Patient Interaction and Management Flashcards

1
Q

When is written consent needed?

A

For invasive procedures

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2
Q

Who should HIPAA violations be reported to?

A

ARRT ethics committee

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3
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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4
Q

Who is responsible for determining the patient’s chief complaint or single most important issue?

A

Physician

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5
Q

What is the sequence for scheduling multilpe diagnostic studies?

A
  1. Not requiring contrast
  2. Lab studies for iodine uptake (thyroid)
  3. Radiographic exams for urinary tract
  4. Radiographic exams for biliary tract
  5. Lower GI series
  6. Upper GI series
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6
Q

Who is legally responsible for the care and safety of the patient?

A

Medical doctor

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7
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

Assault

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8
Q

An unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

Battery

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9
Q

When the confidentiality of patient information is not maintained

A

Invasion of privacy

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10
Q

An unjustifiable detention of a person against their will

A

False imprisonment

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11
Q

Is the use of restraints considered false imprisonment?

A

Not when there is a question about patient’s safety. Must be ordered by a physician

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12
Q

Neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution

A

Negligence

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13
Q

An act of negligence in providing reasonable care and caution is defined as:

A

Professional negligence or malpractice

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14
Q

Defamation by written or printed words

A

Libel

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15
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

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16
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a patient

A

Tort

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17
Q

The doing of goodness, kindness or charity, including all actions to benefit others

A

Beneficence

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18
Q

What does “Respondeat superior” mean?

A

“Let the master answer”
An employer can be held liable for the actions of its employees

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19
Q

What does “Res Ispa Loquitur” mean?

A

“The thing speaks for itself”
Requires the defendant to prove his/her innocence

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20
Q

A sensitivity to the needs of others that allows you to meet those needs in a constructive manner

A

Empathy

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21
Q

The 5-step grieving process was formulated by:

A

Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross

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22
Q

What are the 5 steps of grieving:

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

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23
Q

Is it better to push or pull a heavy object?

A

Push

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24
Q

Is it better to push or pull a patient onto a table?

A

Pull

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25
Q

What type of catheter is used for the diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders?

A

Pulmonary Artery Catheter (Swan-Ganz)

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26
Q

Where is the tip of the Swan-Ganz catheter placed?

A

Pulmonary artery

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27
Q

What % of oxygen is delivered using a nasal cannula?

A

21-60%

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28
Q

What is the flow of oxygen when using a nasal cannula?

A

1-6L/min

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29
Q

What level should the IV solution bag be placed?

A

18-24” above the vein

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30
Q

What is used to measure blood pressure

A

Sphygmomanometer

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31
Q

What is used for auscultation or listening to the heart, lungs, or abdominal sounds

A

Stethoscope

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32
Q

What is the normal pulse for adults?

A

60-100 beats per minute

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33
Q

What is the normal pulse for children?

A

90-100 beats per minute

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34
Q

What is the normal pulse for infants?

A

80-120 beats per minute

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35
Q

If a patient is conscious, what artery do you check for a pulse?

A

Radial

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36
Q

If a patient is unconscious, where do you check for a pulse?

A

Carotid artery

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37
Q

What artery is located in the skull that can be used to check for a pulse?

A

Temporal artery

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38
Q

What artery is located in the neck that can be used to check for a pulse?

A

Carotid artery

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39
Q

What artery is located in the upper extremity that can be used to check for a pulse?

A

Radial artery

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40
Q

What artery is located in the groin that can be used to check for a pulse?

A

Femoral artery

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41
Q

What artery is located in the lower extremity that can be used to check for a pulse?

A

Dorsal pedis artery

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42
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Fast heart rate - higher than 100 beats per minute

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43
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Slow heart rate - less than 60 beats per minute

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44
Q

Which blood pressure represents the pressure created during contraction of the left ventricle?

A

Systolic

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45
Q

Which blood pressure represents the pressure within the vascular system with the heart at rest?

A

Diastolic

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46
Q

What is hypertension?

A

High arterial blood pressure

Above 140 systolic
Above 90 diastolic

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47
Q

What is hypotension?

