Microbiology Bacteria - First Aid Flashcards

Question

Circular (coccus) gram positives

Answer 1

Staphylococcus | Streptococcus

Answer 2

``` Clostridium Corynebacterium Bacillus Listeria Mycobacterium (acid fast) Gardnerella (gram variable) ```

Answer 3

``` E. coli Shigella Salmonella Yersinia Klebsiella Proteus Enterobacter Serratia Vibrio Campylobacter Helicobacter Pseudomonas Bacteroides ```

Answer 4

Haemophilus (pleomorphic) Legionella (silver) Bordetella

Answer 5

Francisella Brucella Pasteurella Bartonella

Answer 6

Actinomyces | Nocardia (weakly acid fast)

Answer 7

Rickettsiae (Giemsa) | Chlamydiae (Giemsa)

Answer 8

Borrelia (Giemsa) Leptospira Treponema

Answer 9

Mycoplasma (does not gram stain)

Answer 10

sterols and has no cell wall.

Answer 11

mycolic acid and has a high lipid content.

Answer 12

``` Treponema Mycobacteria Mycoplasma Legionella pneumophila Rickettsia Chlamydia ```

Answer 13

it is too thin to be visualized.

Answer 14

high lipid content in cell wall is detected by carbolfuchsin in acid-fast stain.

Answer 15

it has no cell wall.

Answer 16

it is primarily intracellular.

Answer 17

it is an intracellular parasite.

Answer 18

it is an intracellular parasite and lacks muramic acid in the cell wall.

Answer 19

dark-field microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining.

Answer 20

silver stain.

Answer 21

``` Chlamydia Borrelia Rickettsiae Trypanosomes Plasmodium ``` (Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience)

Answer 22

stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides

Answer 23

Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei).

Answer 24

acid-fast organisms (Nocardia, Mycobacterium)

Answer 25

Cryptococcus neoformans (mucicarmine can also be used to stain the thick polysaccharide capsule red)

Answer 26

Fungi (Pneumocystis) Legionella Helicobacter pylori

Answer 27

chocolate agar w/ factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

Answer 28

Thayer-Martin (VPN) with Vancomycin, Polymyxin and Nystatin

Answer 29

inhibit gram-postitive organism. Polymyxin inhibits gram-negative except for Neisseria. And Nystatin inhibits fungi.

Answer 30

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

Answer 31

- Tellurite agar | - Loffler medium

Answer 32

-Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Answer 33

-Eaton agar, requires cholesterol

Answer 34

pink colonies on MacConkey agar | fermentation produces acid, turning the colony pink

Answer 35

eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar as colonies with green metallic sheen.

Answer 36

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron

Answer 37

Sabouraud agar

Answer 38

O2-dependent system to generate ATP. Examples include Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Answer 39

the apices of the lung, which have the highest PO2.

Answer 40

burn wounds, diabetes complications, nosocomial pneumonia and pneumonias in CF pts.

Answer 41

- Clostridium - Bacteroides - Actinomyces

Answer 42

catalase and/or superoxide dismutase and are thus susceptible to oxidative damage.

Answer 43

- foul smelling (short-chain fatty acids) - difficult to culture - produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H2)

Answer 44

flora in the GI tract and pathogenic elsewhere.

Answer 45

aminoglycosides because this antibiotic requires O2 to enter the bacterial cell.

Answer 46

Rickettsia and Chlamydia because they can't make their own ATP.

Answer 47

``` Salmonella Neisseria Brucella Mycobacterium Listeria Francisella Legionella Yersinia ``` (Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY)

Answer 48

``` Strep pneumponiae Haemophilus influenza Neisseria meningitidis Escherichia coli Salmonella Klebsiella pneumoniae group B Strep ``` (SHiNE SKiS)

Answer 49

an antigen in vaccines.

Answer 50

opsonized and then cleared by the spleen. Asplenics have decreased opsonizing ability and are at risk for severe infection.

Answer 51

s. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and N. meningitidis vaccines.

Answer 52

degrade H2O2 before it can be converted to microbicidal products by myeloperoxidase.

