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Step 1 Exam > Pathology - First Aid > Flashcards

Pathology - First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

Apoptosis requires…

A

ATP.

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2
Q

Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways for apoptosis activate…

A

cytosolic caspases that mediate cellular breakdown.

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3
Q

Unlike necrosis, apoptosis does not have…

A

significant inflammation.

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4
Q

Apoptosis is charachterized by..

A

deeply eosinophilic cytoplasm, cell shrinkage, nuclear shrinkage (pyknosis) and basophilia, membrane blebbing nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis), and formation of apoptotic bodies, which are then phagocytosed.

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5
Q

DNA laddering is a…

A

sensitive indicator of apoptosis.

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6
Q

Durrying karyorrheix, endonucleases will…

A

cleave at internucleosomal regions, yielding 180-bp fragments.

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7
Q

Radiation therapy causes…

A

apoptosis of tumors and surrounding tissue via free radical formation and dsDNA breakage.

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8
Q

Intrinsic apoptosis pathway is invovled in..

A

tissue remodeling in embryogenesis.

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9
Q

Intrinsic pathway occurs when…

A

a regulating factor is withdrawn from a proliferating cell population (ex. decreased IL-2 after a completeed immunological rxn leads to apoptosis of proliferating effector cells).

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10
Q

Intrinsic pathway also occurs after exposure to…

A

injurious stimuli (radiation, toxins, hypoxia).

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11
Q

During the intrinsic pathway, changes in proportions of…

A

anti- and pro- apoptotic factors lead to increased mitochondrial permeability and cytochrome c release.

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12
Q

BAX and BAK are…

A

pro-apoptotic proteins.

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13
Q

Bcl-2 is…

A

anti-apoptotic.

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14
Q

Bcl-2 prevents…

A

cytochrome c release by binding to and inhibiting Apaf-1.

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15
Q

Apaf-1 normally…

A

induces the activation of caspases.

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16
Q

If Bcl-2 is overexpressed, then…

A

Apaf-1 is overly inhibitedd, leading to decreased caspase activation and tumorigenesis.

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17
Q

2 pathways of the extrinsic apoptosis pathway

A
  1. ligand receptor interactions (FasL binding to Fas)

2. immune cell (cytotoxic T-cell release of perforin and granzyme B)

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18
Q

Fas-FasL interaction is necessary in…

A

thymic medullary negative selection.

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19
Q

Mutations in Fas incnresae…

A

numbers of circulating self-reacting lymphocytes due to failure of clonal deletion.

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20
Q

After Fas crosslinks with FasL…

A

multiple Fas molecules coalesce forming a binding site for a death domain-containing adapter protein, FADD.

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21
Q

FADD binds…

A

inactive caspases, activating them.

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22
Q

Defective Fas-FasL interaction is the basis for…

A

autoimmune disorders.

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23
Q

Coagulative Necrosis

A
  • heart, liver, kidney
  • occurs in tissues supplied by end-arteries
  • increased cytoplasmic binding of acidophilic dye
  • proteins denature first, followed by enzymatic degradation
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24
Q

Liquefactive Necrosis

A
  • brain, bacterial abscess
  • occurs in CNS due to high fat content
  • enzymatic degradation is due to the release of lysosomal enzymes
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25
Q

Caseous necrosis

A

-TB, systemic fungi, nocardia

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26
Q

Fatty necrosis

A

-enzymatic (pancreatitis (saponification)) and nonenzymatic (breast trauma); calcium deposits appear dark blue on staining

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27
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis

A
  • vasculitides (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)
  • Churg-Strauss
  • malignant HTN
  • amorphous and pink
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28
Q

Gangrenous necrosis

A
  • dry (ischemi coagulative) and wet (infxn)

- common in limbs and GI tract

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29
Q

Reversible cell injury (w/ O2)

A
  1. ATP depletion
  2. cellular/mitochondrial swelling
  3. nuclear chromatin clumping
  4. decreased glycogen
  5. fatty change
  6. ribosomal/polysomal detachment
  7. membrane blebbing
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30
Q

