tactical walk-around of the facility to check for signs of forced entry or the presence of suspects.
  • If no signs of forced entry are apparent, have two SF members enter the facility and search and clear it.
  • Once cleared, allow the building custodian to enter and verify condition of the area. If there are signs of forced entry, a SFMIS incident report, must be accomplished.
  • When there is no forced entry, and the building was left unsecure, list the facility manager/building custodian as offender on the SFMIS report.
85
Q

Quarter checks consisting of longer than a month will be done how many times per shift?

A

Once

86
Q

What must be filled out by the housing resident in order for them to qualify for the Quarters Watch program?

A

Quarters Watch Register

87
Q

What must be identified by a resident to participate in the Quarter Watch Program?

A

If a POC or caretaker is not identified then the resident cannot participate in the program.

88
Q

What will patrols be checking for during quarters checks?

A

physically check quarters ensuring they are secure and undamaged each shift.

89
Q

What is the maximum allowed MPH you may exceed the posted speed limit during a Code 3 response?

A

10 MPH

90
Q

What will not be done during a traffic stop?

A

Patrols will not lecture, harass, or engage in other unprofessional conduct

91
Q

If back up is needed when a patrol is code 5, what should other patrols in the area automatically do?

A

Other patrols in the area should automatically perform a roll-by of the traffic stop or cover (stopping a short distance away and watching).

92
Q

What are four reasons why you would request backup during a traffic stop?

A

Weapons, intoxicated driver, extreme nervousness, uncooperative, evidence of a crime, driver attempting to hide, verbal threats, more than 3 occupants.

93
Q

When will high risk traffic stop procedures be used?

A

HRTS procedures will be used anytime patrols intend to stop a vehicle and have reason to believe the occupants pose a possible hazard to the patrol‟s life, well being, or the vehicle contains a known or suspected felon.

94
Q

What is the most important consideration during high risk traffic stops?

A

The most important consideration during HRTS incidents is the safety of base personnel and SF.

95
Q

What should you do to all apprehended or detained personnel prior to transporting them in a security forces vehicle?

A

. Search all persons in custody for weapons before placing them in a Security Forces vehicle

96
Q

Handcuffs will always be used when transporting whom?

A

Handcuffs will always be used when transporting suspects/subjects.

97
Q

Transporting personnel in custody will be done in accordance with what AFI?

A

Conduct transports IAW AFI 31-201.

98
Q

What information will be relayed to the desk sergeant before and after transporting personnel in custody?

A

. Annotate mileage and time (beginning and end) in the blotter.

99
Q

Prior to and after transport, what will the vehicle will be purged for?

A

any material the violator may have left behind.

100
Q

Who is responsible for all transports of Type II material to and from the WSA and the WANG and what will patrolman do during transport?

A

790 MSFS will be responsible for all transport of nuclear material from WSA and WANG and patrols will only be responsible for opening and closing Gate #2 and Gate #5 if an alternate is needed.

101
Q

What are two things a patrol needs to verify with the munitions team chief prior to departure?

A

Number of vehicle, number of personnel, type of material being escorted, layover time, movement route.

102
Q

What actions will be taken by a patrol during a BNSF alarm?

A

What actions will be taken by a patrol during a BNSF alarm?

103
Q

Who can approve an apprehension in a private dwelling?

A

When approval is needed, an authorization to apprehend in a private dwelling from a military magistrate or authorized CC must be obtained.

104
Q

Are dormitory considered private dwellings?

A

No

105
Q

What is an AF FM 3226 and what is it used for?

A

Authority to Apprehend in a Private Dwelling/ If you go to someone’s on base house for the sole purpose of apprehending him or her.

106
Q

When can an apprehension in a private dwelling be accomplished?

A

There are exigent circumstances, SF has verbal consent to enter the dwelling for the sole purpose of apprehension, or the patrol is there for an otherwise lawful purpose.

107
Q

How long do personnel involved in minor motor vehicle accidents have to report the incident to BDOC?

A

72 hrs

108
Q

GOV’s involved in off-base motor vehicle accidents will be investigated by whom, and who will the report be provided to?

