CSC Flashcards
1
Q
who will be the control center for bomb threats affecting Protection Level (PL) 1,2,3 or 4 resources in the missile field and WSA, and will up-channel all threats directed toward PL resources
A
CSC/MSC
2
Q
what form will be in the immediate vicinity of each telephone to assist with bomb threat notifications
A
an AF Form 440 Bomb Threat
3
Q
upon notification of a bomb threat the on duty FC/FCC will respond to the scene and act as on scene commander until relieved by whom?
A
90 MSG/CC or designated representative
4
Q
how far away from a suspected device can members transmit communications?
A
do not transmit on portable radios or cell phones within 50 feet (100 feet for mobile radio) of a reported bomb device to prevent possible electronic detonation
5
Q
all buildings within how far from an IED should be evacuated
A
500 Feet
6
Q
if IED detonates, who will assume Incident Commander duties
A
Fire Chief
7
Q
what are your actions if an IED is found or an EDD alerts?
A
- if an improvised Explosive device (IED) is discovered or EDD alerts maintain a 500 Foot cordon for IEDs up to box size (large briefcase or package up to 2 cubic feet)
- Establish a 1000 foot cordon for barrel size or vehicle type IEDs.
- the incident commander may expand or shrink the cordon size as the situation dictates.
8
Q
if a device is scheduled to detonate at a specific time, how long before the known detonation time to you terminate the search for device?
A
no searches will be conducted 30 minutes prior to or after the known detonation time.
9
Q
Security Forces units will ensure what control centers are properly trained to receive bomb threat calls, tracing and recording procedures, and appropriate notifications?
A
BDOC, FSCs, MSC controllers, LDA operators, CSC and KCCC controllers
10
Q
who may request a selective recall of off-duty 90 SFS personnel to assist in cordon procedures with 90 SFS/CC authorization.
A
Flight Leadership
11
Q
at what scenes do SF always establish an all-around (360 degree) cordon
A
Security Force members always establish an all-around (360 degree) cordon at hostage and anti-hijack scenes
12
Q
what does the size of a cordon depend on?
A
how far these perimeters are establish from the scene depends on the scope, complexity and location of the incident
13
Q
why is an outer perimeter established for hostage situation cordons
A
the outer perimeter is established to prevent people from interfering with recovery operations and to keep innocent bystanders and onlookers from being hurt
14
Q
where should the outer cordon be established during a hostage situation?
A
this perimeter should be established outside the maximum effective range of any weapons the hostage takers have, if SF members can establish the type/caliber of the weapons involved.
15
Q
where will the ECP be established at a hostage situation
A
set up an ECP along the outer perimeter in an area that is easily accessible to responding units
16
Q
who may replace security forces personnel posted on the inner perimeter if they are available and appropriate for use by the OSC?
A
Specialized teams
17
Q
who is allowed within the inner perimeter of a hostage situation
A
only key people such as EST, Negotiation teams and the on-scene commander are allowed within the inner perimeter
18
Q
who is responsible for searching and clearing the inner perimeter of hostage situations
A
EST
19
Q
what does the FPCON system describe
A
the DOD FPCON System describes the progressive level of protective measures that are implemented by all the DOD components in anticipation of or in response to a terrorist threat or attack.
the FPCON System is the principal means through which commanders apply an operational decision on how to best guard against the terrorist threat.
the protective measures identified in the FPCON System assist commanders in reducing the risks of terrorist attacks and other security threats to DOD personnel, units and acitivities
20
Q
who is responsible for implementing FPCON measures
A
Air Force commanders
21
Q
the DOD FPCON system consists of how many progressive levels of increasing AT protective measures? (how many FPCONS are there)?
A
5
22
Q
Define FPCON Normal
A
This condition applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture. At a minimum, access control will be conducted at all DOD installations and facilities
23
Q
List 3 security measures for FPCON Normal
A
Measure NORMAL 1: Secure and randomly inspect buildings, rooms and storage areas not in regular use.