Irreversible cell injury

A
  1. nuclear pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis
  2. plasma membrane damage
  3. lysosomal rupture
  4. mitochondrial permeability/vacuolization
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31
Q

Heart areas susceptible to ischemia/hypoxia

A

subendocardium (LV)

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32
Q

Kidney areas susceptible to hypoxia/ischemia

A

straight segment of proximal tubule (medulla)

thick ascending limb (medulla)

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33
Q

Liver area susceptible to hypoxia/ischemia

A

area around central vein (zone III)

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34
Q

Colon areas susceptible to hypoxia/ischemia

A

splenic flexure, rectum

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35
Q

Reperfusion injury is due to…

A

damage by free radicals.

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36
Q

Red infarcts occur in…

A

loose tissues with multiple blood supplies such as liver, lungs and intestine.

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37
Q

Pale infarcts occur in…

A

solid tissues with a single blood supply such as heart, kidney and spleen.

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38
Q

First sign of shock is…

A

tachycardia.

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39
Q

Shock in the setting of DIC secondary to trauma is likely due to…

A

sepsis.

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40
Q

Distributive shock includes…

A

septic, neurogenic, and anaphylactic shock.

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41
Q

Features of Distributive shock

A
  1. high-output failure (decreased TPR, increased CO, increased venous return)
  2. decreased PCWP
  3. vasodilation (warm, dry skin)
  4. failure to increase blood pressure with IV fluids
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42
Q

Features of hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock

A
  1. low-output failure (increased TPR, decreased CO, decreased venous return)
  2. PCWP increased in cardiogenic; decreased in hypovolemic
  3. vasoconstriction
  4. blood pressure restored with IV fluids
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43
Q

Inflammation is characterized by…

A

redness, pain, heat, swelling and loss of function.

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44
Q

Vascular component of inflammation

A

increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, endothelial injury

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45
Q

Cellular component of inflammation

A

neutrophils extravasate from circulation to injured tissue to participate in inflammation through phagocytosis, degranulation and inflammatory mediator release

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46
Q

Acute inflammation is mediated by…

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, and antibodies. There i rapid onset and it lasts minutes to days.

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47
Q

Outcomes of acute inflammation include…

A

complete resolution, abscess formation, and progression to chronic inflammation.

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48
Q

Chronic inflammation is mediated by…

A

mononuclear cell and fibroblasts. Characterized by persistent destruction and repair.

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49
Q

Chronic inflammation is associated with…

A

blood vessel proliferation and fibrosis.

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50
Q

A granuloma is a…

A

nodular collection of epithelioid macrophages and giant cells.

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51
Q

Outcomes of chronic inflammation include…

A

scarring and amyloidosis.

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52
Q

Chromatolysis is a process involving…

A

the cell body following axonal injury. Changes reflect increased protein synthesis in an effort to repair the damaged axon.

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53
Q

Chromatolysis is characterized by (3):

A
  1. round cellular swelling
  2. displacement of the nucleus to the periphery
  3. dispersion of Nissl substance throughout the cytoplas
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54
Q

Dystrophic calcification is…

A

calcium deposition in tissues secondary to necrosis.

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55
Q

Dystrophic calcification tends to be…

A

localized (ex. on heart valves).

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56
Q

Dystrophic calcification is seen in…

A

TB (lungs and pericardium), liquefactive necrosis of chronic abscesses, fat necrosis, infarcts, throbmi, schistosomiasis, Monckeberg arteriolosclerossi, congenital CMV + toxoplasmosis and psammoma bodies.

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57
Q

Dystrophic calcification is not directly associated with…

A

hypercalcemia. Patients are usually normocalcemic.

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58
Q

Metastatic calcification is..

A

widespread deposition of calcium in normal tissue secondary to hypercalcemia or high calcium-phosphate product. Pts are not normocalcemic.

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59
Q

In metastatic calcification, calcium deposits predominantly are in…

A

interstitial tissues of kidney, lungs and gastric mucosa (bc these tissues lose acid quickly; increased pH favors deposition).

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60
Q

Causes of hypercalcemia leading to metastatic calcification include…

A

primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, hypervitaminosis D.