A

Civilian law enforcement will investigate the accidents and provide a copy of the report to the S5R or BDOC section.

109
Q

How long do traffic investigators have to accomplish a report for major vehicle accidents?

A

5 calendar days

110
Q

What are the off-limit areas for personal motorized vehicle on F.E. Warren?

A

North Perimeter road from base stables north on perimeter road to the new CATM range facility, All dirt roads adjacent to the Weapons Storage Area, Perimeter roads south of Carlin Heights housing area, Perimeter road adjacent to the Golf Course

111
Q

What is the age limit of personnel allowed in the dormitories?

A

No one under the age of 18 is allowed

112
Q

When are non military members under the age of 18 permitted to be in the dorms?

A

military personnel under the age of 18 are not permitted in dormitories unless they are a family member of the occupant and prior approval is obtained from the commander or first sergeant.

113
Q

A blotter entry and report will be made on all on base animal bit incidents except for what?

A

except when an owner is bitten by their own pet.

114
Q

When must an animal be examined by the base veterinary clinic after it is involved in a bite?

A

Within 24 hours or the next duty day

115
Q

How long will an animal owner be instructed to quarantine an animal involved in an animal bite?

A

10 days

116
Q

Who will ensure compliance with the Blood-borne Pathogens Exposure Control Plan?

A

Operations Officer

117
Q

How can Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis-B/C virus (HBV) be contracted?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis-B/C virus (HBV)

118
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis-B/C virus (HBV)

A

Occupational risks can be greatly reduced through education, personal protective equipment (PPE), solid procedures and Hepatitis-B and C vaccinations.

119
Q

What is the definition of a bloodborne pathogen? List two examples.

A

Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to hepatitis B virus and HIV.

120
Q

What is regulated waste when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

A

Liquid or semi-liquid blood or other potentially infectious materials; contaminated items that would release blood or other potentially infectious materials in a liquid or semi-liquid state if compressed; items that are caked with dried blood or other potentially infectious materials and are capable of releasing these materials during handling; contaminated sharps; and pathological and microbiological wastes containing blood or other potentially infectious materials.

121
Q

What is the definition of contaminated when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

A

The presence or the reasonably anticipated presence of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item or surface.

122
Q

The presence or the reasonably anticipated presence of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item or surface.

A

Laundry that may contain sharp objects or has been soiled with blood or other potentially infectious materials.

123
Q

What is a contaminated sharp when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

A

A contaminated object that can penetrate the skin, including needles, scalpels, broken glass, etc.

124
Q

What is the definition of decontamination when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

A

The use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate or destroy bloodborne pathogens to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious particles and the surface or item is rendered safe for handling, use or disposal.

125
Q

What is the definition of an exposure incident when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

A

What is the definition of an exposure incident when referring to blood-Borne pathogens?

126
Q

What is included in PPE for blood-borne pathogens?

A

Includes but not limited to gloves, gowns, aprons, face shield masks, booties, eye protection and resuscitation masks. PPEs will be considered “appropriate” only if it does not permit blood or other potentially infectious materials to pass through and reach the responding individual‟s clothing, skin, eyes, mouth or other mucous membranes. This must be true for the duration of time that the protective equipment will be used under normal conditions use.

127
Q

What/Who is designated most likely to be exposed to bloodborne pathogens while performing tasks/procedures involving incident, crime and major accident scenes?

A

LE duty positions

128
Q

What is barrier protection when referring to bloodborne pathogens?

A

Barrier protection includes such items as rubber gloves, face shield masks, eye protection, aprons, gowns, booties and resuscitation masks. Individuals identified in this instruction must be familiar with the use of these items at incident scenes.

129
Q

What is the last piece of PPE equipment that will be removed and where will all PPE equipment be place if donned during an incident involving bodily fluids

A

The latex gloves and all equipment will be placed in a red biohazard bag or storage container.

130
Q

Name four symptoms of hepatitis B virus.

