Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DERM > PATHOPHYS > Flashcards

PATHOPHYS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

what is the major UVB chromophore in the skin?

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 main things that can happen when sunlight hits the skin?

A
  • some reflected
  • some absorbed in epidermis & dermis by DNA, proteins and other substances
  • some penetrates deeper into tissues and is dissipated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which spectrum of light causes an immediate tanning response?

A

UVA and visible light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which spectrum of light causes a delayed tanning response?

A

UVB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are solar lentigenes?

A

age spots (from photodamage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can sundamage cause immunosuppression?

A
  • lymphocytes and Langerhans cells are sensitive to UV induced DNA damage
  • langerhans cells disappear from skin following sun exposure strong enough to cause a mild sunburn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 2 most common causes of death in xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

metastatic skin cancer and neurologic degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which diseases are treated with UV light?

A

psoriasis
cutaneous lymphoma
eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tanning beds mostly emit which type of UV light?

A

UVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which type of tan provides more protection against a sunburn UVA or UVB?

A

UVA induced tans provide 10 times less protection than UVB tans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the risk of skin cancer increases by ____________% in individuals who start using tanning beds before 30.

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the mechanism behind a delayed tanning response?

A

increased melanin synthesis and increased transfer of melanosomes to keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the 2 common DNA photoproducts from UV damage

A

cyclobutane dimers

6,4 photoproducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 2 signature mutations induced by UV light?

A

C–>T

CC–>TT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which skin cancer has a corrlation with mutation in PTCH gene?

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the pathology:

pearly, nodular, shiny, centrally ulcerated and studded w/ telangiectasias on gross appearance.

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the micropathology:
basophillic hyperchromatic cells that form nodules, often etending from the surface epidermis
-cells at the periphery of aggregations form a palisade
-tumor nodules are set in a mucinous stroma, w/ retraction from that stroma (clefting)

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are 3 major risks for getting squamous cell cancer of the skin?

A

UV light
HPV
immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the risk factors for the ability of a squamous cell carcinoma in skin to metastasize?

A

size of tumor (larger than 2 cm clinically greater risk)
depth of invasion into dermis (greater than 4 mm depth, greater risk)
anatomic site (higher risk on lips and ears)
host immune status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the most common cause of death in melanoma of the skin?

A

CNS involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most important prognostic factor for melanoma of skin?

A

lymph node involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the histologic prognostic factors of melanoma?

A

breslow thickness & ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a keratoacanthoma?

A

neoplasm of KCs, related to SCC (possibly subtype), grows 2-6 wks

  • painful
  • may involute spontaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is Marjolin’s ulcer?

A

ulcerated invasive SCC arising on the background of chronic inflamm. scarring, radiation, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the most common type of malignant melanoma in pts with darker skin?

A

acral lentiginous melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a lentigo maligna?

A

melanoma in situ, slow growing still in radial growth phase (seen in older pts w/ sun-exposed skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

melanocytes are derived from what kinds of cells?

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

where is the most common site for melanocytes to develop into melanoma?

A

dermal-epidermal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the #1 organ site for metastasis in melanoma?

A

SKIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is breslow’s thickness?

A

distance of involvement from the stratum granulosum to the deepest tumor cell (used for melanoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

about what percent of melanomas have BRAF mutations?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the name of the bug that causes american trypanosomiasis (chagas diseae)?

A

T. cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the name of the bug that causes african trypanosomiasis?

A

T. brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is T. cruzi (chagas disease) transmitted?

A

REDUVIID BUGS !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is romana sign?

A

seen in american trypanosomiasis-edema of the palpebral and periocular tissue due to entry through the conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which trypanosomiasis causes trypanosome chancre?

A

african trypanosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the other name for onchocerciasis?

A

river blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which derm infection can you prevent by not going to Belize?

A

human botfly (cutaneous myiasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The cimicids (bedbugs) have what characteristic finding on the skin?

A

bites come in 3’s (BREAKFAST, LUNCH AND DINNER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which type of hair is in the growing phase cycle?

A

anagen hair (1-5 yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which type of hair is in the resting phase cycle?

A

telogen hair (3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what should you do when you see pattern alopecia with male pattern distribution in a female pt?

A

check DHEAS and testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the ultimate result of minoxidil treatment?

A

reverses hair loss and slows the progression of hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

who would be the ideal pt where minoxidil would work the best?

A

young guys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is androgentic alopecia?

A

common baldness (gradual miniaturization of hairs w/ transformation of large terminal follicles (visible) to small vellus follicles (invisible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the main adverse effect you have to remember with finasteride?