Answer 53

recurrent infections with catalase + organisms.

Answer 54

``` Pseudomonas Listeria Aspergillus Candida E. coli S. aureus Serratia ``` (You need PLACESS for your cat.)

Answer 55

enhances immunogenicity by promoting T-cell activation and subsequent class switching.

Answer 56

pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevnar)

Answer 57

pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine with no conjugated protein (Pneumovax)

Answer 58

conjugate vaccines.

Answer 59

``` Cryptococcus H. pylori Proteus Ureaplasma Nocardia Klebsiella S. epidermidis S. saprophyticus ``` (CHuck Norris hates PUNKSS)

Answer 60

Actinomyces israeli S. aureus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Serratia marcescens

Answer 61

yellow "sulfur" granules whcih are composed of filaments of bacteria

Answer 62

yellow pigment.

Answer 63

blue-green pigment.

Answer 64

red pigment.

Answer 65

binds Fc region of IgG; prevents opsonization and phagocytosis

Answer 66

S. aureus.

Answer 67

an enzyme that cleaves IgA.

Answer 68

S. pneumoniae, Hib, and Neisseria in order to colonize respiratory mucosa.

Answer 69

prevent phagocytosis and is expressed by group A strep.

Answer 70

certain species of some gram-postivive and gram-negative bacteria

Answer 71

outer cell membrane of most gram-negative bacteria

Answer 72

polypeptide

Answer 73

Lipopolysaccharide (structural part of bacteria, released when lysed)

Answer 74

plasmid or bacteriophage

Answer 75

bacterial chromosomes

Answer 76

fever, shock, DIC

Answer 77

induces TNF, IL-1 and IL-6

Answer 78

induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins

Answer 79

poorly antigenic

Answer 80

toxoids used as vaccines

Answer 81

no toxoids formed and no vaccines available

Answer 82

destroyed rapidly at 60 C (except staph enterotoxin)

Answer 83

stable at 100 C for 1 hr

Answer 84

Tetanus Botulism Diptheria

Answer 85

Meningococcemia | Sepsis by gram-negative rodsCory

Answer 86

Diphtheria toxin inactives elongationg factor 2 (EF-2) causing pharyngitis with pseudomembranes in the throat and severe lymphadenopathy (bull neck).

Answer 87

Exotoxin A inactivates EF-2 leading to host cell death.

Answer 88

Shiga toxin inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA leading to GI mucosal damage (dysentery); ST also enhances cytokine release (HUS).

Answer 89

Shiga-like toxin inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adening from rRNA leading to cytokine release (HUS).

Answer 90

it does not invade host cells.

Answer 91

Heat-labile toxin (LT) | Heat-stable toxin (ST)

Answer 92

overactivates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP) leading to increaesd chloride secretion in the gut and H2O efflux

Answer 93

overactivates guanylate cyclase (increases cGMP) leading to decreased resorption of NaCl and H2O in the gut

Answer 94

Watery Diarrhea

Answer 95

Edema factor mimics the adenylate cyclase enzyme (increases cAMP). This is likely responsible for edematous borders of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax.

Answer 96

Cholera toxin overactivates adenylate cyclase by permanently activating Gs leading to increased chloride secretion in the gut and H2O efflux. Manifestation is voluminous "rice-water" diarrhea.

Answer 97

Pertussis toxin overactivates adenylate cyclase (increased cAMP) by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of the microbe.

Answer 98

whooping cough: child coughs on expiration and "whoops" on inspiration

Answer 99

Tetanospasmin cleaves SNARE proteins required for NT release. Toxin prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and glycine) from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord.

Answer 100

- spasticity - risus sardonicus - lockjaw

Answer 101

Botulinum toxin cleaves SNARE proteins required for NT release. Prevents release of stimulatory (ACh) signals at NMJs leading to flaccid paralysis.

Answer 102

- flaccid paralysis | - floppy baby

Answer 103

ADP ribosylating A-B toxins. The B component binds to host cell surface receptor enabling endocytosis. The A component attaches ADP-ribosyl to disrupt host cell prtoeins.

