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NBDE Part II > Pathology - Full Review > Flashcards

Pathology - Full Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “Rule of 10s” when regarding tx of cleft lip?

A

Child should ideally be 10 weeks old, weigh 10 lbs, and have 10 g hemoglobin before treating cleft lip

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2
Q

Which is most common? Cleft lip alone, cleft palate alone, or both together.

A

Both CL and CP together is most common (45% incidence)

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3
Q

What is the minimum manifestation when palatal shelves fail to fuse?

A

Bifid Uvula

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4
Q

Cleft palate, mandibular micrognathia, and glossoptosis all together characterize what syndrome?

A

Pierre Robin Sequence

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5
Q

Which population gets orofacial clefts most commonly?

A

Native Americans

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6
Q

Paramedian lip pits are classic manifestations of what syndrome?

A

Van der Woude Syndrome

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7
Q

What are ectopic sebaceous glands? Appear as yellow-ish papular lesions on buccal/labial mucosa

A

Fordyce Granules

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8
Q

What happens if epithelium is left behind along the path the thyroid takes from foramen cecum to the neck?

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

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9
Q

Fissured tongue is frequently seen with what other pathology?

A

Geographic tongue

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10
Q

Hairy tongue is keratin accumulating on what type of papillae?

A

Filiform papilla

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11
Q

The mandible will deviate to which side with coronoid hyperplasia?

A

toward the affected side

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12
Q

The mandible will deviate toward which side with condylar hyperplasia?

A

toward opposite side

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13
Q

A common exostosis occurring on the midline of the palate?

A

Torus Palatinus

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14
Q

A focal concavity of the cortical bone in the lingual surface of the mandible?

A

Stafne Defect (aka Lingual mandibular salivary gland depression)

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15
Q

The most common non-odontogenic cyst in the oral cavity? (hint: 6mm or greater is pathologic)

A

Nasopalatine Duct Cyst

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16
Q

The most common yellow pathology/finding in the mouth

A

Lymphoepithelial cyst (most common around FOM, waldeyer’s ring, ventral tongue, soft palate)

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17
Q

What syndrome demonstrates “beaten metal” pattern on a cephalometric x-ray?

A

Crouzon Syndrome

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18
Q

How does turner’s hyperplasia occur?

A

A periapical inflammatory disease of the overlying deciduous tooth

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19
Q

What is hutchinson’s triad and what disease is it associated with?

A

Triad = Hutchinson’s teeth, interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness
Associated with Congenital Syphilis

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20
Q

Most common teeth to be congenitally missing?

A

3rd molars, 2nd premolars, upper lateral incisors

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21
Q

Most common supernumerary tooth to see?

A

mesiodens

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22
Q

A pt has a funky looking tooth. You count all the teeth, including the anomalous tooth, and the count is normal. What your diagnosis?

A

Gemination

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23
Q

A pt has a funky looking tooth. You count all the teeth, including the anomalous tooth, and the count is one short. What your diagnosis?

A

Fusion

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24
Q

Pt has fine, wispy hair, lacks sweat glands, has xerostomia, and conical shaped teeth - what’s your diagnosis?

A

Hypohidrotic Ectodermal Dysplasia

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25
Q

Taurodontism can be seen associated with what three syndromes?

A

Kleinfelter’s Syndrome (XXY), Amelogenesis Imperfecta, Tricho-Dento-Osseous Syndrome

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26
Q

What type of amelogenesis imperfecta has “snow-capped” teeth?

A

Hypomaturation

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27
Q

Diagnose. Pt’s x-ray shows bulbous crowns because the roots are so thin.

A

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta (can also be Dentin Dysplasia Type II)

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28
Q

Rootless teeth is characteristic of what autosomal dominant disease?

A

Dentin Dysplasia Type I

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29
Q

Thistle tube-shaped pulpal anatomy is characteristic of what autosomal dominant disease?

A

Dentin Dysplasia Type II

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30
Q

“Ghost teeth” (not very opaque on x-ray) demonstrates what pathology?