A

the sexual side effects could last even if you stop taking the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is telogen effluvium?

A

an excess shed of telogen hair occurs due to a premature shunting of anagen to telogen
-results in increased shedding of 20-35% of total scalp hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

about how many hairs from the scalp are shed each day?

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is anagen effluvium?

A

acute, extreme alteration of growth of majority of anagen hair
-acute loss of 80-90% of scalp hair (b/c anagen hair makes up a greater %)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is alopecia areata?

A

circular area of complete hairloss on a normal scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Secondary syphilis has what clinical appearance?

A

moth-eaten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the test for secondary syphilis?

A

RPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

will the hair grow back if you treat the secondary syphilis?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the 3 labs you need to get to exclude other causes of hair loss other than secondary syphilis?

A

CBC (anemia)
Ferritin (normal CBC and low ferritin, treat w/ iron and get regrowth of hair)
TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How can you clinically determine if the hair loss is due to traction alopecia?

A

look for the peripheral fringe and broken hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the proximal matrix makes the ________nail plate

A

dorsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the distal matrix makes the ______________ nail plate

A

ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

fingernails grow about how much each month?

A

Fingernails-3 mm/month

Toenails-1 mm/month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

lichen planus is associated with which disorder that has abnormal nail matrix function?

A

trachyonychia (sandpaper nails)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which disorder of abnormal nail matrix function has mees’ lines?

A

true leukonychia

w/ transverse white bands that have been traditionally associated with arsenic and thallium toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mees’ lines are associated with what abnormal nail matrix function and are associated with what kind of toxicity?

A

true leukonychia

Arsenic and thallium toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

chronic paronychia is most commonly due to what?

A

candida infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

recurrent episodes of acute paronychia should raise concern for what kind of infection?

A

HSV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

which type of onychomycosis is associated with immunosuppression/HIV?

A

proximal subungual (PSO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the most frequent tumor of the nail apparatus?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the main causative role of squamous cell carcinoma when it involves the nail apparatus?

A

HPV16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hutchison’s sign is found in what nail pathology?

A

melanoma

hutchison’s sign =extension of pigment onto the nail folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How can you tell if a certain rash come from the outside?

A

outside origin= scaley red thickened skin, straight lines, geometric shapes, spares folds

69
Q

how can you tell if a rash has an internal origin?

A

flat, doesn’t spare folds, no straight lines, no sharp cutoffs

70
Q

what kinds of things can cause an internally originating rash?

A

drugs
Rocky mountain spotted fever
meningococcemia
hepatitis

71
Q

what kinds of things cause an external origin rash?

A

contact dermatitis

72
Q

describe what older skin on sun exposed area looks like?

A

thinner, dryer, scaley, bruises more easily

73
Q

Name the pathology:
very common benign lesion that’s tan w/ pigmented waxey plaques, looks like someone threw mud against a wall (stuck on appearance)

A

seborrheic keratosis

74
Q

Name the lesion: benign red papules and nodules made up of blood vessels

A

cherry angiomas

75
Q

name the lesion:

dome shaped nodule usually with a hyperpigmented border, feels like a BB under the skin

A

dermatofibroma

76
Q

name the lesion:

large blue vascular lesion on the lower lip, compressible, benign

A

venous lake

77
Q

name the lesion: keratotic horn shaped projection produced by multiple causes such as warts, seborrheic keratoses, and squamous cell carcinoma, must biopsy base for diagnosis

A

cutaneous horn

78
Q

name the pathology:
due to lower leg swelling the lower leg is scaley and red, diagnose pitting edema, progression from scaley red to erosionsto ulcers if no treatment

A

stasis dermatitis

79
Q

term for flat discolored spot on skin not raised above the surface

A

macular

80
Q

term for a small blister that contains serous fluid

A

vesicle

81
Q

term for a pus filled blister

A

pustule

82
Q

term for a large bump greater than 4mm

A

nodule

83
Q

term for a small bump less than 4 mm

A

papule

84
Q

term for a well defined elevated are of skin

A

plaque

85
Q

Name the pathology:

scaley red macules, papules or plaques commonl seen on the elbows and knees

A

psoriasis

86
Q

name the pathology:

red scaley rash found on posterior neck, popliteal and antecubital fossae

A

atopic dermatitis

87
Q

name the pathology:
multiple scaley red oval plaques commonly begins with a single lesion (herald patch) and then days to wks later multiple lesion develop, lesions are in cleavage lines and have a christmas tree distribution?