Answer 104

Alpha toxin is a phospholipse (lecithinase) that degrades tissue and cell membranes.

Answer 105

degradation of phospholipids leads to myonecrosis ("gas gangrene") and hemolysis ("dobule zone" of hemolysis on blood agar)

Answer 106

Streptolysin O is a protein that degrades cell membranes

Answer 107

lyses RBCs contributes to beta-hemolysis host antibodies against toxin (ASO) are used to diagnose rheumatic fever

Answer 108

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) brings MHC II and TCR in proximity to the outside of an antigen binding site to cause an overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 leading to shock.

Answer 109

Toxic shock syndrome: fever, rash, shock

Answer 110

scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin) and food poisoning (enterotoxin).

Answer 111

Exotoxin A brings MHC II and TCR in proximity to the outside of an antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 leading to shock.

Answer 112

ability to take up DNA from the environment; seen in S. pneumoniae, Hib and Neisseria

Answer 113

F+ plasmid contains genes required for sex pilus and conjugation. Bacteria without this plasmid are termed F-. Plasmid (dsDNA) is replicated and transferred through the pilus from the F+ cell. There is no transfer of chromosomal genes.

Answer 114

F+ plasmid can become incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA, termed high-frequency recombination (Hfr) cell. Replication of incorporated plasmid DNA may include some flanking chromosomal DNA. Transfer of plasmid and chromosomal genes.

Answer 115

Segment of DNA (transposon) that can "jump" can transfer genes from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa.

Answer 116

antibiotic resistance gene on R plasmid.

Answer 117

Lytic phage infects bacterium leading to cleavage of bacterial DNA. Parts of bacterial chromosomal DNA becom packaged in viral capsid. Then the phage infects another bacterium, transferring the genes.

Answer 118

Lysogenic phage infects bacterium; viral DNA incorporates into bacterial chromosome. When phage DNA is excised, flanking bacterial genes may be excised with it. DNA is then packaged into phage viral capsid and can infect another bacterium.

Answer 119

ABCDE 1. ShigA-like toxin 2. Botulinum toxin 3. Cholera toxin 4. Diphtheria toxin 5. Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes

Answer 120

Staph saprophyticus is resistant. | Staph epidermidis is sensitive.

Answer 121

Strep viridans is resistant. | Strep pneumoniae is sensitive.

Answer 122

group B strep are resistant | group A strep are sensitive

Answer 123

a green ring around colonies on blood agar

Answer 124

Strep pneumoniae | Viridans strep

Answer 125

a clear area of hemolysis on blood agar.

Answer 126

Staph aureus Strep pyogenes Strep agalactiae Listeria

Answer 127

- gram positive cocci in clusters - Protein A (binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis) - commonly colonizes the nose

Answer 128

1. inflammatory disease 2. Toxin-mediated disease 3. MRSA infection

Answer 129

- skin infections - organ abcesses - pneumonia (often after virus infxn) - endocarditis - osteomyelitis

Answer 130

serious nosocomial and community acquired infections; resistant to methicillin and nafacillin because of altered penicillin binding protein (PBP).

Answer 131

toxic shock syndrome.

Answer 132

ingestion of a preformed toxin (that is not destroyed by cooking). Short incubation (2-6 hrs).

Answer 133

fibrin clot around itself leading to abscess.

Answer 134

prosthetic devices and IV catheters by producing adherrent biofilms

Answer 135

skin flora and can contaminate blood cultures.

Answer 136

uncomplicated UTI in young women.

Answer 137

1. Meningitis 2. Otitis media 3. Pneumonia 4. Sinusitis

Answer 138

- lancet-shpaed, gram-positive diplococci - encapsulated - IgA protease

Answer 139

rusty sputum sepsis in sickle cell anemia splenectomy

Answer 140

its capsule.

