Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MODULE 2 - Natural Defences > PATHOLOGY- Blood > Flashcards

PATHOLOGY- Blood Flashcards

- Anaemia (Regenerative and Non-regenerative) - Erythrocytosis - Leukocyte abnormalities - Haematopoietic Neoplasia (Leukaemia) - Haemostasis abnormalities diagnostic tests - Common Haemostasis disorders

1
Q

What do mean corpuscular volume (MCV) results determine?

A

The average erythrocyte size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) results determine?

A

The average haemoglobin concentration in each erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) results determine?

A

The average haemoglobin concentration relative to the size of the erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is anaemia?

A

Anaemia is a condition in which the number of erythrocytes or the haemoglobin concentration within them is lower than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which tests indicate anaemia?

A

RBC, Hb, PCV results below the reference range all indicate anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute anaemia?

A

Pallor (pale mucous membranes)
Tachycardia
Muscular weakness
Subnormal temperature
Coma
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the clinical signs of chronic anaemia?

A

Lethargy
Exercise intolerance
Tachycardia
Syncope
Pallor (pale mucous membranes)
Cardiac murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two types of regenerative anaemia?

A

Haemorrhagic anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How could you determine if anaemia is regenerative from a blood smear?

A

Reticulocytes (macrocytic, hypochromic cells)
Polychromasia
Anisocytosis
Sometimes nucleated cells
Basophillic stippling (in cattle)
Howell-jolly bodies
Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(T/F) Reticulocytes are not produced in horses

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are four causes of acute haemorrhagic anaemia?

A

Trauma
Surgery
Coagulation disorders
Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are five causes of chronic haemorrhagic anaemia?

A

Gastrointestinal lesions
Ulcers
Neoplasms
Coagulation disorders
Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the degree of regeneration differ between external and internal haemorrhage?

A

Internal blood loss: more pronounced regenerative response as the components of the lost erythrocytes are still present in the body for regeneration

External blood loss: less pronounced regenerative response as the components of the lost erythrocytes are lost to the environment so aren’t present in the body for regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some of the indicators of haemorrhagic anaemia that you could find on a blood smear/haematology report?

A

Reticulocytes
Polychromasia
Anisocytosis
Howell-jolly bodies
Thrombocytosis
Neutrophilia
Panhypoproteinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two kinds of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Extravascular lysis
Intravascular lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the progression of haemolytic anaemia due to extravascular lysis

A

Damaged or abnormal erythrocytes are cleared from the circulation by hepatic and splenic macrophages. This can cause splenic enlargement and even cause macrophages in the spleen to engulf normal erythrocytes

Bilirubin can also accumulate due to the overwhelming saturation of albumin caused by the rapid lysis of the erythrocytes and jaundice can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the progression of haemolytic anaemia due to intravascular lysis

A

The lysis of erythrocytes within the circulation with the release of cell contents into the plasma.

Free haemoglobin in the blood causes haemoglobinaemia (red plasma). Free haemoglobin binds to haptoglobin proteins to be filtered out of the body via the liver but these proteins quickly become saturated due to the rapid lysis of the erythrocytes. Saturation of the haptoglobin proteins leaves the haemoglobin to flow free in the bloodstream and travel to the kidneys causing haemoglobinuria (red urine) and nephrosis

Bilirubin can also accumulate due to the overwhelming saturation of albumin caused by the rapid lysis of the erythrocytes and jaundice can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the five causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Inherited (very rarely)
Infectious agents
Toxic substance ingestion/oxidative damage
Immune-mediated
Fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can haemolytic anaemia caused by infectious agents be confirmed?

A

Identification of pathogen on a blood smear
PCR test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe how toxic substance ingestion/oxidative damage can cause haemolytic anaemia

A

The ingestion of oxidative substances leads to the oxidation of glutathione and then of the iron bound to haem (Fe2+ to Fe3+), causing methaemoglobinaemia which cannot bind O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the appearance of blood with methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Chocolate brown coloured blood is indicative of methaemoglobinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can be an indicator of haemolytic anaemia caused by toxic substance ingestion/oxidative damage that can be identified on a blood smear?