A

pityriasis rosea

88
Q

Name the pathology:

scaley rough lesions on long term sun exposed skin (1/1000 turn into squamous cell carcinoma)

A

actinic keratosis

89
Q

Name the pathology:

round pearly lesions with telangiectasias due to long term sun exposure spreads wide and deep but rare to metastasize

A

basal cell carcinoma

90
Q

Name the pathology:

keratotic nodule with firm base which usually begins as an actinic keratosis and becomes a neoplasm.

A

squamous cell carcinoma

91
Q

what are the ABCDs of melanoma?

A

asymmetry
borders (irregular)
color (variations)
diameter (greater than 6 mm)

92
Q

what do you do if a pt comes in and says that their mole has changed?

A

take it off

93
Q

increased educational status correlates with increased risk of developing what?

A

melanoma

94
Q

what are the clues that let you know a rash is getting better?

A

redness (if redness decreases)
Desquamation (skin peels off)
Wrinkling (swelling and inflammation have gone down)

95
Q

always examine a pt with their clothes _______

A

OFF

96
Q

what would a biopsy of an outside origin rash look like?

A

abnormal stratum corneum, inflamm. cells, in the epidermis and sometimes blister, clinically looks like red scaley skin + blister

97
Q

what would a biopsy of an internal origin rash look like?

A

scattered inflammatory cells in the dermis, clinically this looks red, the epidermis is unaffected clinically flat and smooth

98
Q

which rash presents in a classic dermatome pattern?

A

herpes zoster

99
Q

Name the pathology:

group of blisters on a red base

A

herpes

100
Q

if you have a pt who comes in with lesions on their palms and soles you should start thinking about what?

A

secondary syphilis

101
Q

term for a special group of exotoxins that bind conserved portions of T cell receptors and are able to activate a large number of T lymphocytes.

A

superantigens

102
Q

which 2 microbes classically make the superantigens?

A

Staph aureus & Strep pyogenes

103
Q

Term for a superficial crusting epidermal skin infection that presents in bullous and nonbullous forms. Often has a honey crusted coating

A

impetigo

104
Q

when you see a young honey colored crusting epidermal skin infection on a kid’s face you know he has what?

A

impetigo

105
Q

term that describes the superficial infection of hair follicles with pus accumulation in the epidermis.

A

folliculitis

106
Q

term for the streptococcal infection of the superficial dermal lymphatics that demonstrates sharply demarcated, raised borders.

A

erysipelas

107
Q

term for fungi that digest keratin as their nutrient source?

A

dermatophytes

108
Q

95% of tinea pedis cases are caused by ___________

A

dermatophytes

109
Q

jock itch is caused by what?

A

tinea cruris

110
Q

ring worm is caused by what?

A

tinea corporis

tinea facei

111
Q

candidiasis is more common in which pts?

A

women (accounting for vulvovaginal candidisis, and in immunosuppressed pts)

112
Q

Most common form is herpes infection is________________ presents as vesicular or ulcerative lesions of the oral cavity or perioral skin and mucosa (HSV-1)

A

herpes labialis

113
Q

term for HSV superinfection of atopic dermatitis

A

eczema herpeticum

114
Q

Name the lesion: painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on the border of the lip.

A

HSV-1 herpes labialis

115
Q

name the pathogen: “dew drops on a rose pedal”

A

varicella chickenpox

116
Q

name the pathology:

produces a painful prodrome, followed by a dermatomal vesicular eruption

A

zoster rash (varicella zoster virus) aka shingles

117
Q

Name the pathogen:

multinucleated acantholytic keratinocyte under histopathology

A

herpetic viral infection

118
Q

name the pathology:

pearly white umbilicated papules in a child

A

molluscum contagiosum (caused by DNA pox virus)

119
Q

90% of genital warts are caused by what 2 viruses?

A

HPV6 & HPV11

120
Q

which 2 viruses are strongly associated with cervical cancer?

A

HPV16 & HPV18

121
Q

Gardasil covers which HPV types?

A

6, 11, 16, 18

122
Q

Cervarix covers which HPV types?

A

16, 18 (cervical cancer)

123
Q

defects in the development of the ectoderm lead to what?

A

ectodermal dysplasia

124
Q

ichythosis vulgaris is due to what kind of mutation?

A

filaggrin

125
Q

what embryonic tissue forms the epidermis?

A

only the ectoderm

126
Q

what embryonic tissue forms the dermis?

A

ectoderm and mesoderm

127
Q

what is stasis dermatitis?