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61
Q

Causes of high calcium-phoshpate product leading to metastatic calcification include…

A

chronic renal failure + secondary hyperparathyroidism, long-term dialysis, calciphylaxis and warfarin.

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62
Q

4 Steps of Leukocyte Extravasation

A
  1. Margination and rolling
  2. Tight-binding
  3. Diapedesis (leukocyte travels between endothelial cells and exits the blood vessels)
  4. Migration (leukocyte travels through interstitium to site of injury or infection guided by chemotactic signals)
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63
Q

Step 1 Mediators

A

Vasculature: E-selectin, P-selectin, glyCAM-1, CD34
Leukocyte: Sialyl-Lewis, L-selectin

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64
Q

Step 2 mediators

A

Vasculature: ICAM-1, VCAM-1
Leukocyte: CD11/18, VLA-4 integrin

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65
Q

Step 3 mediators

A

Vasculature: PECAM-1
Leukocyte: PECAM-1

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66
Q

Step 4 mediators

A

Vasculature: C5a, IL-8, LTB4, kallikrein, PAF (chemotactic products released in response to bacteria)

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67
Q

Free radicals damage cells via…

A

membrane lipid peroxidation, protein modification and DNA breakage.

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68
Q

Free radical injury is initiated via…

A

radiation exposure, drug metabolism, redox rxns, NO, transition metals, and leukocyte oxidative burst.

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69
Q

Free radicals can be elimitated by…

A

enzymes (catalase, SOD, glutathione, and peroxidase)
spontaneous decay
antioxidants (Vit A, C, E)

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70
Q

Pathologies of Free Radicals include:

A
  • retinopathy of prematurity
  • bronchopumonary dysplasia
  • carbon tetrachloride (leading to liver necrosis)
  • acetaminophen overdose
  • iron overload
  • reperfusion injury
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71
Q

Inhalation injury is the most common…

A

pulmonary complication after exposure to fire. INhalation of the products of combustion (carbon, toxic fumes) leads to chemical tracheobronchitis, edema and pneumonia.

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72
Q

Hypertrophic scars features

A
  • increased collagen synthesis
  • parallel collagen
  • confined to borders of original wounds
  • infrequently recur following resection
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73
Q

Keloid scars features

A
  • extremely increased collagen
  • disorganized collagen
  • extneds beyond borders of original wound
  • frequently recurs following resection
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74
Q

PDGF is secreted by…

A

activated platelets and macrophages. It induces vascular remodeling and smooth muscle cell migration. It stimulates fibroblast growth for collagen synthesis.

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75
Q

FGF stimulates…

A

all aspects of angiogenesis.

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76
Q

EGF stimulates…

A

cell growth via tyrosine kinases

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77
Q

TGF-beta has a role in…

A

angiogenesis, fibrosis, cell cycle arrest.

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78
Q

Metalloproteinases have a role in…

A

tissue remodeling.

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79
Q

Inflammatory stage of wound healing mediators

A

platelets, neutrophils, macrophages

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80
Q

Characteristics of the inflammatory stage of wound healing

A
  • clot formation
  • increased vessel permeability
  • neutrophil migration
  • maacrophages clear debris 2 days later
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81
Q

Proliferative stage of wound healing (2-3 days later) mediators

A

fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, macrophages

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82
Q

Characteristics of the proliferative stage of wound healing

A
  • deposition of granulation tissue and collagen
  • angiogenesis
  • epithelial cell proliferation
  • dissolution of clot
  • wound contraction (mediated by myofibroblasts)
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83
Q

Remodeling (1 wk later) stage of wound healing mediators

A

fibroblasts

84
Q

Remodeling stage characteristics

A

type III collagen replaced by type I collagen; increased tensile strength of tissue

85
Q

Granulomatous diseases

A
  1. Bartonella henselae (cat scratch dz)
  2. berylliosis
  3. Churg-Strauss
  4. Crohn’s
  5. Francisella tularensis
  6. Fungal infxns
  7. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
  8. Listeria
  9. M. leprae
  10. M. tuberculosis
  11. Treponema pallidum
  12. Sarcoidosis
  13. Schistosomiasis
86
Q

Granuloma formation is mediated when Th1 cells secrete…

A

gamma-interferon which activates macrophages. TNF-alpha from macrophages induces and maintains granuloma formation.