A

Heinz bodies (aggregates of denatured haemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia?

A

An immune response against the natural iso-antigens present on the erythrocyte surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some of the causes of immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia?

A

Blood transfusion reactions
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Idiopathic
Immunopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an indicator of immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia that could be identified on a blood smear?

A

Spherocytes (rounded erythrocytes caused by partial phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some of the diagnostic tests that can be done to identify immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia?

A

Direct Coombs test
Slide agglutination test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

When the maternal antibodies are absorbed by the neonate through colostrum and destroy the neonate erythrocytes
This occurs when the mother’s blood type is different from the newborn and the mother has been previously sensitised to the neonates blood type (through previous pregnancy, blood transfusion etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In which animals is neonatal isoerythrolysis most common in?

A

Cats and horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is fragmentation haemolytic anaemia?

A

Intravascular haemolysis of erythrocytes due to excessive trauma caused by damaged/abnormal vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are two of the causes of fragmentation haemolytic anaemia?

A

Thrombus
Neoplasms/neoplastic metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can be an indicator of fragmentation haemolytic anaemia that could be identified on a blood smear?

A

Schistocytes (fragmented erythrocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the cause of non-regenerative anaemia?

A

Bone marrow disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give two examples of primary bone marrow disorders

A

Aplastic anaemia
Bone marrow neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give three examples of secondary bone marrow disorders

A

Nutritional deficiencies
Inflammation
Chronic renal failure

35
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Reduced cellularity of the bone marrow

36
Q

Describe the two types of aplastic anaemia

A

Pancytopenia: a reduction or absence of multiple blood cell lines
Red cell aplasia: a reduction or absence of the erythrocyte cell line

37
Q

What are some of the causes of pancytopenia?

A

Drugs/chemicals
Radiation
Infectious agents
Neoplasia
Idiopathic

38
Q

What are some of the causes of red cell aplasia?

A

Immune mediated
Infectious agents
Erythropoietin (EPO) replacement therapy
Pre-leukaemic conditions

39
Q

How can an iron deficiency cause non-regenerative anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency interferes with haemoglobin production, resulting in the production of microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes

40
Q

What are some of the common causes of iron deficiency that can lead to anaemia?

A

Decreased iron intake (common in young mammalian animals on a milk diet) or chronic haemorrhage

41
Q

What are some of the causes of anaemia of inflammation?

A
  • Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) production due to cytokine mediated inhibition
  • Decreased pluripotent stem cell differentiation due to cytokine mediated inhibition
42
Q

How can chronic renal failure cause anaemia?

A

Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) production in the kidneys

43
Q

What is erythrocytosis?

A

An abnormal increase in erythrocytes

44
Q

What are the two types of erythrocytosis?

A

Absolute (primary or secondary) erythrocytosis
Relative erythrocytosis

45
Q

What is relative erythrocytosis?

A

Relative erythrocytosis is a decrease in the blood plasma volume

46
Q

What are the two causes of relative erythrocytosis?

A

Dehydration
Splenic contraction

47
Q

What is primary absolute erythrocytosis?

A

Abnormal erythrocyte production by the bone marrow without the influence of external factors

48
Q

What causes primary absolute erythrocytosis?

A

Chronic myeloproliferative disorder

49
Q

What is secondary absolute erythrocytosis?

A

An excessive production of erythropoietin (EPO) leading to an increase in erythrocyte production

50
Q

What is left shift?

A

When there is a high neutrophil demand, immature (band) neutrophils can be released from the bone marrow

51
Q

What is the difference between regenerative and degenerative left shift?

A

Regenerative left shift: mainly mature neutrophils with few band forms
Degenerative left shift: mainly band neutrophils present in comparison to the mature neutrophils

52
Q

Describe the physiological response seen on a leukogram

A

Mild mature neutrophilia, lymphocytosis and monocytosis

53
Q

What commonly results in a physiological response on a leukogram?