A

Regional Odontodysplasia

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31
Q

Rapid swelling of the sublingual, submandibular, and submental spaces due to an abscessed mandibular molar, is called what?

A

Ludwig’s Angina

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32
Q

Swelling along the lateral border of the nose due to an abscessed maxillary anterior/premolar tooth, is called what?

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

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33
Q

“Punched-out” papillae is a sign for what periodontal pathology?

A

NUG

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34
Q

Differential for desquamative gingivitis.

A

Lichen planus, mucous membrane pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, SLE, hypersensitivity rxn

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35
Q

Drug-related gingival hyperplasia can be associated with what drugs?

A

Cyclosporin, Phenytoin, Ca channel blockers (amlodipine often seen in SOD clinic)

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36
Q

Teeth seen as “floating in air” due to accelerated periodontitis might be a sign of what syndrome?

A

Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

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37
Q

Strawberry tongue is a sign of what sickness?

A

Scarlet fever (white during first 2 days of infection, red later on)

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38
Q

Pt currently has glossitis and reports they used to have a chancre elsewhere on the body. What’s your dx? (hint: sexually transmitted)

A

Syphilis

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39
Q

Sulphur granules exhibited within a yellow discharge represents what pathology?

A

Actinomycosis

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40
Q

Young pt has a scratch near their eye and swelling around the eye. Dx?

A

Cat-Scratch disease (caused by Bartonella henselae)

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41
Q

Pt presents with adherent, but wipeable, white plaques resembling cottage cheese. What’s your initial diagnosis?

A

Pseudomembranous Candidiasis

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42
Q

median rhomboid glossitis, angular cheilitis, and denture stomatitis are all examples of _____________ candidiasis.

A

Erythematous candidiasis

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43
Q

Most common site for HSV-1 infection?

A

Vermillion border - called Herpes Labialis

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44
Q

Multinucleation, ballooning degeneration of nucleus and tzanck cells are all histopathologic features of what?

A

HSV

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45
Q

What is HHV-3? And what does it cause?

A

Varicella-Zoster virus - causes chickenpox and shingles

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46
Q

Herpetic lesions appearing unilaterally in a well-demarcated area. Dx?

A

Shingles

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47
Q

What is HHV-4? What does it cause?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis (EBV) - causes mono, hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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48
Q

What is HHV-5? What does it cause?

A

Cytomegalovirus - causes mucosal ulcerations seen in AIDS patients

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49
Q

What is HHV-8? What does it cause?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma Herpesvirus - causes Kaposi’s sarcoma on hard palate or gingiva in HIV+ patients

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50
Q

Pt has red macules/vesicles on soft palate, a sore throat, fever, and dysphagia. Dx?

A

Herpangina

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51
Q

Pt has swollen salivary glands and it hurts upon salivation. Dx?

A

Epidemic Parotitis (mumps)

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52
Q

Oral manifestations of HIV/AIDs?

A

candidiasis, oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV), kaposi’s sarcoma, non-hodgkin’s lymphoma, periodontitis

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53
Q

What appears as bilateral thickened, shredded white areas on buccal mucosa (hint: along occlusal plane)

A

Morsicatio Buccarum

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54
Q

Aspirin, bisphosphonates, chlorpromazine, or promazine held in the mouth to dissolve might cause what?

A

Chemical-related Mucosal Necrosis

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55
Q

95% of BRONJ occurs in patients who have received ____________ delivery of bisphosphonates.

A

Intravenous delivery

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56
Q

What is your tx plan modification for a pt taking IV bisphosphonates?

A

Avoid bone manipulation

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57
Q

Pigmentation is seen on anterior facial gingiva in a patient that smokes. Dx?

A

Smoker’s Melanosis

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58
Q

Dome-shaped, slightly radiopaque lesion(s) arising from the intact floor of the maxillary sinus.

A

Antral Pseudocyst

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59
Q

Cervicofacial Emphysema can be caused by what?

