Flight Cheif Flashcards
90th
1
Q
When will you direct the gate guards to immediately initiate a stop all?
A
IEC will immediately close inbound and outbound lanes of traffic for alarm activation or robbery notifications of Arms, Ammunition and Explosives (AA&E) facilities, or facilities containing over $25,000 in cash only under the direction of BDOC or On-Scene Commander
2
Q
If the suspect(s) have fled and a description of a suspect or a suspect vehicle is obtained, the IEC may initiate what procedures upon authorization of BDOC or OSC?
A
The IEC may begin stop-check-pass procedures
3
Q
When may the IEC initiate stop-check-pass procedures?
A
Upon authorization of BDOC or OSC
4
Q
When should the IEC initiate stop-check-pass procedures?
A
An IEC should not begin stop-check-pass procedures unless a second SF member is present.
5
Q
Who can assist an IEC with stop-check-pass procedures?
A
This can either be the VCC (if armed) or another patrol.
6
Q
What are the procedures for stop-check-pass?
A
- In stop-check-pass, the inbound lanes are allowed to proceed as long as there is one vehicle in each lane at all times.
- Once a vehicle is checked, it is allowed to proceed as long as another vehicle can pull into the lane in its place.
- Take the ID card of the stopped driver to ensure they remain in the lane of traffic.
- The outbound lane(s) are stopped and each vehicle and its occupants are checked against suspect description.
- Drop arms will be deployed in the exit lanes only when it has been determined there is no danger to outbound vehicles.
7
Q
After the drop arms have been lowered the IEC will make contact with the first how many vehicles to verify they are aware they drop arm is down?
A
5
8
Q
BDOC is designated net control for what operations?
A
Police
9
Q
Radio transmissions will be under th direction of whom?
A
Radio transmissions will be under the direction of BDOC
10
Q
Where is the alternate BDOC located?
A
The alternate BDOC located at Gate-5.
11
Q
If BDOC cannot monitor the net due to power outage, equipment failure or BDOC relocation whom takes control of the net and until what is established?
A
If BDOC cannot monitor the net due to power outage, equipment failure or BDOC relocation, the alternate radio base station at Gate 1 will be utilized by the IEC until a patrol activates the alternate BDOC located at Gate-5
12
Q
What is the BDOC operator’s responsibility once they relinquish control of the net to the on-scene patrols?
A
He/she will monitor the transmissions
13
Q
What will the IEC use to scan ID’s?
A
. Card scanner
14
Q
What are the IEC’s actions if the information on the card scanner does not match the individual?
A
. If the information does not match, deny entry, detain and contact BDOC immediately
15
Q
The IEC’s are responsible for authentication an individuals access authority by scanning what items?
A
. CAC, DBIDS ID card or DBIDS pass.
16
Q
How long can visitor passes be issued for at the gates?
A
72 hours
17
Q
How can Visitor passes be created at the gates?
A
Via DBIDS access control point workstation.
18
Q
How can the IEC verify the DBIDS equipment is operational?
A
By logging into the DBIDS computer and hand held units.
19
Q
When do IEC’s reserve the right to employ final denial barriers?
A
. Whenever they deem a vehicle has gained unauthorized access to the installation.
20
Q
IEC’s must always demonstrate good judgment, discretion and _______ when employing the final denial barriers?
A
Common Sense
21
Q
All vehicle discrepancies during change-over will be reported to whom?
A
BDOC and vehicle section
22
Q
Damage, missing and/or broken equipment during change-over warrants immediate notification to whom?
A
Flight Commander (FCC)/Flight Chief (FC) notification.
23
Q
Vehicles at or below what fuel level will be refueled prior to shift change?
A
75%
24
Q
What patrol vehicle information must be logged in the blotter back and when is this information given to BDOC?
A
Vehicles used for LE patrol will have their registration number, mileage, and discrepancies recorded on the blotter back at the beginning of each shift.
25
During winter months what must the patrolman ensure is completely cleared of snow on their vehicles?
During winter months, patrol vehicles will have all windows, light bars, headlights, tail-lights and public address speaker completely cleared of all snow (to include those assigned vehicles on standby).
26
Drivers will ensure there is at least how much of a clearance between vehicles/fixed object before parking/driving.
Drivers will ensure there is at least how much of a clearance between vehicles/fixed object before parking/driving.