- Measure NORMAL 2 (AF Modified): Conduct random security checks of vehicles and persons entering facilities under the jurisdiction of the United States.
- Measure NORMAL 2.1 (AF Added): Conduct random vehicle inspections at installation entry points in addition to base entry point checks (BEPC) as directed by installation commanders. Implement 100% inspection of large commercial vehicles. MAJCOM and local planners should define large commercial vehicles in integrated defense plans based on geographical location, character of local transport and threat. Conduct random vehicle inspections at entrances to restricted areas beyond inspection requirements listed in AFI 31-101.
- Measure NORMAL 3: Limit access points for vehicles and personnel commensurate with a reasonable flow of traffic.
- Measure NORMAL 4 (AF Modified): Identify defense critical infrastructure and critical assets, facilities with BSAT and high occupancy buildings.
- Measure NORMAL 5 (AF Added): Implement a daily RAM program involving the entire installation with emphasis on identifying surveillance activities and disrupting the terrorist attack cycle. Installations will tailor their RAM program to meet the threat and mitigate vulnerabilities.
- Measure NORMAL 6 (AF Added): Conduct 100% identification verification of all vehicle operators and pedestrians entering installations.
- Measure NORMAL 7 (AF Added): Where no permanent channeling measures are built into the gates, emplace barriers or obstacles on in-bound and out-bound lanes at installation entry points to mitigate high-speed installation access through entry and exit lanes, in accordance with UFC 4-022-01. Prevent base entry through exit lanes. Ensure sufficient number and types of barriers remain for increased FPCON/RAMs.
- Measure NORMAL 8 (AF Added): Identify local vendors that are able to provide rapid stocks of emergency response equipment and supplies in accordance with local response plans.
24
Q
Define FPCON Alpha?
A
This condition applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and circumstances do not justify full implementation of FPCON BRAVO measures
25
How long must FPCON Alpha be able to be maintained?
The measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.
26
List 3 security measures for FPCON Alpha?
Measure ALPHA 1: Fully implement all measures of lower FPCON levels.
- Measure ALPHA 2: At regular intervals, inform personnel and family members of the general situation. Ensure personnel arriving for duty are briefed on the threat. Also, remind them to be alert for and to report suspicious activities, such as the presence of unfamiliar personnel and vehicles, suspicious parcels and possible surveillance attempts.
- Measure ALPHA 2.1 (AF Added): Post signs at installation gates and utilize mass communication systems to inform/remind personnel of the FPCON level.
- Measure ALPHA 3: The duty officer or personnel with access to building plans as well as the plans for area evacuations must be available at all times. Plans should be in place to execute access control procedures. Key personnel required to implement security plans should be on-call and readily available.
- Measure ALPHA 4 (AF Modified): Increase random security checks of vehicles and persons entering installations or facilities under the jurisdiction of the United States.
- Measure ALPHA 5: Initiate food and water risk management procedures, brief personnel on food and water security procedures and report any unusual activities.
- Measure ALPHA 6 (AF Modified): Test mass notification systems weekly.
- Measure ALPHA 7: Review all plans, identify resource requirements and be prepared to implement measures of the next higher FPCON level.
- Measure ALPHA 7.1 (AF added): Review plans (to include AT, Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan, Integrated Defense Plan, Medical Contingency Response Plan/Mass Casualty, Disease Containment Plan, etc.) and most recent VA reports, and identify resource requirements. Review dependent, civilian and military personnel evacuation plans and support agreements with local officials.
- Measure ALPHA 8 (AF Modified): Review and, if necessary, implement security measures for DOD identified high-risk personnel in accordance with DODI O-2000.22 and AFI 71-101, vol 2, Protective Service Matters.
- Measure ALPHA 9 (AF Modified): Consult local authorities on the threat and mutual AT measures. As appropriate, brief law enforcement agencies who provide support to the installation and request assistance as necessary to ensure protection of resources and personnel.