A

due to venous insufficiency and edema (can result in venous ulcers)

128
Q

what are the 2 most important treatments of stasis dermatitis?

A

ELEVATION & COMPRESSION

129
Q

Is there a vaccine for ParvoB19?

A

“NO VACCINE FOR PARVOB19”

130
Q

what is the cause of hand-foot-mouth disease?

A

coxsackie virus

131
Q

If you see a pt with eczema herpeticum in the derm clinic what do you need to do?

A

SEND THEM TO THE ER!

132
Q

superficial fungal infections only hit what kind of tissue?

A

dead keratinous tissue

133
Q

what is a histologic clue that there is a superficial fungal infection?

A

neutrophils in the stratum corneum

134
Q

Name the pathogen:

vacuolated superficial keratinocytes w/ pyknotic raisin-like nuclei (koilocytes)

A

HPV

135
Q

name the pathogen: multinucleated keratinocytes

A

herpes viruses

136
Q

name the pathology: sunburn-like erythema and sandpaper papules

A

TSS

137
Q

which virus causes immunosuppression by infecting lots of monocytes?

A

measles

138
Q

albinism is due to a lack of what?

A

melanin

139
Q

what is the follicular occlusion tetrad?

A
  1. acne conglobata
  2. Hidradenitis suppurativa
  3. Dissecting Cellulitis
  4. pilonidal cyst
140
Q

Pellagra is caused by what kind of deficiency?

A

niacin

141
Q

what are the 3 D’s of pellagra?

A

Dementia
Dermatitis
Diarrhea

142
Q

hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is dysfunction in thermoregulation with a mutation in what gene?

A

EDAR-ectodyplasin A receptor

  • unable to regulate temp.
  • results in abnormal hair follicles, sweat lands and teeth
143
Q

stratum corneum compared to brick and mortar, what are the bricks and whats the mortar?

A

bricks=flattened keratinocytes filled w/ keratin & filaggrin

mortar=lipid mixture surrounding keratinocytes (water barrier)

144
Q

the keratins combine to form ______________filaments

A

intermediate

145
Q

what is the primary cell in the dermis?

A

fibroblast

146
Q

fibroblasts have what kind of origin?

A

mesenchymal

147
Q

what are apocrine sweat glands?

A

sweat glands that are associated with a hair follicle (found in axilla and anogenital skin)

148
Q

what are eccrine sweat glands?

A

sweat glands not associated hair follicle (all over body)

149
Q

what are sunburn cells?

A

damaged keratinocytes that are undergoing apoptosis

150
Q

what happens if you fail to delete the cells damaged by the sun?

A

could cause cancer

151
Q

In what layer of the epidermis is profilaggrin processed into filaggrin?

A

stratum corneum

152
Q

atopic dermatitis is assoicated with genetic defects in what gene?

A

filaggrin

153
Q

what is a nevus?

A

aka mole, benign collection of melanocytes

154
Q

what are some of the histological changes with sunburn?

A 
damaged keratinocytes (sunburn cells
inflamm.
intercellular edema
perivascular edema
hyperkeratosis, acanthosis (after 72 hours)
155
Q

what is chronologic aging?

A

smooth, pale finely wrinkled skin with benign growths

156
Q

what is photoaging?

A

dry deeply wrinkled inelastic leathery atrophic, telangiectasias, irregular pigmentation

157
Q

what another name for freckles?

A

ephelides

158
Q

how do melanomas metastasize?

A

lymphatics

159
Q

onycholysis (distal nail plate detachment from the nail bed) is commonly to due what 2 things?

A

PSORIASIS

or onychomycosis

160
Q

splinter hemorrhages in the nail bed are most commonly associated with what?

A

bacterial endocarditis

161
Q

What is the prognosis of erythema toxicum neonatorum?

A

benign, up to 50% of infants, resolves spontaneously

162
Q

when do keratinocytes present antigen?

A

when they are stimulated

163
Q

pemphigus vulgaris often starts with ____________________

A

mucosal erosions (more likely to see erosions rather than blisters)

164
Q

what is the prognosis for untreated pemphigus vulgaris?

A

high mortality (30-70%)

165
Q

pemphis vulgars has autoantibodies against which antigen?

A

desmoglein 3 (PVDG3)

166
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of bullous pemphigoid?

A

fairly sudden onset of very itchy wheals and tense blisters on trunk and extremities (mouth and oral mucosa affected in some)

167
Q

which drug can cause bullous pemphigoid?

A

furosemide

168
Q

In bullous pemphigoid there are autoantibodies against which antigens?

A

BPAg1

BPAg2

DERM (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions