Pathology Exam 2 Old Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the average lifespan of a RBC?
A

4 months; 120 days

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2
Q
  1. The term “Hair on end” is used to describe what?
A

a. Thalassemia - sickle cell trait was an option - DONT PICK

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3
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by substituting a Valine with
A

Glutamine
Glutamic acid

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4
Q
  1. Plummer vinson syndrome present with which type of anemia?
A

a. Iron deficiency anemia

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered an autoimmune disease?
A

B12 anemia

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6
Q
  1. What cell is associated with granulomatous tissue?
A

a. Activated Macrophages

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7
Q
  1. When presenting with an oral manifestation, what leukemia has a predilection for gingiva?
A

a. AML - acute myelogenous leukemia

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8
Q
  1. Burkett’s lymphoma is associated with what HHV?
A

HHV-4

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9
Q
  1. What best describes “Multiple myeloma”?
A

a. Punched out holes (radiolucency)

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10
Q
  1. What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis?
A

a. Caseous necrosis

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11
Q
  1. What is associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
A

a. Panacinar emphysema

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12
Q
  1. Gumma is associated with what?
A

Tertiary Syphilis

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13
Q
  1. What is associated with Regeneration of the Liver?
A

a. Hyperplasia

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14
Q
  1. What is a periapical pathosis that is present as a radiolucency and has epithelial lining?
A

a. Periapical cyst

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15
Q
  1. What gene translocation is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A

a. t(9:22)
philadelphia chromosome

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16
Q
  1. All of the following is associated with Plummer-vinson EXCEPT:
A

a. Pernicious anemia
(affects Scandinavian European women, iron deficiency
anemia, esophageal webs, dysphagia, increased risk of seuqmous cell carcinoma)

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17
Q
  1. What is a common tumor of the lungs?
A

a. Metastatic

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18
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?
A

a. Resorption

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19
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within the pleural cavity?
A

Compression

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20
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?
A

a. Contraction

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21
Q
  1. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure
A

a. Both statements are false

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22
Q
  1. A patient has type 1 diabetes to which they have to regularly take insulin shots. What type of
    disease would this be classified as?
A

a. Metabolic disease

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23
Q
  1. Hyperplastic candidiasis is best described as
A

d. White plaque that cannot be wiped off

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following Hepatitis are transmitted “Enterically”?
A

a. Hep A → (Hep E is also correct, but was not option on our exam)

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25
Q
  1. What is the initial step to cause thrombosis to occur?
A

a. Injury to endothelial cells

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26
Q
  1. Is the most common anemia?
A

a. Iron deficiency

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27
Q
  1. What blood type is the universal donor?
A

O

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28
Q
  1. What low-grade lymphoma can be associated with patients with Sjorgens?
A

a. MALT lymphoma

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29
Q
  1. What is the most common leukemia present in children? → asked (2x)
A

ALL (acute lymphoblastic leukemia)

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30
Q
  1. Thrombocytopenic purpura platelet count would be
A

a. Below normal
Normal - 50,000-100,000

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31
Q
  1. This is associated with respiratory droplets
A

a. Covid-19

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the portal triad?
A

Arteriole

IS:
b. Hepatic artery
c. Portal vein
d. Bile

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the hepatocyte?
A

a. Lipid metabolism
b. Produces bile
c. Protein synthesis

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34
Q
  1. This is the yellow coloration of the gingiva
A

Jaundice

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of cholesterol stones?
A

Insulin accumulation

IS-
a. Female
b. dyslipidemia
c. insulin resistance
d. gallbladded stasis

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36
Q

Decreased number of neutrophils

A

Neutropenia

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37
Q

Name 3 type of lung cancer?

A
  • Small cell carcinoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Adenocarcinoma
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38
Q

Infection of the blood

A

septicemia

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39
Q

Most common neoplasm of liver

A

-Hepatocellular carcinoma

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40
Q

COPD consists of:

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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41
Q

Oral pigmentation

A

Addisons

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42
Q

What is co-associated with Hep D?

A

HepB

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43
Q

Step ladder

A

Sickle cell anemia

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44
Q

Which of these is not innate immunity?

A

CD4 T lymphocyte

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45
Q

Graves disease

A

Type II hypersensitivity hyperthyroidism

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46
Q

Major clinical consequence of atherosclerosis?

A

Stroke

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47
Q

Someone with hashimotos is prone to developing:

A

Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

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48
Q

Most pain receptors?

A

Pleural lining
NOT PLEURAL SPACE

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49
Q

Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone?

A

serotonin

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50
Q

chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what?

A

Compensatory hyperPLASIA of bone marrow

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51
Q

kid regularly has aphthous ulcerations to tongue, chronic gingivitis, and bone loss?

A

Cyclic neutropenia

52
Q

Which anemia considered autoimmune disease?

A

vitamin b12 anemia aka pernicious anemia (on 2021 exam)

OR… but only if the above isnt an option Hemolytic anemia

53
Q

In viral infection, which WBC is elevated?

A

Leukocyte

54
Q

What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils?

A

Neutropenia

55
Q

Which high grade lymphoma has a predilection for the jawbone of children and is associated with herpes IV?

A

a. Burkett’s lymphoma

56
Q

A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as

A

multiple myeloma

57
Q

Name one medication that impairs ability to platelets to aggregate

A

Aspirin

58
Q

Name three types of atelectasis?

A

Resorption, compression, contraction

59
Q

Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?

A

Panacinar

60
Q

Hep A considered STD?

A

True

61
Q

25 yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent and dilacerated
roots. When pt returned… cluster of painful small ulcerations that began as vesicles
were noted on herd palate. On palpation, this lesions no indurated and didn’t have rolled border…. Or symptoms. Which of following is most appropriate dx?