27
When may an SF member be subject to monetary liability for damage to GOV’s?
For damage to GOVs caused by the members gross negligence, willful misconduct or deliberate unauthorized use.
28
What patrols are responsible for a specific patrol zone?
Each patrol, with the exception of the supervisor, will be responsible for a specific patrol zone.
29
Upon initial arrival in the zone after posting, the patrol will make a cursory check of the entire area. During this check, the patrol should be taking mental notes of what information?
Construction sites, dormitory parties or gatherings, traffic conditions, etc. and monitor these activities during patrol.
30
When will all active pick-up/restriction orders and BOLOs be reviewed?
At the beginning of each shift?
31
Who has an inherent responsibility to monitor and support static posts and gates in their patrol area?
Mobile patrols
32
What traffic hazards will be reported to BDOC?
Identify and report road hazards, malfunctioning traffic control devices and other substandard situations and report them to BDOC.
33
Who will approve the blotter and all paperwork prior to submission?
FC/FCC
34
When will all paperwork be turned in?
Complete and turn in paperwork for review NLT the next duty day after the incident.
35
Who is responsible for obtaining the appropriate signature within 24 hours or sooner from the respective CC for search authorization?
It will be the responsibility of the requesting party who seeks search authorization to obtain the appropriate signature within 24 hours or sooner from the respective CC.
36
Who is the release authority for all documents once the completed paperwork is received and processed as official records, and when are those documents usually available?
The release authority for all documents is S5R once the completed paperwork is received and processed as official records, usually 3-5 working days after receipt of the completed paperwork.
37
Who is the OPR for release of all police reports?
S5R
38
When would a patrol report actions that could affect the patrol‟s ability to respond, such as field interviews, walking patrols, etc. to BDOC?
As they are initiated
39
Who is the command and control for all LE posts and patrols until this is transferred to an OSC?
Regardless of rank, the DS is the command and control for all LE posts and patrols until this is transferred to an OSC.
40
Where is the BNSF sterile zone?
East of Old Glory Rd.
41
What are the BNSF Sectors and their locations?
- Red: I-25 to Old Glory.
- Blue: Old Glory to South Frontier.
- Orange: South Frontier to Roundtop Road.
42
Who is responsible to publish the RIEVC checksheets for gates 1 and 5, and how often are they created?
90 SFS/S5T will be responsible to publish the semi-annual RIEVC checksheets for Gates 1 and 5.
43
Who is responsible for determing and approving random vehicle inspection checks?
90 MW/CC
44
Who will develop RAM vehicle inspection checks and how often will they be developed?
On a monthly basis by 90 SFS/S2.
45
Who is responsible for the LE patrols and IEC’s?
Senior patrolman
46
Who do senior patrolman answer to and what are they responsible for?
They answer directly to flight leadership and are responsible for ensuring the operation of their shift is in compliance with all instructions.
47
When is the senior patrolman required to report for duty and why?
Report for duty at least 45 minutes prior to guard mount and receive a thorough briefing from the off-going senior patrolman concerning pass-on and incidents that have occurred or are pending.
48
List all posts the senior patrolman is required to inspect.
Posts to be inspected are VCC, Gate 1, Gate 2, Gate 5, Freedom Elementary Gate, other police units and BDOC.
49
Who will the senior patrolman work closely with and why?
Work closely with the security supervisor and keep each other advised of pertinent information and incidents that may affect each other’s area of responsibility.
50
What will the desk sergeant use to conduct change-over?
The BDOC checklist
51
What is an AF IMT 1168?
AF IMT 1168s, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint\
52
All discrepancies and pass-ons will be reported to whom?
Flight Leadership
53
What will be accomplished for all major discrepancies found during change-over?
The off-going and on-coming DS is to complete an AF IMT 1168s, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint, for all major discrepancies and report them to S5P.
54
Prior to guardmount, the Desk Sergeant will ensure the flight leadership has what information for their shift?
Any RIEVCs, RAMs, added force protection patrols and any new BOLOs from the last shift.
55
BDOC is designated net control for what operations?
Police
56
Radio transmissions will be under th direction of whom?
Radio transmissions will be under the direction of BDOC.
57
Where is the alternate BDOC located?
The alternate BDOC located at Gate-5.
58
If BDOC cannot monitor the net due to power outage, equipment failure or BDOC relocation whom takes control of the net and until what is established?