A

A. - Loss of appetite.

  • Tiredness.
  • Pain in muscles, joints and stomach.
  • Diarrhea and vomiting.
  • Jaundice (yellow skin or eyes).
  • It can also cause long term (chronic) illness leading to:
  • Liver damage (cirrhosis).
  • Liver cancer.
  • Death.
131
Q

Decontamination of equipment requires a ____ percent water and _____percent bleach solution?

A

90 percent water - 10 percent bleach solution,

132
Q

Who is responsible to ensure all personnel are briefed and trained on the occupational risks of blood-borne pathogens?

A

The security force training section will ensure all personnel are briefed and trained on the occupational risks of blood-borne pathogens.

133
Q

The blocking of roads will only be done with approval of whom?

A

. FCC/FC or higher authority

134
Q

How should vehicles be positions when used as road blocks?

A

When vehicles are used to block roads they should be positioned in a well-lit area, with emergency lights on and in an area free of curves and obstructions so approaching vehicles can see the block far enough in advance to safely stop.

135
Q

When would you avoid using road blocks?

A

Avoid roadblocks during inclement weather and adverse road conditions when approaching vehicles may be unable to safely stop.

136
Q

What can be used to warn and channel vehicles through road blocks

A

Use cones, road flares or light sticks to warn and channel vehicles through roadblocks.

137
Q

In addition to traffic cones what other barriers can be used to block roads?

A

In addition to traffic cones, consider using police line tape, sawhorses, highway barriers, concrete barriers and heavy construction vehicles available from the 90th Civil Engineering Squadron for use in blocking roads.

138
Q

What have employees of alarmed/robbery potential facilities been trained not to do?

A

Employees of alarmed/robbery potential facilities are trained not to take unnecessary risks to themselves or others during robberies by trying to activate alarms.

139
Q

During alarm/robbery responses how can high visibility tactics have a negative impact?

A

High visibility tactics can alert perpetrators and cause confrontations or hostage situations. Endangering human life for the purpose of safeguarding property not specified IAW AFI 31-117, is not justifiable and could subject the Air Force to legal liability.

140
Q

Describe invisible deployment tactics?

A

Under invisible deployment tactics, responding patrolmen take up defensive positions behind cover (e.g., parked cars, adjacent buildings, etc) which allows observation of facility entrances, exits and surrounding areas while not disclosing the patrolman‟s location.

141
Q

Why should a patrolman allow perpetrators to depart the scene of a alarm/robbery response?

A

o be followed to a location suitable for a high-risk traffic stop away from bystanders.

142
Q

BDOC will dispatch patrols to the scene and designate an OSC for what kind of alarms?

A

For ALL alarm activations (whether with robbery indications or no robbery indications) BDOC will dispatch patrols to the scene and designate an OSC.

143
Q

What are the procedures for when a perpetrator has completely departed the area of a alarm activation/robbery?

A

One patrolman will be dispatched to the facility to protect the crime scene and collect information.

  • Segregate witnesses and not allow them to converse with each other.
  • Notify BDOC of the perpetrator‟s description via radio broadcast. Initiate sector search if it is likely the perpetrator is still on base.
  • If contact is made with perpetrator request backup and initiate high-risk traffic stop procedures.
144
Q

If a perpetrator does not exit the facilty of alarm activation/robbery what procedures will be initiated?

A

Initiate barricaded suspect/hostage procedures if the perpetrator does not exit the facility.

145
Q

What are the procedures for an alarm with no indication of a robbery?

A

The responding patrolman will, upon direction of the DS or OSC, make contact with custodian annotating custodians name and physical description.

  • BDOC will instruct the custodian to leave the telephone off the hook and walk towards the patrolmans position of cover/concealment to confirm status.
  • One additional patrol will remain on-scene.
  • All other dispatched patrols will be canceled by the OSC and traffic will be released at the gates (exception: AA&E facilities).
  • Advise BDOC when entering facility.
  • Have custodian accompany responding patrol into the facility and check the interior.
  • Investigate cause of the alarm.
  • Use the open telephone line to confirm status with BDOC.
  • The OSC will terminate the response when the patrolman exits the facility.
146
Q

During an alarm response to the armory, what will perpetrators not be allowed to leave with?