- Measure ALPHA 10: Review intelligence, CI and operations dissemination procedures.
- Measure ALPHA 11: Review barrier plans.
- Measure ALPHA 12 (AF Added): Secure access to all bulk quantity storage areas containing hazardous and flammable material.
- Measure ALPHA 13 (AF Added): Review CBRN detection plan ensuring it uses available detectors (deployment and home station assets).
- Measure ALPHA 14: Review all higher FPCON measures.
27
Define FPCON Bravo?
Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
28
Sustaining FPCON BRAVO for a prolonged period may cause what issues?
Sustaining BRAVO measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and military-civil relationships with local authorities.
29
List 3 security measures for FPCON Bravo?
- Measure BRAVO 1: Fully implement all measures of lower FPCON levels.
- Measure BRAVO 1.1 (AF Added): Brief personnel on the updated threat and associated procedures. Update signs at installation gates and utilize mass communication systems to inform/remind personnel of the FPCON level.
- Measure BRAVO 1.2 (AF Added): Increase frequency of daily RAMs. Focus additional RAMs on current situation and nature of threat.
- Measure BRAVO 1.3 (AF Added): Have intelligence and OSI provide a CBRN threat briefing to the Threat Working Group (TWG) or equivalent. Include specific information such as probability of CBRN use, type(s) and amount of CBRN material, likely CBRN material release mechanisms and probable targets.
- Measure BRAVO 1.4 (AF Added): Verify the interoperability of CBRN response procedures with local community resources, to include activities outlined in the CEMP 10-2, Disease Containment Plan (DCP) and Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP).
- Measure BRAVO 1.5 (AF Added): Contact local hospitals and establish/ensure lines of communication for notification of the installation in the event of significant increase in antibiotic use or people exhibiting symptoms of exposure to CBRN materials.
30
Define FPCON Charlie?
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
31
What affects may occur with prolonged implementation of FPCON Charlie?
Prolonged implementation of CHARLIE measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.
32
List 3 security measures for FPCON Charlie?
Measure CHARLIE 1: Fully implement all measures of lower FPCON levels.
- Measure CHARLIE 1.1 (AF Added): Conduct 100% identification checks of all personnel entering the installation, to include vehicle passengers.
- Measure CHARLIE 1.2 (AF Added): Brief personnel on the updated threat and associated procedures. Update signs at installation gates and utilize mass communication systems to inform/remind personnel of the FPCON level. If a CBRN threat exists, ensure the Disaster Response Force and, if permissible, local authorities are briefed on the threat.
- Measure CHARLIE 1.3 (AF Added): Increase frequency of daily RAMs. Focus additional RAMs on current situation and nature of threat.
- Measure CHARLIE 2: Recall additional required personnel. Ensure armed augmentation security personnel are aware of current rules of engagement and any applicable Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). Review types of weapons and ammunition issued to augmentation security personnel; heightened threats may require employment of different weapon capabilities.
- Measure CHARLIE 3: Be prepared to react to requests for assistance from both local authorities and other installations in the region.
- Measure CHARLIE 3.1 (AF Added): Ensure flow of information between on and off-base medical treatment facilities participating in the medical surveillance program. Consider initiation of manual collection of data if the automated system has a 24-hour or more delay in providing results.
33
Define FPCON Delta?
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
34
Which FPCON is considered a localized condition?
Delta
35
List 3 security measures for FPCON Delta?
- Measure DELTA 1 (AF Modified): Fully implement all measures of lower FPCON levels. As necessary, brief personnel on the updated threat and associated procedures and update signs at installation gates, utilize mass communication systems to inform/remind personnel of the FPCON level.
- Measure DELTA 2: Augment guards as necessary.
- Measure DELTA 3: Identify all vehicles within operational or mission support areas.
- Measure DELTA 4: Search all vehicles and their contents before allowing entrance to the installation. Selected pre-screened and constantly secured vehicles used to transport escorted very important personnel may be exempted.