A

Low arterial blood pressure

Below 95 systolic
Below 60 diastolic

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48
Q

What is a normal blood pressure for adults?

A

110-140/60-80

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49
Q

What is a normal blood pressure for children?

A

70-112/26-70

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50
Q

What is normal blood pressure for infants?

A

60-105/22-60

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51
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?

A

12-20 per minute

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52
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for children?

A

30-60 per minute

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53
Q

What is dyspnea? Apnea?

A

Difficult breathing
Not breathing

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54
Q

What is a Bennett’s fracture?

A

Fracture that happens at the base of the first metacarpal

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55
Q

What is an avulsion?

A

Bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament

56
Q

What is a smith’s fracture?

A

Fracture of distal radius - hand will be more forward than forearm

57
Q

What is a colles fracture?

A

Fracture of the distal radius - hand will be behind the forearm

58
Q

What medication is used in the case of anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine

59
Q

What type of bag is used in CPR for ventilation

60
Q

How far down does ET tube go?

A

2” above carina

61
Q

Which side of the bronchus is more vertical?

A

Right side

62
Q

What is the flow of blood through the heart?

A

Right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from IVC and SVC

Flows through tricuspid valve into right ventricle

Flows through pulmonary valve into pulmonary artery to the lungs

After receiving oxygen, blood returns to left atrium via the pulmonary veins

Flows through the biscupid valve into the left ventricle and is pumped into the aorta

63
Q

What is the CPR compression depth for adults?

A

At least 2”

64
Q

What is the CPR compression depth for a child (1-8yr)

A

At least 1/3 of chest diameter or about 2”

65
Q

What is the CPR compression depth for an infant?

A

At least 1/3 of chest diameter or about 1.5”

66
Q

What is the compression rate for CPR?

A

100-120/min

67
Q

What is the CPR breathing rate for an adult?

A

10-12 breaths/min or every 5-6 seconds

68
Q

What is the CPR breathing rate for a child (1-8 yr)

A

Every 2-3 seconds

69
Q

What is the CPR breathing rate for an infant?

A

Every 2-3 seconds

70
Q

What is the compression to ventilation ratio for adults?

71
Q

What is the compression to ventilation ratio for a child and infants?

A

30:2 for one rescuer
15:2 for two rescuers

72
Q

Where should you check for a pulse in a child (1-8 yr)?

A

Cartoid or femoral

73
Q

Where should you check for a pulse in an infant?

74
Q

What does RACE-PASS stand for in the event of a fire?

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

75
Q

What technique deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual?

A

Medical asepsis

76
Q

What technique is the complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures

A

Surgical asepsis

77
Q

Technique used for procedures that involve catheterization of the bladder, tracheostomy care, dressing changes, and penetration of the skin

78
Q

Microorganism capable of producing disease

79
Q

An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)

80
Q

Transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of a fomite that touches a person’s body or is ingested

81
Q

Typically an arthropod (mosquito, tick, flea)

82
Q

Hospital inquired infection

A

Nosocomial infection

83
Q

Physician caused the infection

A

Iatrogenic infection

84
Q

Unknown infection cause

A

Idiopathic infection

85
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host

86
Q

Aseptic technique is designed to prevent that occurance of:

A

Nosocomial infections

87
Q

How many seconds should you wash your hands according to the CDC?

A

20 seconds

87
Q

When scrubbing for a sterile procedure, the hand washing time requirement is

88
Q

What is the ratio of bleach to water when mixed together as a disinfectant?

89
Q

What are precautions used for contact based transmissions?

A

Gloves, gown, and restricted patient placement

90
Q

What are precautions used for droplet based transmissions?

A

Particulate mask and restricated patient placement

91
Q

What are precautions used for airborne transmissions?

A

Respiratory protection and negative ventilation

92
Q

When is reverse isolation (neutropenic precautions) used?

A

HIV positive patients, chemotherapy and burn patients

93
Q

When are strict precautions used?

A

When a patient has a disease that is transported through airborne or contact routes

94
Q

What are the roles for clean tech/dirty tech?