A

Introduction of air into subcutaneous or fascial spaces, possibly by using an air-driven handpiece during oral surgery

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60
Q

One or two fungiform papillae on the tongue are swollen and painful. Dx?

A

Localized Transient Lingual Papillitis

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61
Q

What painful, non-vesicular lesion is commonly seen on movable mucosa?

A

Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

62
Q

Joint pain, aphthous lesions, genital ulcers, and ocular involvement are characteristics of what syndrome?

A

Behcet’s Syndrome

63
Q

What is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause, and seen more commonly in African Americans?

A

Sarcoidosis

64
Q

Cheilitis granulomatosa, facial paralysis, and fissured tongue when seen together are characteristic of what syndrome?

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome

65
Q

Strawberry gingivitis is an early manifestation of what granulomatous disease?

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

66
Q

Mast cell degranulation leads to histamine release, and is mediated by what immunoglobulin?

A

IgE hypersensitivity reactions

67
Q

Differential diagnosis when you see a papillary-like surface lesion in the mouth?

A
  1. squamous papilloma
  2. verruca vulgaris (wart)
  3. condyloma acuminatum (sexual transmission)
  4. verruciform xanthoma
68
Q

verruca vulgaris is caused by what?

A

Herpes type 2, 4, 6 or 40

69
Q

Condyloma acuminatum (considered an STD) is caused by what?

A

HPV-6 or 11 most commonly (also 16, 18 and 31)

70
Q

What brown lesion becomes more pronounced with sun exposure?

A

Ephelis (aka freckle)

71
Q

What brown lesion doesn’t become more pronounced with sun exposure?

A

Actinic Lentigo

72
Q

What is a freckle called when inside the mouth?

A

Oral Melanotic Macule

73
Q

Usually seen more in African American females, what pigmentation occurs on oral mucosa due to irritation?

A

Oral Melanoacanthoma

74
Q

Order the types of leukoplakia ranked from highest to lowest chance to be pre-cancerous.

A
  1. Erythroleukoplakia (highest chance of cancer)
  2. Leukoplakia
  3. Erythroplakia (lowest chance)
75
Q

Name a white keratotic change on the palate associated with smoking.

A

Nicotine Stomatitis

76
Q

Name a common premalignant lesion caused by cumulative UV radiation exposure over a person’s lifetime.

A

Actinic Keratosis

77
Q

What do you call it when the lower lip becomes atrophied, smooth and blotchy from long-term UV exposure?

A

Actinic Cheilosis

78
Q

Most common sites for oral SCCA?

A
  1. Posterior lateral tongue
  2. ventral tongue
  3. FOM
  4. soft palate
  5. gingiva
79
Q

Snuff dipper’s cancer is also called what?

A

Verrucous carcinoma

80
Q

The first sign of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is what?

A

cervical lymph node metastases

81
Q

Lesion is found during an H&N exam, and it demonstrates rolled borders and telangiectatic blood vessels. Dx?

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

82
Q

What causes basal cell carcinoma?

A

UV exposure and frequent sunburns

83
Q

What increases risk for melanoma?

A

fair complexion, light hair, a tendency to sunburn easily, acute sun exposure

84
Q

What is the ABCDE system used to describe clinical features of melanoma?

A 
Asymmetry
Border irregularity
Color variation
Diameter greater than 6mm
Evolving lesions (it changes appearance)
85
Q

Where are mucoceles most often seen?

A
  1. lower lip
  2. FOM (called a ranula)
  3. anterior tongue
  4. buccal mucosa
86
Q

An epithelium-lined cavity that arises from salivary gland tissue and can occur in minor or major glands.

A

Salivary duct cyst

87
Q

Sialoliths are most common where?

A

Submandibular gland duct

88
Q

Locally destructive inflammatory condition of the salivary glands on the palate, usually associated with dental injections

A

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia

89
Q

What gland is likely to have a malignant tumor?