Answer 141

- alpha-hemolytic | - normal flora of the oropharynx

Answer 142

``` dental caries (S. mutans) bacterial endocarditis (S. sanguinis) ```

Answer 143

dextrans which bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves.

Answer 144

pyogenic, toxigenic and immunologic diseases.

Answer 145

- pharyngitis - cellulitis - impetigo

Answer 146

- scarlet fever - toxic shock-like syndrome - necrotizing fasciitis

Answer 147

- rheumatic fever | - acute glomerulonephritis

Answer 148

host defenses against S. pyogenes but can give rise to rheumatic fever.

Answer 149

ASO titer.

Answer 150

``` Joints (polyarthritis) <3 (carditis) Nodules (subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenam chorea ```

Answer 151

glomerulonephritis than pharyngitis.

Answer 152

scarlet rash w/ sandpaper-like texture; strawberry tongue, circumoral pallor (caused by S. pyogenes)

Answer 153

- beta-hemolytic - colonizes the vagina - causes pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis mainly in babies - Hippurate test +

Answer 154

CAMP factor which enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus.

Answer 155

35-37 wks should receive intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis.

Answer 156

- normal colonic flora - penicillin G resistant - cause UTI, biliary tract infections and subacute endocarditis

Answer 157

differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall.

Answer 158

nosocomial infection.

Answer 159

can grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile

Answer 160

colonizes the gut; can cause bacteremia and endocarditis in colon cancer pts

Answer 161

cancer in the colon

Answer 162

diphtheria via exotoxin encoded by Beta-prophage.

Answer 163

- pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) - lymphadenopathy - myocarditis - arrhythmias

Answer 164

gram-positive rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules and Elek test for toxin. (shaped like a club)

Answer 165

a toxoid vaccine.

Answer 166

cystine-tellurite agar.

Answer 167

stationary phase when nutrients are limited.

Answer 168

- highly resistant to heat and chemicals - have dipicolinic acid in their core - no metabolic activity

Answer 169

autoclave them by steaming at 121 C for 15 min.

Answer 170

1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Clostridium perfringens 3. Clostridium tetani

Answer 171

1. B. cereus 2. C. botulinism 3. Coxiella burnetii

Answer 172

- gram positive - spore forming - obligate anaerobic bacteria

Answer 173

tetanospasmin, an exotoxin causing tetanus.

Answer 174

tetanic paralysis (blocks glycine and GABA release from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord). Causes spastic paralysis, trismus (lockjaw) and risus sardonicus.

Answer 175

ingestion of a preformed toxin. In babies, ingestion of spores in honey causes the disease.

Answer 176

2 toxins: 1. Toxin A (enterotoxin) binds to the brush border of the gut. 2. Toxin B (cytotoxin) causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization leading to pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea.

Answer 177

antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin and ampicillin).

Answer 178

detection of one or both of the toxins in the stool.

Answer 179

Metronidazole or Oral Vancomycin | fecal transplant may prevent relapse in recurring infxns

Answer 180

1. gram positive 2. spore-forming rod 3. produces anthrax toxin (causing anthrax) 4. only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule (contains D-glutamate)

Answer 181

A boil like lesion leads to an ulcer with black eschar (painless, necrotic). This can but rarely leads to bacteremia and death.

Answer 182

Inhalation of spores leads to flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis and shock.

Answer 183

inhalation of anthrax spores from contaminated wool

Answer 184

food poisoning. Spores survive cooking in rice (and pasta). Keeping rice warm results in germination of spores and enterotoxin formation.

Answer 185

1. Emetic type (nausea/vomiting within 1-5 hrs, caused by cereulide (a preformed toxin)) 2. Diarrheal type (watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI pain w/i 8-18 hrs)

Answer 186

facultative intracellular microbe. It is the only gram-positive bacteria to produce LPS.

Answer 187

"rocket tails" via actin polymerization that allow them to move through the cytoplasm and into the cell membrane, thereby avoiding abtibody. Characteristic tumbling motility.

Answer 188

ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products an deli meats, via transplacental transmission or vaginal transmission during birth.

Answer 189

1. amnionits 2. septicemia 3. spontaneous abortion 4. granulomatosis infantiseptica 5. neonatal meningitis 6. meningitis in immunocompromised pts 7. mild gastroenteritis

Answer 190

Ampicillin in infants, immunocompromised pts and the elderly in empiric tx of meningitis.