A

Weapons

147
Q

The 20AF/MOC facilty has tamper alarms on communication lines to what three areas?

A

the 20 AF/CC office, 20 AF/CV office and 20 AF/MOC office.

148
Q

Name two common LE personnel to observe impaired drivers?

A

The VCC, base gates, RIEVCs, and traffic stops are the most common ones.

149
Q

Who will supervise or conduct the entire process of determining intoxication or impairment and processing the violator?

A

Only trained and locally certified personnel will supervise or conduct the entire process of determining intoxication or impairment and processing the violator.

150
Q

List 8 (eight) visual cues for a DUI/DWI.

A

Odor of alcoholic beverage (alcohol by itself has no odor) or controlled substance
Alcohol containers, drugs or paraphernalia.
Physical injuries or handicaps.
Bloodshot/glassy/watery eyes.
Slurred, perhaps nearly incoherent speech.
Soiled, disheveled clothing and general appearance or evidence of having fallen repeatedly.
Staggering, unsteady gait.
Abnormally loud speech.
Dilated or contracted pupils.
Agitated, angry and perhaps aggressive behavior.
Hallucinations or delusions.
Extreme emotional displays, such as hysterical crying or laughing, for no apparent reason.
Needle tracks or marks on the body.
Swaying or nodding when standing.
Attempts to cover up the odor of alcoholic beverage or controlled substance, with mints, breath sprays, incense or cigarettes.
Inconsistent responses, abusive language, admissions of drinking.
Difficulty or confusion in following instructions or explanations.
Any other actions indicative of impairment; the mere odor of alcoholic beverage or bloodshot/glassy eyes alone does not constitute probable cause.

151
Q

What are the procedures if an IEC stops a vehicle for DUI/DWI?

A

Do not allow the subject to move their vehicle after being stopped if intoxication is suspected. Have the individual place the vehicle in park, set the emergency brake, shut off engine and turn the keys over to the patrolman. Impaired subjects may experience mood swings and are a potential danger to a patrolman. The IEC will need the assistance of a backup patrolman to spot a subject while performing field sobriety maneuvers. Do not allow the subject to exit the vehicle until backup has arrived. Direct the subject out of the roadway onto a sidewalk or other suitable area.

152
Q

Do not use the portable breath tester until how long after a subject has smoked or had other things in their mouth?

A

10 Minutes

153
Q

When would a patrol use the portable breath tester?

A

upon completion of FST’s

154
Q

What do the FST’s consist of?

A

Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), walk and turn, one legged stand and Alco Sensor III portable breath tester (PBT)

155
Q

What form will be used to administer all FST’s?

A

DD FM 1920/Alcohol Influence Report

156
Q

If FST results are questionable and do not warrant apprehension, may the patrolman still deny the suspect from operating the vehicle, why/why not?

A

the patrolman may still deny the suspect from operating the vehicle in the interest of public safety and liability to the Air Force. Assist the subject as much as possible in providing transportation to their destination.

157
Q

For non-driving offenses involving minor consumption (i.e., a passenger in a vehicle) their license will be suspended for how long, after consulting with the who?

A

30 days after consulting with 90 MSG/CC or 90 MSG/CD.

158
Q

What is sufficient to show consumption of alcohol for a minor?

A

02 or higher

159
Q

If the subject completes a breath test with low results and there is obvious evidence of impairment, this indicates possible controlled substance use. What are the patrolmans next actions?

A

Ask for consent to search the subjects urine for drug content

160
Q

What tests are available to find the alcohol concentration of the subject, and who is allowed to administer these tests?

A

Tests available for determining alcohol concentration (AC) are a breath test administered by a state certified Intoximeter EC/IR operator or a blood test drawn by a certified Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) or higher or a urine sample observed by the same sex, preferably a patrol or medical personnel.

161
Q

When would you read a person suspected of DUI/DWI their rights?

A

After chemical testing advise the subject of his/her rights via AF IMT 1168.

162
Q

What are the two types of traffic citations used at F.E. Warren and describe who each one will be issued to.