A

Sublingual

90
Q

Minor salivary gland tumors are more likely to be malignant if it’s in these locations:

A

lower lip, tongue, retromolar pad

91
Q

What is the most common benign salivary gland neoplasm?

A

Pleomorphic Adenoma

92
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm?

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

93
Q

What is the most common “tumor” in the oral cavity? (hint: caused by trauma/irritation)

A

Fibroma

94
Q

You find two giant cell fibromas lingual to the mandibular anterior teeth. What is this called?

A

Retrocuspid Papilla

95
Q

______ _________ (aka ___________ ________ _______) is associated with the flange of an ill-fitting denture.

A

Epulis Fissuratum (aka Inflammatory Fibrous Hyperplasia)

96
Q

Reactive tissue growth on the palate under an ill-fitting denture

A

Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia

97
Q

A bright red nodule on the gingiva, and seen commonly in pregnant women.

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

98
Q

A purple nodule on gingiva that might cause cupping resorption of underlying alveolar bone.

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

99
Q

A pale-colored nodule on the anterior gingiva.

A

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

100
Q

Your differential for a bump on the gums:

A
  1. Pyogenic Granuloma
  2. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
  3. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
  4. Fibroma
101
Q

Any patient with a neurofibroma should be evaluated for _____________.

A

neurofibromatosis

102
Q

Coast of California café au lait macules, neurofibromas, Crowe’s sign, and Lisch nodules together all represent what disease?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type I

103
Q

What kind of hemangioma blanches during dioscopy?

A

Cavernous hemangiomas

104
Q

A person born with a vascular malformation called Port Wine Stain has what developmental condition?

A

Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis

105
Q

A person with petechiae, ecchymosis, or hematomas may be exhibiting what disorder?

A

Thrombocytopenia

106
Q

What kind of leukemia is caused by the Philadelphia Chromosome?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

107
Q

“Punched-out radiolucencies in the skull represents what two pathologies?

A
  1. Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (also see floating teeth)

2. Multiple Myeloma (also see Bence Jones proteins in urine)

108
Q

Reed-Sternberg Cells are seen in what hematologic malignancy?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

109
Q

Blue sclera and Wormian bones in the skull demonstrate what inherited bone disease?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

110
Q

Prolonged eruption of deciduous teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, and numerous supernumerary teeth characterize what disease?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

111
Q

A unilocular RL lesion in posterior mandible on women that is NOT associated with a tooth or symptoms.

A

Focal osteoporotic marrow defect

112
Q

Increased radiodensity of unknown cause

A

Idiopathic osteosclerosis

113
Q

radiodensity associated with pulpal inflammation

A

condensing osteitis

114
Q

radiodensity with a RL rim associated with the apex of multiple anterior teeth or one posterior tooth.

A

Cemento-osseous dysplasia

115
Q

radiodensity associated with the root of a tooth and the PDL is obscured.

A

Cementoblastoma

116
Q

Pt complains their hats don’t fit anymore and that their upper teeth have gaps between them

A

Paget’s disease of bone

117
Q

Patchy slcerotic areas of the maxilla have cotton wool or cotton roll appearance.

A

Paget’s Disease

118
Q

A RL most common in the anterior mandible and crosses the midline, and appears identical to Brown Tumor of Hyperparathyroidism.

A

Central Giant Cell Granuloma

119
Q

An empty or fluid-filled cavity within the mandible that shows domelike projections that scallop between the roots of several teeth.

A

Traumatic Bone Cyst

120
Q

Upon panoramic x-ray, there is ballooning distention. Upon biopsy, the surgeon says it looked like a blood-soaked sponge.

A

Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

121
Q

On the radiograph, it looks like fine ground glass opacification.

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

122
Q

What two syndromes are associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?

A
  1. Jaffe-Lichtenstein Syndrome
  2. McCune-Albright Syndrome
    * coast of Maine café au lait spots in both*
123
Q

Cemento-osseous dysplasia occurs mostly in what population?