- Measure DELTA 5: Control facility access and implement positive identification of all personnel with no exceptions.
- Measure DELTA 6: Search all personally carried items (e.g., suitcases, briefcases, packages, backpacks) brought into the installation or facility.
- Measure DELTA 7: Close DOD schools.
- Measure DELTA 8: Make frequent checks of the exterior of buildings and of parking areas.
- Measure DELTA 9: Restrict all non-essential movement.
- Measure DELTA 10: (Airfield specific) Cease all flying except for specifically authorized
36
Duress codes, duress words and mechanical duress devices are used by whom?
SF, maintenance personnel and anyone else working in support of nuclear resources.
37
At a minimum who must know how and when to use duress words?
As a minimum, all personnel granted unescorted entry into the WSA must know "how and when" to use duress words.
38
What do duress procedures enable personnel to do?
Procedures enable personnel to alert friendly forces of duress situations under a number of distinctive conditions without additional risks to bystanders.
39
How is duress indicated?
Duress is indicated by non-compliance with established procedures.
40
What does indication of a duress require?
Indications of duress situations require immediate armed response and investigation by SF
41
List four examples of duress indications?
- Misauthentication.
- Code compromise.
- Duress words: Actual passing and receiving of the current primary or alternate duress word.
- Code of the day. Passing and receiving of the designated duress number (Listed on the code of the day memorandum) to W-2.
- Mechanical duress (from LDA/RDA/EC).
- Radio duress button (do not initiate unless there is an actual situation).
- The AECS duress pin number entered instead of access pin number.
- Misauthentication procedures during opening/closing of bays/structures.
42
When does a misauthentication occur during opening and closing of bays/igloos/structures?
Misauthentication occurs when individuals respond incorrectly or do not respond to the "code of the day" when challenged by LDAO/RDAO.
43
Who must know the code of the day?
Munitions personnel requiring entry into bays/igloos/structures must know the code of the day.
44
What are the procedures for initial and second missauthentication during the opening of a bay/igloo/structure?
- For initial misauthentication, LDAO/RDAO will:
- Have the key team stand by with the opening and cease all opening/closing procedures.
- Dispatch AS and an ISRT to the affected structure/bay.
- AS and an ISRT will:
- Challenge and remove all personnel from the area of the structure/bay and position the individual facing away from the resources.
- Have forces instruct maintenance guard to place their weapon on the ground, if applicable.
- Have forces take control of the guard's weapon and place themselves between the individuals and the resources.
- Ensure locks are in place.
- Ensure maintenance personnel are positively identified via their AECS card against the preannouncement notification.
- In the absence of further duress, the AS will authenticate with the LDAO, brief the key team on proper authentication procedures and allow re-authentication. Have SF remain in position.
- For two misauthentications on any structure the following procedures apply:
AS and an ISRT will:
- Remove the key team and armed guard from the area and place at a disadvantage in the vehicle entrapment area. NOTE: The structure/bay will not be left unattended. Secure with two security personnel until a maintenance key team assumes control of the structure/bay.
- Ensure suspects are kept at a disadvantage until an authorized two-person key team arrives to take control of the keys. NOTE: During inclement weather, the suspects will be inspected, handcuffed, and placed in a warm vehicle to await arrival of a new key team. Structure keys will NEVER leave the WSA.
CSC and LDAO will:
- Cease all opening/closing procedures.
- Initiate appropriate up-channel reporting.
- Notify maintenance of misauthentication and request preannouncement and dispatch of second key team.
45
What are the procedures for missauthentication during the opening/closing of an M&I administrative area?
Misauthentication during the opening or closing by a single person of the administrative areas does not require an automatic Security Situation. Administrative areas do not afford access to no lone zones. Armed response by an ISRT and W-1 is required. Re-identify personnel via the access approval and authority list (AAAL) and verify security status. If all is in order terminate and allow the opening or closing.
46
What are the procedures when an RF member receives a duress word/number?