A

a. Recurrent herpetic infection

62
Q

What’s the name of oral lesion in secondary syphilis?

A

a. Mucous patch

63
Q
  1. Increase in overall size of tissue due to increase in size of cells.
A

a. hypertrophy.
Pretty sure this is hyperplasia. Hypertrophy doesn’t have an increase in cells - it’s the muscle one from working out.

64
Q

Name 2 periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with
a non-vital tooth

A

a. Periapical cyst and periapical granuloma

65
Q

Vomiting of fresh red blood is called…

A

Hematemesis

66
Q

Macroglossia is caused by

A

Amyloidosis

67
Q

An escape of blood is called

A

Hemorrhage

68
Q

Major contributor of osmotic colloid pressure

A

Albumin

69
Q

Edema present in right side heart failure?

A

Pitting edema (left would cause pulmonary edema)

70
Q

Organ that is edema is not tolerated in

A

Brain and lungs

71
Q

Hemorrhage into skin and mucosa sizes

A

Petechia < purpura < ecchymosis

72
Q

Unwanted blood clot

A

Thrombus

73
Q

Dislodgement and travel of thrombus

A

Embolism

74
Q

Which is the most likely to metastasize?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

75
Q

Grading done by pathologist, staging done by clinician

A

Both true

76
Q

You can diagnose SCC clinically

A

False

77
Q

Complete loss of blood supply that leads to necrosis?

A

Infarct

78
Q

Keloid is made of

A

Collagen

79
Q

Which of the following is due to a defect in fibrillin?

A

Marfan syndrome

80
Q

Which of the following expresses assymetry

A

Parry romberg

81
Q

Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract.
Pyelonephritis is an immune complex mediated disease

A

False, false

82
Q

Neutropenia susceptible to what

A

Bacterial infections

83
Q

Most common neoplasm of the liver

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

84
Q

High levels of erythropoietin

A

Polycythemia

85
Q

Renal failure leads to anemia why?

A

Kidney failure to produce erythropoietin

86
Q

A two-year old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low grade fever. The mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemle skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis

A

Wilm’s tumor/disease

87
Q

Universal recepient blood type

A

AB

88
Q

Most common benign neoplasm of breast

A

Fibroadenoma

89
Q

All of the following are risk factors for MI or atherosclerosis except:

A

Aneurysm NOT a risk factor, it is a consequence

90
Q

alpha fetoprotein is a marker for

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

91
Q

Surfactant is secreted by

A

Type II pneumocytes

92
Q

When a thrombus becomes dislodged from a vessel and travels to another site in the vasculature, this is called…

A

Embolization

93
Q

Undesired clotting of blood is termed

A

Thrombosis

94
Q

Increased edema is due to which of the following? (pressure)

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure
decreased colloid osmotic pressure

95
Q

lymphatic filtration occurs in which compartment?

A

Interstitial

96
Q

What compartment holds the most fluid?

A

Intracellular

97
Q

What is the major contributor to colloid osmotic pressure in vasculature?

A

Albumin

98
Q

Thrombus on the valves of the heart are called

A

Vegetations

99
Q

Which of the following works with blood pressure?

A

Renin

100
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?

A

Fibroadenoma

101
Q

Nephrotic syndrome has all of the following:

A

Proteinuria
Lipiduria
Hyperlipidemia

NOT: hyperalbuminemia

102
Q

What is the most common site of orothelial carcinoma?

A

Bladder

102
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Type III (immune mediated)

103
Q

Breast cancer frequently occurs

A

Upper outer quadrant

104
Q

Risk of squamous cell carcinoma EXCEPT

A

HPV 6&11

105
Q

HPV 16 and 18 associated with what

A

Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

106
Q

Cyst with all 3 germ layers

A

Teratoma

107
Q

Uterine mass =

A

Leiomyoma

108
Q

Some tumors such as renal cell carcinoma may inappropriately secret supraphysiologic levels of erythropoietin. The results could be:

A

Polycythemia

109
Q

It is recommended to get vaccinated against HPV subtypes 16 and 18 to prevent?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

110
Q

What percentage of men develop prostate cancer by the age of 80?

A

70%

111
Q

In Condyloma acuminatum, HPV 6 + 11 is the most common type. It is a common sexually transmitted disease

A

Both statemetnts are true

112
Q

malignant Glandular epithelium

A

adenocarcinoma

113
Q

High risk for head and neck malignancy?

A

Plummer vinson

114
Q

What is true of atherosclerosis?

A

Plaque weakens the lumen

115
Q

Krunkenberg location

A

Ovaries

116
Q

patients with Barrett’s esophagus are at risk of developing what type of malignant disease?

A

adenocarcinoma

117
Q

55 year old with swollen gingiva and bruising

A

AML (acute myelogenous leukemia)

118
Q

all of the following are associated with hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT?

A

bones
stones
groans
moans

everything else is NOT hyperparathyroidism

119
Q

secondary thrombus

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

120
Q

are patients more likely to present with benign or malignant salivary gland neoplasm?

A

benign

121
Q

[T/F] right lung has 2 lobes.

A

right lung has 3 lobes (superior, middle, inferior)

122
Q

[T/F] sarcomas travel by hematogenous route & end in lungs. carcinomas travel via lymphatics & end up in lymph nodes.

A

both true

123
Q

What is true of fatty streak

A

Complication would be thrombus?

124
Q

Tetracycline staining is an example of

A

Intrinsic stain

125
Q

Virchow’s triad does not include

A

Epithelium
(does include: endothelial injury, stasis or turbulent blood flow, and hypercoagulability)