A

Clean tech manages the equipment and IR

Dirty tech contacts the patient and the linens

95
Q

How often should a patient’s blood pressure be measured when giving contrast through an IV?

A

Before, frequent intervals, and prior to patient leaving

96
Q

What is a bolus injection (IV push)?

A

Large volume of contrast or drug is rapidly administered into an exisiting IV line

97
Q

What is an IV drip?

A

Contrast administered by gravity

98
Q

What is the difference between ampule and vial?

A

Ampule - single dose of medication

Vial - multiple doses

99
Q

What is the most common contrast agent in radiology?

100
Q

Negative contrast results in a/an __________ in radiographic density of the image of the parts filled with negative contrast

101
Q

Positive contrast results in a/an __________ in radiographic density of the image of the parts filled with negative contrast

102
Q

What is viscosity?

A

Related to the thickness of the contrast

103
Q

What is the kVp for single contrast studies?

104
Q

What is the kVp for double contrast studies?

105
Q

Normal Creatinine values

A

.7-1.3 mg/dL

106
Q

Normal BUN values

A

8-25 mg/dL

107
Q

Normal GFR rate

A

90-120 mL/min

108
Q

What is the estimated GFR used for?

A

Best test to measure kidney function and determine the stage of kidney disease

109
Q

How is the estimated GFR caclulated?

A

Resultes from creatinine test, body size, age, and gender

110
Q

A general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by-products of metabolism

111
Q

Type of shock that results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns

A

Hypovolemic shock

112
Q

Type of shock that results from massive infection

113
Q

Type of shock that results from head or spinal trauma resulting in a failure of arterial resistance

A

Neurogenic shock

114
Q

Type of shock that results from cardiac failure

A

Cardiogenic

115
Q

Type of shock that results from being injected with a foreign protein, bee sting, or iodinated media

A

Anaphylaxis (allergic)

116
Q

Symptoms of anaphylaxis

A

Increase in pulse rate
Hypotension
Itching, flushing, SOB
Hives (urticartia)

117
Q

Which reactions are mild/moderate/severe?

Extravasation
Vasovagal response
Very low blood pressure
Laryngeal edema
Tachycardia
Excessive vommitting

A

Extravasation - mild
Vasovagal response - mild
Very low blood pressure - severse
Laryngeal edema - severe
Tachycardia - moderate
Excessive vommitting - moderate

118
Q

When should Benedryl be used?

A

Allergic reaction

119
Q

When should Decadron be used?

A

Allergic reaction

120
Q

When should Dilantin be used?

121
Q

When should Lasix be used?

122
Q

When should Epinephrine be used?

A

Cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis

123
Q

When should Cathartics be used?

124
Q

When should Nitroglycerine be used?

A

Angina (chest pain)

125
Q

When should Glucagon be used?

A

Spasmatic colon

126
Q

When should Heparin/Warfarin/Coumdin be used?

A

Anticoagulant

127
Q

When should Insulin/Metformin/Glucophage be used?

A

Hyperglycemia

128
Q

What position should you put a patinet in for orthostatic hypotension?

A

Trendelenburg

129
Q

What is hyperglycemia? What are the symptoms?

A

High blood sugar
Flushed, dry skin, fruity smelling breath, exceccive thirst and urination

130
Q

What is hypoglycemia? What are the symptoms?

A

Low blood sugar
Sweaty, clammy, cold skin, nervousness, blurred vision

131
Q

What is the technologist’s primary resonsibility if a patient is having a seizure?

A

Keep the patient safe

132
Q

How to determine if bleeding is from artery or vein?

A

Artery - strong pulsating volume of blood exisiting

Vein - Lower volume with less forcful pulsing

133
Q

How to stop arterial bleeding?

A

Apply compression directly to the site or proximally

134
Q

How to stop venous bleeding?

A

Apply compression directly to the site or distally

135
Q

In CR, the response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photons is to release

A

Light photons

136
Q

List 3 patient populations that should be identified as high priority patients

A
  1. Emergency
  2. Fasting
  3. Pediatric and geriatric