The RF member receiving the duress word/number will not give any indication to victim or subjects that he/she is knowledgeable of the distress call and will discreetly notify W-2 or CSC. In any case, the individual(s) will not be allowed to depart, grant entry or access, or continue with any procedures. If the victim or subjects try to depart, the RF member will initiate a challenge of all personnel on scene.
47
Authentication matrix's are used by whom? How will all other forces authenticate?
W-2, W-18, CSC and BDOC/ last name authentication
48
Describe the blotter, and what information will go in the blotter.
A chronological listing of events occurring during the shift. Any incident or occurrence, which requires either physical response, dispatch or investigative activities, even if it is done over the phone, will be entered in the blotter. Record all responses, notifications, work orders, and confiscated/found IDs as a minimum in the blotter. Essentially, all activity and pertinent information will be documented in the blotter during the shift.
49
How will blotter entries be written?
Entries will be clear, concise and grammatically correct. Limit the information in the entry to pertinent information and a summary of the incident covering the details.
50
The blotter will run for a 24-hour period beginning and ending at what time? What are the blotter start times for 8hr and 12hr shifts?
The blotter will run for a 24-hour period beginning and ending at 0530. The blotter start times for 8 hour shifts are 0530 for day shift, 1330 for swing shift and 2130 for mid shift.
- The blotter start times for 12-hour shifts are 0530 for day shift and 1730 for mid shift.
51
At the end of each shift who will proofread, review and approve the blotter?
At the end of each shift, the DS and flight leadership will proofread, review and approve the blotter.
52
Who will sign the blotter, and why?
The flight leader/chief will sign the blotter. They are responsible for all activities during their shift.
53
When the LAN/Email is not operational how will the blotter be distributed?
- When the LAN/email is not operational, a hard copy blotter will be hand carried to the 90 SFG/CC.
- Electronic access will be coordinated through the 90 SFS/CC and S5R.
54
Who will align posting to have a qualified EC in a position to conduct entry/exit procedures at the alternate point?
. Area Supervisor
55
What must be checked prior to the EC to allow entry/exit at the AECP?
The EC will conduct an AECS badge verification and (state/federal issue identification credential) check against the MRABL before allowing entry/exit.
56
Who will be notified by the alternate EC of anybody entering/exiting the WSA from the AECP and why?
Upon entry/exit of all personnel, the primary EC or the RDAO will be notified by the alternate EC and manually log individuals into discrete controlled areas (DCA) 13 for entry and DCA 100 for exit.
57
What is a blocked card alarm and what are the procedures when the Entry Controller receives a blocked card alarm?
- Badge has been blocked or revoked from the system. Individual will depart low side of booth and provide AECS badge and military ID.
- EC will check badge against MRABL and PRP notification log.
- If individual is not listed on MRABL, EC will contact pass and registration and ascertain status of individual and/or badge.
- If individual has been suspended, contact individual’s security manager and verify status.
- If individual is suspended, initiate attempted penetration procedures.
58
PRP removal denies unescorted entry authority for whom?
An individual normally authorized unescorted entry into the WSA in a controlled or critical PRP position.
59
Who must adhere to PRP procedures in order to deny unauthorized access to the WSA?
RDAO/EC
60
Who does the RDAO/EC receive PRP notifications from?
CSC
61
What is critical in ensuring unauthorized personnel are denied access to limited and exclusion areas?
Quick relay of PRP related information
62
Who can PRP suspensions/decertification notifications be received from?
PRP suspension/decertification notifications can only be received
from the individual‘s unit commander, PRP monitor or designated individual (must be
designated in writing by unit commander).
63
What are the CSC actions for receiving a PRP notification?
Upon receiving notification, the Central Security Controller (CSC) will identify the individual making the call against the unit PRP letter to verify identity (caller‘s name/rank, unit, and position/office symbol).
- After identity is confirmed, a final check is completed by asking for any portion of the caller‘s social security number (last two, first two, etc.).