If BDOC cannot monitor the net due to power outage, equipment failure or BDOC relocation, the alternate radio base station at Gate 1 will be utilized by the IEC until a patrol activates the alternate BDOC located at Gate-5.
59
What is the BDOC operators responsibility once they relinquish control of the net to the on-scene patrols?
He/she will monitor the transmissions.
60
How often are communications status checks conducted?
At the beginning of the shift a communication check will be conducted with all posts and patrols. The DS will conduct periodic communication checks with posts and patrols and continuously monitor all SF radio transmissions.
61
What DOD directives safeguard COMSEC information?
eguard information IAW DOD 5400.7R/Air Force Sup/AFGSC Sup1, DoD Freedom of Information Act Program and AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.
62
At minimum what documents must be maintained and completed by the LED?
Maintain the SF blotter, complete reports and associated paperwork as required. Review and proofread all paperwork generated during the shift for completeness, accuracy and neatness prior to flight leadership‟s review and signature.
63
Who is authorized to sign the SF blotter?
Only the flight chief or higher can sign the SF blotter.
64
The DS is responsible for all incident actions until relieved by whom?
The DS is responsible for all incident actions until relieved by the OSC.
65
The Desk Sergeant will initiate and control all incident and emergency response actions in accordance with what?
Command and control. Initiate and control all incident and emergency response actions IAW with current procedure and applicable checklists.
66
The desk sergeant will make notifications in accordance with what?
Make notifications IAW notification matrix or as directed by flight leadership or above.
67
What type of area is BDOC?
BDOC is a controlled area.
68
Who will be allowed entry to BDOC?
Only persons with a valid need will be allowed entry. Individuals in the respective chain of command and S3 staff are authorized access to BDOC.
69
How many personnel are allowed to be on BDOC at one time?
Ensure no more than five (5) personnel are in BDOC at one time.
70
Who has the authority to remove personnel from BDOC?
The Desk Sergeant
71
How will visitors enter BDOC?
All visitors will be logged on the AF IMT 1109, Visitor Register Log.
72
When will IG inspectors be granted access to BDOC?
IG inspectors will be granted access after verification with an approved/authenticated EAL.
73
What does the acronym NIBRS stand for?
National Incident Based Reporting System.
74
What does the acronym DIBRS stand for?
Defense Incident Based Reporting System
75
Ensure NIBR/DIBR reports are accomplished for what reasons?
Ensure initial reports are accomplished in cases where base referral agencies assume responsibility of incidents, the incident requires follow up, tracking, or there are extenuating circumstances that should not be included in the blotter
76
Incidents assumed by AFOSI and S2I will warrant still warrant what?
Initial Report
77
Who is the Terminal Agency Coordinator for the NCIC located at BDOC?
S2I.
78
Who is responsible for all equipment, vehicle, and supply issues?
Day Shift Desk Sergeant
79
Who is responsible for initiating anf forwarding work orders and supply requests to S3O?
Day Shift Desk Sergeant
80
When will work orders be annotated in the blotter?
Work orders will be annotated in the blotter when initiated.
81
Who will ensure sufficient forms, supplies and reference books are current and available on the primary BDOC?
Swing Shift Desk Sergeant.
82
Swing Shift Desk Sergeant.
Each cycle
83
Any and all shortfalls of sufficient forms, supplies and reference books will be reported to whom?
S5
84
Who is responsible for sending out all required paperwork completed the preceding day?
Mid shift desk sergeant.
85
Who will ensure the primary and alternate BDOC has all required equipment and checklists?
Mid shift desk sergeant.
86
Who will conduct a equipment and radio check at the alternate BDOC?
Mid shift desk sergeant.
87
Who will purge the held ticket box daily, review the tickets for accuracy and completion and forward them to S5?
Mid shift desk sergeant
88
Where is Pass and Registration located?
Building 290
89
All requests for assistance and complaints will be dealt with in what kind of a manner?
courteous, professional manner.
90
What phrases are unacceptable when dealing with requests for assistance and complaints?
Negative phrases are not acceptable ie "No," "There is nothing we can do"
91
In reference to notifications, what will be entered in the blotter?
All notifications and time of notification will be documented in the blotter.
92
Who will be notified if a notification cannot be accomplished?