Answer 191

long, branching filaments resembling fungi.

Answer 192

1. gram positive anaerobe 2. normal oral flora 3. causes oral/facial abcesses that drain through sinus tracts and form yellow "sulfur granules" 4. treat with penicillin

Answer 193

1. gram positive aerobe 2. acid fast (weak) 3. found in soil 4. causes pulmonary infxns in immunocompromised and cutaneous infections after trauma in immunocompetent 5. treat with sulfonamides

Answer 194

they have a current infxn, past exposure or BCG vaccinated.

Answer 195

they have no infxn or are anergic (steroids, malnutrition, immunocompromised) and in sarcoidosis.

Answer 196

an interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) which has fewer false positives from the BCG vaccine.

Answer 197

pulmonary TB-like symptoms.

Answer 198

disseminated, non-TB disease in AIDS pts; give prophylactic treatment with Azithromycin.

Answer 199

fever, night sweats, weight loss and hemoptysis.

Answer 200

cord factor which inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha. Sulfatides (surface glycolipids) inhibit phagolysosomal fusion.

Answer 201

Mycobacterium leprae, an acid-fast bacillus that likes cool temperatures (infects skin and superficial nerves).

Answer 202

presents diffusely over the skin with leonine facies and is communicable; characterized by low cell-mediated immunity with a humoral Th2 response.

Answer 203

limited to a few hypoesthetic, hairless skin plaques; characterized by high cell-mediated immunity w/ a largely Th1 immune response

Answer 204

Tuberculoid form: Dapsone and Rifampin for 6 months | Lepromatous form: Dapsone, Rifampin, Clofazimine for 2-5 yrs

Answer 205

1. Citrobacter 2. Klebsiella 3. E. coli 4. Enterobacter 5. Serratia (weak fermenter)

Answer 206

Beta-galactosidase, which breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.

Answer 207

purple/black colonies. E.coli also has a green sheen.

Answer 208

penicillin G but may be susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin and amoxicillin.

Answer 209

the outer membrane layer inhibits entry of the drugs.

Answer 210

- gram negative diplococci - ferment glucose - produce IgA protease - N. gonorrhea is often intracellular (w/i neutrophils)

Answer 211

- sexually transmitted | - causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjuctivitis, PID and Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

Answer 212

erythromycin ointment.

Answer 213

Ceftriaxone + (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia coinfection

Answer 214

- polysaccharide capsule - maltose fermentation - vaccine - respiratory and oral secretions - causes meningococcemia and meningitis and waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome

Answer 215

rifampin, ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone prophylaxis.

Answer 216

Ceftriaxone or Penicillin G

Answer 217

- small, gram negative rod - aerosol transmission - produces IgA protease A

Answer 218

Epiglottitis (cherry red/thumbprint sign) Meningitis Otitis media Pneumonia

Answer 219

Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate.

Answer 220

ceftriaxone. And Rifampin can be given to close contacts for prophylaxis.

Answer 221

type B capsular polysaccharide (polyribosylribitol phosphate) conjugated to diphtheria toxoid. Given between 2 and 18 months of age.

Answer 222

the flu. The influenza virus does.

Answer 223

- gram-negative rod - use silver stain - grow on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine

Answer 224

Aerosol transmission from environmental water source habitat (air conditioning, hot water tanks). No person-to-person transmission.

Answer 225

presence of antigen in the urine.

Answer 226

Macrolide or Quinolone

Answer 227

hyponatremia.

Answer 228

Legionnaires' disease and Pontiac fever.

Answer 229

a mild flu-like syndrome.