- Once full verification is complete, the CSC will relay the information received to the Remote Display Area Operator (RDAO) who will then input the information into the Predator Elite Alarm/Access System.
64
Who will the RDAO/CSC will notify of a PRP suspension/decertification?
WSA Entry Controller and the Local Display Area Operator (LDAO).
65
What are the CSC actions for receiving a PRP reinstatement notification?
Upon receiving notification, the Central Security Controller (CSC) will identify the individual making the call against the unit PRP letter to verify identity (caller‘s name/rank, unit, and position/office symbol).
- Hang up the phone and call the telephone number of the person that made the call initially for reinstatement. Verify all information with the caller and double check that the call was indeed for a reinstatement.
- Once full verification is complete, the CSC will relay the information received to the Remote Display Area Operator (RDAO) who will then input the information into the Predator Elite Alarm/Access System.
66
Suspension is used to immediately remove a member from PRP duties without starting what action?
Decertification
67
When suspended, a member is still considered reliable for the PRP, but
because of the circumstances, is not authorized to perform what duties?
PRP
68
When shall a suspension be used?
- Suspension shall be used only when the individual’s reliability is not in question,
- When the problem is expected to be of short duration
- While conducting an investigation or medical evaluation to determine if a situation or incident could have an adverse effect on an individual’s reliability
69
How long will a suspension be for initially?
30 days.
70
A suspension will initially be for up to 30 days. However, the certifying official may extend the period of suspension up how long, in what increments?
120 days in 30-day increments
71
If the issue that caused a suspension cannot be resolved in 120 days what must happen?
Individual shall be temporarily decertified until the issue is resolved and the individual is either returned to PRP duties or permanently decertified.
72
What are the four reasons a person may be termporary decertified from PRP?
- Diagnosed as an alcohol abuser or dependent; or
- Establishment of a Security Information File; or
- Withdrawn access to classified information; or
- Withdrawn security clearance eligibility and is pending adjudication by the AFCAF, or the Defense Security Service for contractor personnel
73
What is the time from for a temporary decertification?
Temporary decertification shall not normally exceed 270 days. However, the
certifying official may extend the period of temporary decertification in 30-day increments to a
maximum of 365 days.
74
What are the four reasons a person may be permenantly decertified from PRP?
- An individual who is diagnosed as alcohol dependent and subsequently fails the required aftercare program.
- An individual who is diagnosed as a drug abuser.
- An individual who is diagnosed as drug dependent.
- An individual’s security clearance is revoked.
75
When may an individual who was permanently decertified be recertified?
A certifying official or reviewing official may request reinstatement of a member’s
PRP certification or requalification consideration for members who were permanently
decertified/disqualified provided the reason or condition of the permanent decertification or
ineligibility no longer exists.
76
Who is the approval authority for reinstatement of PRP for members who were permanently decertified?
. Approval authority for reinstatement is Head of a DoD Component. Each Head of a DoD Component shall determine delegation authority within their Component. Forward all requests to reinstate PRP eligibility to HQ USAF/A3SN for approval.
77
Emergency entry into the WSA are accepted during what type of emergencies?
Emergencies include fire, life threatening injuries, Security Situations, and Covered Wagons.
78
In the event of a known emergency, what information will be relayed by CSC to the EC for emergency entry?
CSC will relay the nature, location of incident, number of vehicles, and personnel
79
Responding emergency vehicles will not be subject to inspection upon entry into the WSA, when will their inspection take place?
They will be inspected by an ISRT upon termination of the emergency.
80
When does WSA Emergency Exit procedures occur?
Emergency exit occurs when an emergency response team is within the WSA and is suddenly tasked to respond to another emergency outside the WSA, such as fire, severe injuries, etc.
81
What agencies are authorized to emergency in process?
Fire department.
- American Medical Response (AMR).
- USAF weapon movements and DoE shipments under attack.
- Responding SF.
- Responding EOD personnel.