87
Q

Anti-TNF drugs can cause sequestering granulomas to…

A

breakdown leading to disseminated disease. So you should always test for latent TB before starting anit-TNF therapy.

88
Q

Exudate features

A
  • cellular
  • protein rich
  • specific gravity > 1.02
  • due to lymphatic obstruction, inflammation, infxn, malignancy
89
Q

Transudate features

A
  • hypocellular
  • protein poor
  • specific gravity < 1.012
  • due to increased hydrostatic pressure (CHF), decreased oncotic pressure (cirrhosis), Na+ retention
90
Q

Products of inflammation (fibrinogen) coat…

A

RBCs and cause aggregation. When aggregated, RBCs fall at a faster rate within the test tube (measure of erythrocyte sedimentation rate).

91
Q

Conditions with increased ESR

A
  • most anemias
  • infxns
  • inflammation
  • cancer
  • pregnancy
  • autoimmune disorders
92
Q

Conditions with decreased ESR

A
  • sickle cell (due to altered shape)
  • polycythemia (increased RBCs “dilute” aggregation factors)
  • CHF
93
Q

Mechanism of iron poisoning

A

cell death due to peroxidation of membrane lipids

94
Q

Symptoms of acute iron poisoning

A

nausea, vomiting, gastric bleeding, lethargy

95
Q

Symptoms of chronic iron poisoning

A

metabolic acidosis, scarring leading to GI obstruction

96
Q

Treatment for iron poisoning

A

Chelation (IV deferoxamine, oral deferasirox) and dialysis

97
Q

Amyloidosis is…

A

abnromal aggregation of proteins into beta-pleated sheet structures leading to damage and apoptosis.

98
Q

AL amyloidosis (primary) is due to…

A

deposition of proteins from Ig Light chains. It can occur as a plasma cell disorder or associated with multiple myeloma.

99
Q

AL amyloidosis often affects…

A

multiple organ systems including:

  • renal (nephrotic sydnrome)
  • cardiac (restrictive cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia)
  • hematologic (easy bruising)
  • GI (hepatomegaly)
  • neurologic (neuropathy)
100
Q

AA amyloidosis (secondary) is seen with…

A

chronic conditions such as RA, IBD, spondyloarthropathy, and protracted infxn.

101
Q

AA amyloidosis is due to…

A

fibrils composed of serum Amyloid A and is often multisystem.

102
Q

Dialysis-related amyloidosis is due to…

A

fibrils composed of beta2-microglobulin in pts with ESRD or on long-term dialysis. May present as carpal tunnel.

103
Q

Heritable amyloidosis is a…

A

heterogenous group of disorders. Example is ATTR neurologic/cardiac amyloidosis due to transthyretin gene mutation.

104
Q

Age-related systemic amyloidosis is due to…

A

deposition of normal TTR in myocardium, etc. Slower progression of cardiac dysfunction relative to AL amyloidosis.

105
Q

Organ-specific amyloidosis is most important in…

A

Alzheimer disease due to deposition of amyloid-beta protein cleaved from APP.

106
Q

Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) is commonly seen in…

A

T2DM and is caused by deposition of amylin in pancreatic islets.

107
Q

Lipofuscin is a…

A

yellow-brown “wear and tear” pigment associated with normal aging.

108
Q

Lipofuscin is formed by…

A

oxidation and polymerization of autophagocytosed organellar membranes.

109
Q

Autopsy of elderly person will reveal deposits of…

A

lipfuscin in the heart, liver, kidney, eye, etc.

110
Q

Hyperplasia features

A

-increased number of cells

111
Q

Dysplasia is an…

A

abnormal proliferation of cells with loss of size, shape and orientation.