Answer 230

severe pneumonia, fever, GI and CNS symptoms

Answer 231

- aerobic, gram-negative rod - non lactose fermenting - oxidase + - produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment) - grape-like odor - water source - produces endotoxin and exotoxin A

Answer 232

``` wound and burn infections pneumonia (esp. CF) Sepsis external otitis (swimmer's ear) UTI Drug use Diabetic Osteomyelitis hot tub folliculitis Ecthyma gangrenosum ```

Answer 233

a rapidly progressive, necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by Pseudomonas bacteremia. Typically in immunocompromised pts.

Answer 234

aminoglycoside plus extended spectrum penicillin

Answer 235

biofilm from pseudomonas.

Answer 236

1. fimbrae - cystitis and pyelonephritis 2. K capsule - pneumonia and neonatal meningitis 3. LPS endotoxin - septic shock

Answer 237

microbe invades intestinal mucosa and causes necrosis and inflammation (similar manifestations to Shigella)

Answer 238

produces heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins. no inflammation or invasion

Answer 239

travelere's diarrhea (watery)

Answer 240

no toxin produced; adheres to apical surface, flattens villi, prevents absorption

Answer 241

diarrhea (usually in children)

Answer 242

O157:H7 is the most common serotype. produces shiga-like toxin that causes HUS (triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure). Microthrombi form on the endothelium damaged by the toxin leading to mechanical hemolysis (schistocytes) and decreased renal blood flow.; microthrombi consume platelets leading to thrombocytopenia.

Answer 243

dystentery

Answer 244

it does not ferment sorbitol.

Answer 245

- mucoid colonies caused by abundant polysaccharide capsules - red "currant jelly" sputum - intestinal flor

Answer 246

lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when aspirated. (abscesses in lungs and liver) Can also cause nosocomial UTIs.

Answer 247

- flagella - disseminate hematogenously - many animal reservoirs - produces hydrogen sulfide - does not ferment lactose

Answer 248

prolong fecal excretion of the organism.

Answer 249

invading intestinal mucosa and causing a monocytic response sometimes leading to bloody diarrhea.

Answer 250

- cell to cell transmission - human and primate reservoirs - does not ferment lactose

Answer 251

shorten the duration of fecal excretion of the organism.

Answer 252

invading intestinal mucosa and causing PMN infiltration often leading to bloody diarrhea.

Answer 253

typhoid fever characterized by red spots on the abdomen, fever, HA and diarrhea.

Answer 254

gallbladder and cause a carrier state.

Answer 255

of bloody diarrhea.

Answer 256

fecal-orally through foods such as poultry, meat and unpasteurized milk.

Answer 257

- comma or S-shaped - oxidase + - grows at 42 C

Answer 258

Guillain-Barre Syndrome and reactive arthritis.

Answer 259

rice-water diarrhea via enterotoxin that permanently activates Gs (increasing cAMP). Prompt oral rehydration is necessary.

Answer 260

- comma shaped - oxidase + - grows in alkaline media - endemic to developing countries

Answer 261

pet feces, contaminated milk or pork.

Answer 262

mesenteric adenitis that can mimic Chron's or appendicitis.

Answer 263

gastritis and peptic ulcer (esp. duodenal).

Answer 264

peptic ulcer, gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma.

Answer 265

- curved, gram negative rod - catalase + - oxidase + - urease + - creates an alkaline environment

Answer 266

proton pump inhibitor + Clarithromycin + either amoxicillin or metronidazole

Answer 267

spiral-sharped bacteria with axial filaments and include Borrelia, Leptospira and Treponema.

Answer 268

aniline dyes (Wright or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy.

Answer 269

dark-field microscopy.

Answer 270

water contaminated with animal urine and causes leptospirosis: flu-like symptoms, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema without exudate).

Answer 271

surfers and in the tropics (Hawaii).

Answer 272

severe form of leptospirosis with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction; fever, hemorrhage and anemia

Answer 273

Borrelia burgdorferi which is transmitted by the tick Ixodes. Natural reservoir is the mouse.

Answer 274

-erythema chronicum migrans -flu like symptoms +/- facial nerve palsy

Answer 275

- monoarthritis - migratory polyarthritis - AV nodal block - encephalopathy - facial nerve palsy - polyneuropathy