S3
93
What will be accomplished for all notifications that cannot be accomplished outside our squadron?
If a notification outside our squadron cannot be completed, utilize their chain of command until exhausted, then document the non-contact in the blotter.
94
What is the overlying goal for hostile situations directed against the WSA? How can this be accomplished?
Through violent force, stop the progress of the hostile force, fix their position, aggressively close on their position utilizing coordinated fields of fire, fire control and fire and maneuver to destroy them. This can be accomplished by using RTES and necessary forces to quickly establish a blocking force inside the area and then use external patrols to provide a base of fire and maneuver element, when available.
95
How do we combat a massed attack against the WSA from the exterior?
The AS must deploy their RF utilizing established fighting positions to form a blocking force as soon as possible.
96
The AS must deploy their RF utilizing established fighting positions to form a blocking force as soon as possible.
The blocking force must be kept between the hostile forces and the resources.
97
If the blocking force is overcome, how must the AS reposition their forces?
If our blocking forces are overcome the AS must immediately position personnel to place fire on/across any actual or potential opening. If hostile forces breach the fence line and scatter, final denial fire on all structures may be necessary
98
How can the WSA RF prepare to deal with Multiple attacks/stand-off attack/diversions?
The ability to effectively deal with multiple attacks can only come from instinct, planning/exercising a myriad of possible scenarios and quick reaction drills until they become second nature.
99
What is the proper armament for all posts and patrols posted in the WSA IAW the post priority chart?
RDAO-M4 or M-9, CSC- M4 or M-9, LDAO-M4, W-4 Leader-M4, W-4a- M4/M203, W-6Leader-M249, W-6a- M4/M203, W-8Leader-M4, W-8a-M4, W-8b-M240/M4 or M9, W-8c- M4/M203, W-5Leader-M4, W-5a- M4/M203, W-9Leader-M4, W-9a-M4, W-9b-M240/M4 or M9, W-9c- M4/M203, W-18-M4, W-1-M4
100
During what FPCON will Hawkeye posts be posted?
Delta
101
What constitutes reduced visibility in the WSA?
Visibility decreases to such a degree that posted patrols are unable to observe beyond the outer thirty (30) foot clear zone from any point of the WSA.
- Visibility is restricted from WSA LDA due to fogging of the lenses of the CCTV system.
- Loss of Area/Perimeter Lighting at WSA: Notify all posted patrols to increase coverage of their area of responsibility. 90 CES must provide an emergency response when two or more consecutive WSA perimeter lights are inoperative; an entire section of WSA interior lighting is inoperative; ten percent (11 or more) of the total lighting is inoperative; or ten percent (7 or more) of the perimeter lighting is inoperative.
- Visibility is one-half of a mile or less from any point of a moving Protection Level 1 resource.
- When the WSA LDAO is notified of an impending severe weather
warning by MSC.
- Anytime the WSA LDAO notifies CSC that he cannot see a portion of
the outer 30 foot clear zone around the WSA.
102
Who may be posted for brief periods of time in the even WSA LDAO cannot visually assess perimeter alarms because of reduced visibility or loss of CCTV?
The WSA response force may be positioned for brief periods of time to provide visual assessment for the loss.
103
Who will be notified once the response force is posted, and by who?
Once the response force is posted, MSC/CSC/LDAO will notify the Weapons Systems Security Superintendent
104
When does an attempted penetration of the WSA ECP occur?
When an individual attempts entry without being on a properly authenticated EAL or without having unescorted entry privileges.
105
List three scenarios which may constitute an attempted penetration.
Does not possess an AECS badge and has no other means for proper entry.
- Not listed on an EAL or there is no EAL posted.
- There is a discrepancy between the EAL and the individuals home station RAB/AECS or military ID.
- Major discrepancy in the individuals identification (escorted or unescorted).
- AECS badge is in the inactive mode (member is PRP suspended).
- Any discrepancy that would lead you to believe there has been tampering with the AECS badge.
106
List two examples of simple typographical errors on an AECS badge.
One number off in the SSN, one letter reversed or misspelled in a name or identifying data, etc.)
107
What are the procedures if a person has a simple typographical error? Would this be an attempted penetration? Would a security situation be required?