82
In the situation of an emergency evacuation for non essential personnel, who is authorized to make this final decision?
On duty senior munitions supervisor, the fire chief and the 90th MW/CC.
83
Who can declare an emergency evacuation of all personnel, including Security Forces from the WSA?
90 MW/CC and the on scene Fire Chief.
84
Who has full authority to enter any building or structure by force in the event of an actual emergency that threatens life or resources?
The senior fire official
85
Emergency vehicles must still be inspected. When will this inspection be conducted?
Vehicles will be inspected upon termination of the emergency
86
What emergency vehicles will be shadowed, and when will these vehicles be inspected?
Ensure all medical, fire department, and EOD vehicles are shadowed and upon arrival at emergency location, the vehicles are inspected (if situation allows) and surveillance maintained throughout the period of the emergency. The vehicles must be inspected prior to exit from the WSA.
87
Control centers responsible for emergency response to the WSA will relay what information to CSC/RDA? Who will CSC/RDA relay this information to?
The control center for the responding unit [e.g., Fire Department, American Medical Response (AMR)], will notify the RDA/CSC controller of the following:
- Agency responding.
- Nature and location of incident.
- Number of vehicles and personnel.
- RDA/CSC controller will relay this information to the WSA EC.
88
What will be accomplished prior to any Nuclear Weapon movement?
Interior/Exterior SRTs conduct sweeps of areas of responsibility (exterior SRTs will sweep a minimum of 300 meters from the fence).
89
Will the 15-in-5 forces be used as close-in security/structure guards, why/why not?
No, as this will degrade their ability to respond to the movement or other emergencies that may occur within the WSA.
90
When do nuclear weapons movements occur in the WSA, and when are patrols in the WSA responsible for the security of such movements?
Anytime PL-1 munitions/components are transported to/from or within the WSA, while it is still within the confines of the WSA.
91
How will the arrival date(s)/time(s) of DoE shipments be disseminated to SF personnel as they are classified what?
Verbally, Confidential
92
The procedures for a scheduled DoE shipment and Safe Haven
| arrival at F.E. Warren AFB are identical except when?
Under hostile attack.
93
A Munitions representative will pick up the AF Form 1109 and perform escort duties. If a Munitions representative is not present, who will perform escort duties?
Flight Chief/Flight Commander
94
Who is responsible for the identification of DoE couriers, positioning of response force personnel and overall command/control during normal and emergency situations?
Area Supervisor
95
What are the procedures for inspecting DV vehicles entering the WSA?
Vehicles involved in the DV visit may be inspected at another location prior to entering the WSA.
- The inspection must be conducted by a SF member task certified to conduct WSA vehicle inspections or a certified Explosive Detection Dog team.
- Once the inspection is completed, the DV vehicle must remain under constant SF supervision and be escorted into the WSA.
- The 90 SFS/S3OS will be contacted to coordinate this inspection.
- The vehicle will be inspected in the vehicle entrapment area if the vehicle is not pre-inspected or surveillance/escort is broken.
96
How many escortees may an escort official escort?
This ratio must not exceed six escortees per one escort official.
97
When may contractor vehicles remain in the WSA over night?
Contractor vehicles will not remain in the WSA overnight without approval of 90 MUNS/CC or 90 MW/CC.
98
Any person requiring escorted entry into the WSA must be listed on what?
A properly authenticated EAL.
99
What are the procedures if contraband is found on an individual prior to entering the WSA?
If contraband, illegal or prohibited items are found, instruct personnel to remove items and ensure they are not permitted to enter.
- If an individual refuses to remove items for inspection, the inspecting SF member will sound the alarm, challenge and place the subject(s) at a disadvantage and await the arrival of an armed security response team.
- The EC will terminate all entry/exit procedures until the subject(s) have been removed from the entrapment area.
- Expedite entry/exit of Security Forces personnel as required.
100
What vehicles are authorized to be operated in the WSA?