Answer 276

Doxycycline, Ceftriaxone

Answer 277

the spirochete Treponema pallidum.

Answer 278

a localized diseae presenting with painless chancre

Answer 279

VDRL/RPR (non-specific) | Confirm w/ specific test (FTA-ABS).

Answer 280

disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash (palms and soles), condylomata lata

Answer 281

Gummas (chronic granulmoas), aortitis (vasa vasorum destruction), neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis "general paresis"), Argyll Robertson pupil

Answer 282

- broad-based ataxia - positive Romberg - Charcot joint - stroke w/o HTN

Answer 283

spinal fluid with VDRL or RPR.

Answer 284

- saber shins - saddle nose - CN VIII deafness - Hutchinson teeth - mulberry molars

Answer 285

treat mother early in pregnancy bc transmission usually occurs after the 1st trimester

Answer 286

constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light | associated with tertiary syphilis

Answer 287

nonspecific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin; it is sensitive for syphilis but not specific.

Answer 288

viral infection (mono, hepatitis) drugs rheumatic fever SLE

Answer 289

flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started - due to killed bacteria releasing pyrogens

Answer 290

anaplasmosis from ixodes ticks.

Answer 291

cat scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis from cat scratches.

Answer 292

relapsing fever from louse.

Answer 293

Brucellosis/undulant fever from unpasteruized dairy.

Answer 294

Psittacosis from parrots and other birds.

Answer 295

Q fever from aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid.

Answer 296

Ehrlichiosis from Lone Star ticks.

Answer 297

Tularemia from ticks, rabbits and deer fly.

Answer 298

cellulitis and osteomyelitis from animal bites, cats and dogs.

Answer 299

epidemic typhus from louse.

Answer 300

Rocky Mountain spotted fever from dermacentor ticks.

Answer 301

endemic typhus from fleas.

Answer 302

plague from fleas.

Answer 303

pleomorphic rod that presents with vaginosis as a gray vaginal discharge with a fishy smell; nonpainful.

Answer 304

sexual activity but is not sexually transmitted.

Answer 305

overgrowth of certain anaerobic bacteria in the vagina.

Answer 306

clue cells, or vaginal epithelial cells covered with the Gardnerella bacteria are visible.

Answer 307

Metronidazole (or Clindamycin to treat anaerobic bacteria).

Answer 308

Doxycycline.

Answer 309

the South Atlantic States (esp. North Carolina). Rash starts at wrists and ankles and spreads to trunk, palms, soles. (caused by Rickettsia rickettsii)

Answer 310

- obligate intracellular | - need CoA and NAD+ because they cannot synthesize ATP

Answer 311

- headache - fever - rash

Answer 312

centrally and then spreads out, sparing the palms and soles.

Answer 313

- monocytes with moulae (berry-like inclusions) in cytoplasm | - rash is rare

Answer 314

- granulocytes with morulae in cytoplasm | - rash is rare

Answer 315

- presents as pneumonia - rash is rare - no arthropod vector

Answer 316

- cannot make their own ATP - obligate intracellular - cause mucosal infections

Answer 317

1. Elementary body (small, dense): infectious, enters cell via endoctyosis and transforms into reticulate body 2. Reticulate body: replicates in cell by fission; reorganizes into elementary body

Answer 318

reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome), follicular conjunctivitis, urethritis and PID.

Answer 319

atypical pneumonia; transmitted by aerosol.

Answer 320

Aziththromycin or Doxycycline

Answer 321

lack muramic acid.

Answer 322

chronic infection, cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa

Answer 323

urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough), neonatal conjunctivitis

Answer 324

Lymphogranuloma venereum - small, painless ulcers on genitals; swollen, painful inguinal LNs that ulcerate

Answer 325

atypical "walking" pneumonia (insidious onset, HA, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstital infiltrate).

Answer 326

- X-ray looks worse than pt - high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) - grown on Eaton agar - more common in pts less than 30 - frequent outbreaks in miliatry recruits and prisons

Answer 327

- macrolide - doxycycline - fluoroquinolone

Answer 328

- no cell wall (thus, penicillin is ineffective) - not seen on gram stain - bacterial membrane contains sterols for stability