A

DD FM 1408 will be issued to all military and DD FM 1805 will be issued to all civilians.

163
Q

Who will all tickets to include DD Form 1408 fix-it-tickets, (e.g. no proof of insurance/registration, no proof of license, headlights out, etc.), warning tickets and tickets needing to be voided be forwarded to?

A

S5R for processing and filing.

164
Q

What will be done with merchandise that an individual tries to shoplift?

A

The merchandise will be photographed and returned back to the vendor. The merchandise information will be recorded on an AF FM 52.

165
Q

The merchandise will be photographed and returned back to the vendor. The merchandise information will be recorded on an AF FM 52.

A

conduct a search incident to apprehension/detention

166
Q

Who will determine if any base privileges will be revoked or barment action taken for shoplifting offenders?

A

The 90 MSG/CC or designee will determine if any base privileges will be revoked or barment action taken.

167
Q

Ensure all discrepancies and pass-ons are reported to whom?

A

flight leadership.

168
Q

How far away from a house should patrol vehicles park, why?

A

Park SF vehicles at least one house away from the address of the incident. Parking directly in front of the house in question may escalate the situation or warn residents to conceal evidence of a crime.

169
Q

What should a patrolman’s actions be before approaching the house of a domestic dispute?

A

SF members should stop and listen. Windows, doors, adjoining buildings or areas of possible concealment should be visually checked for unusual movements or objects.

170
Q

Why should patrolman not consider approaching the side or back door instead of the front?

A

they could be mistaken for prowlers.

171
Q

How should patrolman position themselves at the door of a domestic dispute?

A

SF members should always be dispatched in pairs to family violence calls and should always stand to one side of the door, never in front of it. The second SF member should be behind and to one side of the first, in position to maintain visual contact with the inside of the residence and provide cover.

172
Q

Before knocking at the door of a domestic dispute a patrolman should listen for how long?

A

15-30 seconds

173
Q

What manner should SF members display at a domestic dispute, and why?

A

SF members should display a calm, positive and helpful manner. Initial impressions will set the tone for the interview.

174
Q

If not invited into the dwelling, why should SF members request to move the discussion inside.

A

This will remove the situation from the view of the neighbors and enable SF members to observe what:

  • Any injuries requiring treatment;
  • The location and number of the disputants;
  • Visible weapons and threatening moves;
  • Living conditions;
  • Emotional stage of dispute and emotional condition of disputants;
  • Impairment;
  • Children at risk; and
  • Physical damage to property.
175
Q

Who will approve all photography requests of their respective controlled areas?

A

Commanders

176
Q

Who must all personnel not affiliated with FEW contact to request to take photos?

A

Public Affairs

177
Q

What are the patrolmans actions for unauthorized photography?

A

90 SFS will investigate all reports of suspected unauthorized photography in accordance with this instruction. If film is confiscated, an AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, will be accomplished and film will be released to 90 SFS/S2I and reviewed to determine if it contains sensitive information. If not, it will be released back to the owner. SF will review digital photographs and if necessary erase on the spot. The patrolman will accomplish an AF IMT 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data, and a detailed explanation will be annotated in the blotter.

178
Q

What is an AF FM 52?

A

AF Form 52, Evidence Tag.

179
Q

) What is an AF IMT 3907?

A

. AF IMT 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data

180
Q

) Does the term “victim” or “witness” ever apply to anyone not directly involved in the incident?

A

Yes. If the victim or witness is under 18, a parent or guardian can be included

181
Q

When can you issue the DD Form 2701 to the victim’s spouse, guardian, parent, sibling, family member or court appointed representative

A

If the victim is under 18 years of age, incompetent, incapacitated or deceased

182
Q

What is the DD FM 2701, when will it be issued, and where will you document it?

A

patrols will issue a DD Form 2701, Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime, to any person who has suffered direct physical, emotional or financial harm as a result of an offense. Within the 90 SFS, all victims and witnesses will be issued a DD Form 2701 regardless of whether suffering is evident or not. Issuance of a DD FM 2701 will be documented in the report and blotter.