An AECS badge which appears to have a simple typographical error (i.e., one number off in the SSN, one letter reversed or misspelled in a name or identifying data, etc.) does not constitute an attempted penetration and security situation reporting is not required. AS will be notified and verify the error. The person will be denied entry and told to contact their unit security manager and report to Pass & Registration for issuance of a new AECS card to correct the problem.
108
When does a nuclear weapon movement occur?
Nuclear weapons movements occur anytime PL 1 munitions/components are transported to, from or within the WSA.
109
When are 90 SFS personnel responsible for the protection of any nuclear weapon movement?
While it is still within the confines of the WSA.
110
Will the 15-in-5 forces be used as close-in security/structure guards, why/why not?
No, as this will degrade their ability to respond to the movement or other emergencies that may occur within the WSA.
111
What will be accomplished prior to any Nuclear Weapon movement?
I/ESRTs conduct sweeps of areas of responsibility. Interior sweeps will consist of checks of all building exteriors, personnel, and avenues of approach. External sweeps will consist of a visual check of all terrain a minimum of 300 meters from perimeter fence.
112
Where will interior patrols be positioned for nuclear weapon movements?
AS will position interior patrols to cover departure point, entry point and the ECP upon completion of sweeps.
113
What are the VTW 400 used to detect? Where are they deployed?
Climbing of the fence; Sectors 2-15 with the exception of sector 9 gate
114
Climbing of the fence; Sectors 2-15 with the exception of sector 9 gate
Vehicles, walking, crawling and running; sectors 1 and 9
115
The BMS must alarm at the smallest break possible but not to exceed what distance?
. 1 ¼ Inches
116
What are the four perimeter sensors ?
Fiber Optic Intrusion Detection System (FD-330 Series)
- Vertical Taut Wire Sensor (VTW 400)
- Infared Perimeter Intrusion Detection Sensor (IPIDS)
- Perimitrax Buried Cable Intrusion Detection Sensor
117
What are the four interior sensors ?
Balance Magnetic Switch (BMS)
- Passive Infrared and Microwave Intruder Detector (Piramid)
- Model 862 IR-EYE Long Range Passive Infrared Telescopes
- CH-1000 Curtain Passive Infra-Red Detector
118
Describe the FOIDS sensor.
The FOIDS is a passive intrusion detection system used in conjunction with the Vertical Taut Wire Sensor (VTW 400). It is primarily used to detect intruders attempting to cut fence fabric. It is deployed in sectors 2-15 with the exception of the gate area in sector 9
119
The FOIDS is a passive intrusion detection system used in conjunction with the Vertical Taut Wire Sensor (VTW 400). It is primarily used to detect intruders attempting to cut fence fabric. It is deployed in sectors 2-15 with the exception of the gate area in sector 9
FOIDS is sensitive to movement, pressure and vibration.
120
Describe the VTW 400.
VTWS 400. VTW 400 is a passive intrusion detection system used in conjunction with a fence sensor system (FOIDS). It is primarily used to detect intruders attempting to climb over a fence. This sensor is deployed in sectors 2-15, with the exception of the gate area in sector 9.
121
What are the VTW 400 used to detect? Where are they deployed?
Climbing of the fence; Sectors 2-15 with the exception of sector 9 gate
122
What are the IPIDS used to detect and where are they located?
Vehicles, walking, crawling and running; sectors 1 and 9
123
What does IPIDS stand for?
Infrared Perimeter Intrusion Detection Sensor.
124
Describe the IPIDS sensor.
The IPIDS sensor sends an infrared beam from the top-transmitting sensor to the top-receiving sensor. The beam is received and signal boosted then sent to the next level transmitter to be sent to the receiver. The beam continues until it completes the cycle through the entire rack and then starts again. An alarm is generated when the beam is broken.
125
Describe the permitrax sensor system.
It is based on ported leaky coaxial cable technology. Sensor cables buried around the perimeter of a site carry radio-frequency signals along the path of the cables. These signals form an invisible electromagnetic detection field around the cables that can detect the presence of an intruder crossing it. Sensor Modules house the necessary electronics to monitor the detection field created by the radio-frequency signals and to raise an alarm if an intruder enters the detection field.
126
What is the BMS (Ballanced Magnetic Switch)and where is it deployed.
The BMS is a passive mechanical sensor system employed on all doors and hatches of bays, igloos and structures capable of storing PL 1 resources. This sensor will not self-test.
127
Describe the PIRAMID alarm.