112
Q

Carcinoma in situ features

A
  • neoplastic cells have not invaded basement membrane
  • high N/C ratio and clumped chromatin
  • neoplastic cells encompass the entire thickness
113
Q

Invasive carcinoma features

A
  • cells have invaded basement membrane using collagenases and hydrolases (metalloproteinases)
  • can metastasize if they reach a blood or lymph vessel
114
Q

P-glycoprotein is also known as…

A

multidrug resistance protein 1 (MDR1).

115
Q

P-glycoprotein is expressed by some cancer cells (colon, liver) to…

A

pump out toxins, including chemo agents.

116
Q

Anaplasia is…

A

loss of structural differentiation and function of cells, resembling primitive cells of the same tissue. Often equated with undifferentiated malignant neoplasms.

117
Q

Desmoplasia is…

A

fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm.

ex. linitis plastica in diffuse stomach cancer

118
Q

Grade is determined by…

A

the degree of cellular differenitation and mitotic activity.

119
Q

More prognostic value is determined by…

A

stage (rather than grade).

120
Q

Stage is the degree of…

A

localization/spread based on site and size of primary lesion, spread to regional LNs, and metastases.

121
Q

The term carcinoma implies…

A

epithelial origin.

122
Q

The term sarcoma implies…

A

mesenchymal origin.

123
Q

Most carinomas spread…

A

through the lymphatics.

Exceptions:
RCC through renal vein.
HCC through hepatic vein. 
Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
Choriocarcinoma
124
Q

Most sarcomas spread…

A

hematogenously.

125
Q

Cachexia is…

A

weight loss, muscle atrophy, and fatigue that occurs in chronic disease (cancer, AIDS, heart failure, TB).

126
Q

Cachexia is mediated by…

A

TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma, and IL-6.

127
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is ass. w/

A

visceral malignancy (esp. stomach).

128
Q

Actinic keratosis is associated with…

A

SCC of the skin.

129
Q

AIDS is associated with…

A

aggressive malignant lymphomas (non-Hodgkin) and Kaposi sarcoma.

130
Q

Autoimmune diseases are associated with…

131
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia and postsurgical gastric remnants are associated with…

A

gastric adenocarcinoma.

132
Q

Cirrhosis is associated with…

133
Q

Cushing syndrome is associated with…

A

small cell lung cancer.

134
Q

Dermatomyositis is associated with…

A

lung cancer.

135
Q

Down Syndrome is associated with…

A

ALL and AML.

136
Q

Dysplastic nevus is associated with…

A

malignant melanoma.

137
Q

Hypercalcemia is associated with…

A

squamous cell lung cancer.

138
Q

Immunodeficiency states are associated with…

A

malignant lymphomas.

139
Q

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is associated with…

A

small cell lung cancer.

140
Q

Myasthenia gravis and pure RBC aplasia is associated with…

141
Q

Paget disease of bone is associated with…

A

secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma.

142
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is associated with…

A

SCC of esophagus.

143
Q

Polycythemia is associated with…

A

RCC and HCC.

144
Q

Radiation exposure is associated with…

A

leukemia, sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer and breast cancer.

145
Q

SIADH is associated with…

A

small cell lung cancer.

146
Q

Tuberous sclerosis is associated with…

A

giant cell astrocytoma, renal angiomyolipoma, and cardiac rhabdomyoma.

147
Q

UC is associated with…

A

colonic adenocarcinoma.

148
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum and albinism is associated with…

A

melanoma, basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinomas of the skin.

149
Q

BCR-ABL

A

CML, ALL

tyrosine kinase gene

150
Q

bcl-2

A

follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas

anti-apoptotic molecule gene

151
Q

BRAF

A

melanoma

serine/threonine kinase gene

152
Q

c-kit

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumor

cytokine receptor gene

153
Q

c-myc

A

Burkitt lymphoma

transcription factor

154
Q

HER2/neu

A

breast, ovarian, gastric carcinomas

tyrosine kinase gene

155
Q

L-myc

A

lung tumor

transcription factor

156
Q

N-myc

A

neuroblastoma

transcription factor gene

157
Q

ras

A

colon cancer, lung cancer, pancreatic cancer

GTPase gene

158
Q

ret

A

MEN 2A and 2B

tyrosine kinase gene

159
Q

APC

A

colorectal cancer (esp. associated with FAP)