A

Middle-aged African American females

124
Q

Upon radiograph, you notice a mixed RL/RO lesion that is resorbing roots and causing a downward bowing of the inferior cortex of the mandible. Dx?

A

Ossifying Fibroma

125
Q

A RO lesion with RL rim that is painful. Aspirin does NOT relieve pain.

A

Osteoblastoma

126
Q

A RL lesion with a small RO center that is painful at night. Aspiring relieves the pain.

A

Osteoid Osteoma

127
Q

Spiking resorption and a sunburst appearance on the occlusal radiograph.

A

Osteosarcoma

128
Q

The pt has numb-chin syndrome and the x-ray shows ill-defined borders of a “moth eaten” looking lesion

A

Metastatic Carcinoma of the Jaw

129
Q

Unilocular lesion involving the crown of an unerupted 3rd molar. Appears to attach at the CEJ

A

Dentigerous Cyst

130
Q

Child has lost a deciduous tooth and now the gingiva in that spot is nodular and purple. Dx?

A

Eruption Cyst. No tx needed.

131
Q

Lesion grows in an anterior-posterior direction. Surgeon said there was a cheese-like material in the cyst. Dx?

A

Keratocystic Odontogenic Tumor (aka OKC)

132
Q

What syndrome are KOT’s (aka OKC’s) associated with?

A

Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome)

133
Q

What gene causes gorlin syndrome?

A

PTCH gene

134
Q

A RL that occurs along the lateral root surface, usually in mandibular premolar/canine/lateral incisor area.

A

Lateral periodontal cyst

135
Q

This lesion is usualy found around the crown of an unerupted canine/incisor and has ghost cells which can calcify within the lesion.

A

Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst (GORLIN CYST)

136
Q

What is the most common clinically significant odontogenic tumor?

A

Ameloblastoma

137
Q

This multicystic mandibular lesion is described with a soap bubble or honeycombed appearance in the ramus of the mandible.

A

Ameloblastoma

138
Q

This asymptomatic RL lesion attaches beyond the CEJ of a maxillary canine and shows snowflake calcifications on the x-ray. Dx?

A

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor

139
Q

This lesion is associated with an impacted mandibular molar and shows “driven snow” pattern on the x-ray. Dx?

A

Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor (CEOT)

aka PINDBORG TUMOR

140
Q

Looks like a dentigerous cyst around the crown of an unerupted tooth, but it has enamel and dentin deposition inside the lesion like an odontoma. Name?

A

Ameloblastic Fibro-Odontoma

141
Q

The most common odontogenic tumor:

A

odontoma

142
Q

Compound odontomas look like ______, and complex odontomas look like ________.

A 
compound = tooth-like
complex = a blob
143
Q

A pt has freckle-like lesions on the hands, perioral skin and oral mucosa. Dx?

A

Peutz-Jegher’s Syndrome

144
Q

What syndrome has freckling on hands and in/around mouth, has intestinal polyps, and are 18x more likely to develop malignant cancer?

A

Peutz-Jegher’s Syndrome

145
Q

Looks like desquamative gingivitis and has intraepithelial split on histo slide.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

146
Q

Looks like desquamative gingivitis and has interepithelial split on histologic exam (split at basement membrane)

A

Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid

147
Q

Leukoerythematous lesion with whickam striae.

A

Reticular Lichen Planus

148
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis demonstrates this kind of rash in 50% of cases.

A

Malar rash (butterfly shape on face)

149
Q

A lack of vitamin B2 might cause what two manifestations?

A

angular cheilitis, glossitis

150
Q

Anemia, whether it be iron deficiency or pernicious, can cause what oral manifestation?

A

atrophic glossitis

151
Q

What is your differential for a RL lesion around an unerupted tooth?

A
  1. dentigerous cyst
  2. ameloblastoma
  3. Calcifying odontogenic tumor (can have calcifications)
  4. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
  5. calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (can have calcifications)
  6. ameloblastic fibro-odontoma (can have calcification)

NBDE Part II (13 decks)

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