Passive Infrared and Microwave Intruder Detector (PIRAMID) uses a combination of microwave and passive infrared sensors to detect both the motion and the body heat of an intruder. When both the microwave and infrared sensors detect an intruder at the same time, they trip master alarm relays which provide contact closures for an alarm device or central control panel.
128
What does PIRAMID stand for when referring to ESS?
Passive Infrared and Microwave Intruder Detector
129
What Is the detection capability of the PIRAMID sensor?
Detects motion through the use of doppler microwave and passive infrared signals. Detected changes in temperature swings caused by possible intruder through the passive infrared signal. PIRAMID must get a detection on both sensors (microwave and PIR) to trigger the master alarm and initiate a SAM to the annunciator.
130
The BMS must alarm at the smallest break possible but not to exceed what distance?
1 ¼ Inches
131
What are the four perimeter sensors ?
- Fiber Optic Intrusion Detection System (FD-330 Series)
- Vertical Taut Wire Sensor (VTW 400)
- Infared Perimeter Intrusion Detection Sensor (IPIDS)
- Perimitrax Buried Cable Intrusion Detection Sensor
132
What are the four interior sensors ?
Balance Magnetic Switch (BMS)
- Passive Infrared and Microwave Intruder Detector (Piramid)
- Model 862 IR-EYE Long Range Passive Infrared Telescopes
- CH-1000 Curtain Passive Infra-Red Detector
133
The LPE is a computer based annunciator with security workstations at what locations?
RDAO, LDAO and the ECP
134
How does the LPE act as the annunciator for ESS?
By monitoring and displaying alarms for IDS installed on the perimeter, M&I facility and structures designed to detect intrusions and attempts to defeat security devices.
135
By monitoring and displaying alarms for IDS installed on the perimeter, M&I facility and structures designed to detect intrusions and attempts to defeat security devices.
Security force members always establish an all-around (360 degree) cordon at hostage and anti-hijack scenes.
136
What does the size of a cordon depend on?
How far these perimeters are established from the scene depends on the scope, complexity and location of the incident.
137
Why is an outer perimeter established for hostage situation cordons?
The outer perimeter is established to prevent people from interfering with recovery operations and to keep innocent bystanders and onlookers from being hurt.
138
Where should the outer cordon be established during a hostage situation?
This perimeter should be established outside the maximum effective range of any weapons the hostage takers have, if SF members can establish the type/caliber of the weapon/s involved.
139
Where will the ECP be established at a hostage situation?
Set up an ECP along the outer perimeter in an area that is easily accessible to responding units.
140
Who may replace security forces personnel posted on the inner perimeter if they are available and appropriate for use by the OSC?
Specialized teams
141
Who is allowed within the inner perimeter of a hostage situation?
Only key people such as EST, negotiation teams and the on-scene commander are allowed within the inner perimeter.
142
Only key people such as EST, negotiation teams and the on-scene commander are allowed within the inner perimeter.
EST
143
What is a Safe Haven?
A safe haven is a safe location for the storage of DoE shipments.
144
For what reasons may DOE seek a Safe Haven?
DoE personnel may seek safe haven for many reasons, including: natural disaster, civil disorder, hazardous roads, adverse weather, security threats and equipment breakdowns
145
What is the classification of date(s) and time(s) of DoE shipments, and how is this discriminated to SF personnel?
The arrival date(s) and time(s) of DoE shipments are classified "Confidential" and will only be disseminated verbally to SF personnel.
146
The Flight Chief should give pre-announcement information of a DOE shipment to CSC, however it may also come from what control centers?
MSC, LE Desk or WCP.
147
What is the classification of date(s) and time(s) of DoE shipments, and how is this discriminated to SF personnel?
The arrival date(s) and time(s) of DoE shipments are classified "Confidential" and will only be disseminated verbally to SF personnel.
148
The arrival date(s) and time(s) of DoE shipments are classified "Confidential" and will only be disseminated verbally to SF personnel.
The Installation Commander or senior SF leader if such direction does not compromise the integrity, safety or security of loaded vehicles still in DoE custody.
149
When requested by the DOE Courier Commander, what may Air Force Personnel, to include SF personnel provide storage for, and what form will be accomplished?
Air Force personnel (to include SF personnel) will provide or arrange for storage of weapons, ammunition or classified material at the request of the courier commander. An itemized AF Form 1297, Temparary Issue Recipt, will be exchanged.
150
The procedures for a scheduled DoE shipment and safe haven arrival at F.E. Warren AFB are identical except when?
The shipment is under hostile attack.
151
Who will prepare an AF IMT 1109 for a DOE shipment?
90 MUNS flight operations or 90 MW/CP
152
W-18 will verify the AF IMT 1109 for a DOE shipment against what document?
DoE courier listing located in the ECP
153
What is the AS responsible for during DOE shipments?
AS is responsible for the identification of DoE couriers, positioning of response force personnel and overall command/control during normal and emergency situations.
154
If MUNS is not available to perform escort duties for SAFE HAVEN/DoE Shipments, who will perform those duties?
Flight Chief or Flight Commander
155
Vehicles entering or departing the WSA towing or carrying PL 1 asset(s) or components will not be stopped for an inspection. These vehicles are inspected prior to the movement by whom?
By a member of the convoy team.
156
What information will CSC pass on to the WSA EC for a USAF convoy? Who will the EC relay this information to?
EC will receive notification from the CSC of the drivers information to include rank, first, middle initial, last name, last 6 of SSN, and proximity card # and relay this information to the AS
157
What are the procedures for a USAF convoy entry?
USAF convoy entry.
- EC will receive notification from the CSC of the drivers information to include rank, first, middle initial, last name, last 6 of SSN, and proximity card # and relay this information to the AS.
- When the convoy arrives at checkpoint Bravo (the point where the WSA access road meets Cheyenne Rd) the EC will activate the EC-all RDA/LDA icon on the EC console which allows all gates to be opened simultaneously from the closed position (either the LDA or RDA must grant permission).
- After the convoy vehicle enters the WSA and has been secured at its final destination (1151/1152) the AS will positively identify the driver and passenger utilizing their AECS badges and the information received from CSC. The AS will notify the EC to manually log the drivers into the LPE system. The drivers will exit the WSA using normal vehicle exit procedures.
158
What are the procedures for a USAF convoy exit?
USAF convoy exit:
- When the convoy commander processes out of the area, the EC will obtain the convoy driver‟s information. The EC will relay the driver‟s information to include rank, first name, middle initial, last name, last 6 of SSN, and proximity card # to the AS. AS will be positioned at bay 14 of building 1151 with the PT van and verify driver information. NOTE: AS will not depart bay until permission to roll has been relayed by CSC.
- The AS will coordinate with the EC and RDAO to open the vehicle gates when convoy has been given permission to roll. The EC will activate the EC-all RDA/LDA icon on the EC console which allows all gates to be opened simultaneously from the closed position (either the LDAO or RDAO must grant permission) just as the PT van is approaching V3 gate (AS will not allow the convoy to depart building 1151 until permission to roll has been granted and relayed by CSC).
- Once the convoy vehicle has departed the vehicle entrapment area, the EC will close all vehicle gates. The EC will manually log the convoy drivers out of the LPE system.
159
What is the overlying goal for hostile situations directed against the WSA? How can this be accomplished?
Through violent force, stop the progress of the hostile force, fix their position, aggressively close on their position utilizing coordinated fields of fire, fire control and fire and maneuver to destroy them. This can be accomplished by using RTES and necessary forces to quickly establish a blocking force inside the area and then use external patrols to provide a base of fire and maneuver element, when available.
160
How do we combat a massed attack against the WSA from the exterior?
The AS must deploy their RF utilizing established fighting positions to form a blocking force as soon as possible.
161
When a hostile force penetrates the WSA fence line where must the blocking force be positioned?
The blocking force must be kept between the hostile forces and the resources.
162
If the blocking force is overcome, how must the AS reposition their forces?
If our blocking forces are overcome the AS must immediately position personnel to place fire on/across any actual or potential opening. If hostile forces breach the fence line and scatter, final denial fire on all structures may be necessary
163
How can the WSA RF prepare to deal with multiple attacks/stand-off attack/diversions?
The ability to effectively deal with multiple attacks can only come from instinct, planning/exercising a myriad of possible scenarios and quick reaction drills until they become second nature.
164
The Backup Force shall consist of how many appropriately armed and equipped SF personnel?
17
165
Subsequent follow-on BFs may include appropriately trained and equipped combat support specialists such as who?
Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) technicians, special operations forces