160
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2

A

breast and ovarian cancer

DNA repair protein

161
Q

CPD4/SMAD4

A

pancreatic cancer

DPC

162
Q

DCC

A

colon cancer

DCC

163
Q

NF1

A

NF1

RAS GTPase activating protein (neurofibromin)

164
Q

NF2

A

NF2

Merlin (schwannomin) protein

165
Q

p16

A

melanoma

cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A

166
Q

p53

A

most cancers; Li-Fraumeni syndrome

transcription factor fo p21, blocks G1 to S phase

167
Q

PTEN

A

breast cancer, prostate cancer, endometrial cancer

168
Q

Rb

A

retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

inhibits EF2; blocks G1 to S phase

169
Q

TSC1

A

tuberous sclerosis

Hamartin protein

170
Q

TSC2

A

tuberous sclerosis

tuberin protein

171
Q

VHL

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

inhibits hypoxia inducible factor 1a

172
Q

WT1 and WT2

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

173
Q

Alkaline phosphatase is a tumor marker for…

A

metastases to bone, liver, Paget disease of bone, serminoma (placental ALP)

174
Q

alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for…

A

HCC, hepatoblastoma, yolk sac tumor, testicular cancer, mixed germ cell tumor

175
Q

beta-hCG

A

hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinoma, testicular cancer

176
Q

CA-15-3/CA-27-29

A

breast cancer

177
Q

CA-19-9

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

178
Q

CA-125

A

ovarian cancer

179
Q

Calcitonin

A

medullary thyroid cancer

180
Q

CEA

A

CarcinoEmbryonic Antigen

very nonspecific

181
Q

S-100

A

neural crest origin (melanomas, neural tumors, schwannomas, Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

182
Q

TRAP

A

Tartate-Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)

hairy cell leukemia

183
Q

EBV associated cancers

A

Burkitt
Hodgkin
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
CNS lymphoma

184
Q

HBV, HCV associated cancer

185
Q

HHV-8 associated cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma, body cavity fluid B-cell lymphoma

186
Q

HPV associated cancer

A

cervical and penile/anal carcinoma, head/neck/throat cancer

187
Q

H.pylori associated cancer

A

gastic adenocarcinoma and MALToma

188
Q

HTLV-1 associated cancer

A

adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

189
Q

Liver fluke (chlonorchis) associated cancer

A

cholangiocarcinoma

190
Q

Schistosoma haematobium associated cancer

A

bladder cancer (squamous cell)

191
Q

Aflatoxins cause…

192
Q

Alkylating agents cause…

A

leukemia/lymphoma

193
Q

Aromatic amines cause…

A

transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

194
Q

Arsenic causes…

A

angiosarcoma (liver)
lung cancer
SCC (skin)

195
Q

Asbestos causes…

A

bronchogenic carcinoma > mesothelioma

196
Q

Cigarette smoke causes…

A 
Transitional cell carcinoma (bladder)
SCC/Adenocarcinoma (esophagus)
RCC 
Squamous cell carcinoma (larynx)
Squamous cell and small cell carcinoma (lung)
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
197
Q

Nitrosamines (smoked food) causes..

A

gastric cancer.

198
Q

Radon causes…

A

lung cancer.

199
Q

Vinyl chloride causes…

A

angiosarcoma of the liver.

200
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma (and some non-Hodgkins) can secrete…

A

calcitriol causing hypercalcemia.

201
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma secretes…

A

ACTH causing cushing syndrome. And antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels at NMJ causing Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

202
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms secrete…

A

ADH leading to SIADH.

203
Q

RCC, thymoma, hemangioblastoma, HCC, leiomyoma and pheochromocytoma can all secrete…

A

EPO leading to polycythemia.

204
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, RCC and breast cancer can all secrete…

A

PTHrP leading to hypercalcemia.

205
Q

Psammomma bodies are…

A

laminated, concentric, calcific spherules.

206
Q

Psammoma bodies are seen in (4)..

A
  • papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
  • serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
  • meningioma
  • malignant mesothelioma

Step 1 Exam (32 decks)

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