Only government vehicles, including government contracted rental vehicles (rental agreement must be for the specific company, not an individual) or specialized vehicles (cranes, wreckers and so forth), may be driven into or operated within the WSA when required for official purposes.
101
In the event physical changes have occurred (growth/removal of facial hair, major weight loss/gain, etc.), who will make the final determination on positive identification?
Area Supervisor (AS) (W-1) will make final determination on positive identification
102
In the event a hostile action is directed towards the DoE shipment while on F.E. Warren AFB, DoE personnel are under the tactical direction of whom?
The Installation Commander or senior Security Forces leader if such direction does not compromise the integrity, safety or security of loaded vehicles still in DoE custody. Otherwise, couriers must cooperate fully and ensure they do not interfere with or complicate actions taken by Air Force security personnel.
103
When will DoE couriers be disarmed?
Never, DoE couriers are federal peace officers and will not be disarmed
for any reason.
104
If an injured person is being transported out of the WSA, what items will be removed prior to exiting the WSA?
SF will obtain AECS #, classified item(s) and/or weapon(s) at the scene prior to departure. Munitions keys will be immediately turned over to an authorized Munitions Key Team.
105
Explain Sign/Counter Sign.
The S/CS is a predetermined number between 3 and 9, is DoD Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information, and will be strictly controlled.
- This number will be changed quarterly and is distributed by 90 SFS/S3OW by memorandum to all agencies authorized emergency entry, the WSA ECP, RDA/CSC and BDOC.
- The WSA AS must ensure all SF members are briefed on the current S/CS prior to assuming post.
106
What are the correct procedures for emergency entry into the WSA?
As the emergency vehicles approach the WSA, the AEC/SF member,
with the assistance of the Exterior SRT (if available), will determine the status of each
responding vehicle by use of the Sign/Counter Sign (S/CS).
- As the vehicles approach the vehicle entrapment area they must open their driver‘s side window.
- The AEC/SF member/SRT will challenge each vehicle with a portion of the S/CS.
- The vehicle driver will respond with the remainder of the S/CS by a show of fingers on one hand extended out of the window.
- If the S/CS is returned properly, the AEC/SF member will count the number of personnel in each vehicle and verify that number with the vehicle driver.
- If all is correct and no duress is indicated, the emergency vehicle will be allowed immediate
entry.
- NOTE: AMR personnel will be trained on WSA emergency entry by 90 SFS
operations personnel at least two (2) times a year or as required/requested by AMR
IAW the Memorandum of Agreement.
107
When will S/CS not be used for emergency entry into the WSA?
The S/CS will not be used during emergency entry of USAF/DoE convoys under confirmed hostile attack.
108
What are the procedures when passed the incorrect S/CS or when the emergency responding vehicle has the incorrect amount of personnel inside the vehicle?
- In the event a specific responding vehicle returns the S/CS improperly or responds improperly to the number of personnel inside the vehicle, a duress will be declared and initial entry denied.
- The vehicle will be challenged and all personnel ordered to dismount out of the way as directed by SF personnel.
- Personnel will be separated and asked to explain the reason for the improper response. If all personnel can positively verify that there is no duress, the team is secure and that human error was involved, the team will be allowed entry.
- If the possibility of a hostile situation cannot be ruled out, entry will be denied, personnel will be apprehended/detained and an up-channel report will be initiated.
- Additional Security Forces will be dispatched as deemed necessary by the Security Forces supervisor.
- Entry will be denied only to the vehicle that responded improperly.
- Other responding vehicles that respond correctly will be allowed entry.
109
What agencies are allowed to emergency in process?
Fire department.
- 90 MDG and AMR.
- Security Forces responding to emergencies/exercises.
- USAF convoys and DoE shipments under attack.
- Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD).
- TRF responding to real world/exercise security situations.
110
What is a safe haven?
A Safe Haven is a safe location for the storage of DoE shipments. This situation occurs when a shipment must stop prior to reaching its original destination.