A

Secondary to adrenaline release
Common in young, excited animals

54
Q

Describe the stress response seen on a leukogram

A

Mild to moderate mature neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, monocytosis (sometimes)

55
Q

What commonly results in a stress response on a leukogram?

A

Endogenous or exogenous corticosteroids

56
Q

Describe the inflammatory response seen on a leukogram

A

Mild to marked neutrophilia, lymphopenia and monocytosis Left shift
Toxic change

57
Q

What can be seen on a blood sample that could identify toxic change?

A

Dohle bodies
Increased cytoplasmic basophilia
Cytoplasmic vacuolation
Toxic granulation
Cellular and nuclear swelling
Annular nuclei (ring nuclei)

58
Q

Why do ruminants typically see transient neutropenia in the initial stages of inflammation?

A

Ruminants have a small neutrophil storage in their bone marrow so when there is an inflammatory response their stores are emptied very fast. This results in a lag phase until the bone marrow can produce enough neutrophils

59
Q

Which species are more capable of a marked neutrophilia?

A

Dogs and cats > Horses > Ruminants

60
Q

When would neutrophilia occur?

A

Physiological response (excitement)
Stress
Inflammation

61
Q

When would neutropenia occur?

A
  • Ruminants experience transient neutropenia in response to an inflammatory response
  • Severe, overwhelming inflammation
  • Bone marrow disorders
  • Immune-mediated
62
Q

Why is neutropenia so clinically significant?

A

Animals with neutropenia are more susceptible to infection

63
Q

When would eosinophilia occur?

A

In response to IL-5 cytokine secretion from T-lymphocytes
Histamine secretion from mast cells
Parasitic infection
Allergy/hypersensitivity reactions

64
Q

When would eosinopenia occur?

A
  • Exogenous or endogenous steroid inhibit mast cell degranulation and histamine release
  • Stress
65
Q

When would monocytosis occur?

A

Physiological response (excitement)
Stress
Inflammation
Monocytic leukaemia (rare)

66
Q

When would lymphocytosis occur?

A

Physiological (excitement)
Post-vaccination
Infectious agents
Lymphoid leukaemia (rare)

67
Q

When would lymphopenia occur?

A

Acute inflammation
Stress
Infectious agents

68
Q

How does haematopoietic neoplasia occur?

A

Caused by an accumulation of mutations which can lead to clonal proliferation of mutated haematopoietic progenitor cells

69
Q

List the different tumour groups categorised within haematopoietic neoplasia?

A

Leukaemia
Lymphoma
Plasma cell tumours
Histiocytic disease
Mast cell tumours

70
Q

Which viruses have the ability to cause haematopoietic neoplasia?

A

Retroviruses
Herpesviruses

71
Q

What are the different classifications of lymphoid leukaemia?

A

B-lymphocytic leukaemia
T-lymphocytic leukaemia

72
Q

What are the different classifications of myeloid leukaemia?

A

Erythroid leukaemia
Ganulocytic leukaemia
Monocytic leukaemia
Megakarocytic leukaemia

73
Q

What is subleukaemic leukaemia?

A

Subleukaemic leukaemia is when the neoplastic cells don’t move from the bone marrow into the bloodstream

74
Q

What are five of the clinical consequences of leukaemia?

A

Myelophthisis
Extramedullary haematopoiesis
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Haemodynamics

75
Q

What is myelophthisis?

A

Myelophthisis is the replacement of bone marrow cells with neoplastic cells

76
Q

What is extramedullary haematopoiesis?

A

Extramedullary haematopoiesis is erythrocyte production outside of the bone marrow

77
Q

What are haemodynamics?

A

Haemodynamics is the thickening of the blood due to a high leukocyte count, impairing the blood flow through the vasculature

78
Q

What are the eight clinical signs of acute leukaemia?

A

Lethargy
Anorexia
Weight loss
Haemorrhage from nose/mouth
Pyrexia
Lameness
Melaena
Neurological signs

79
Q

On a physical exam, what are some of the clinical signs of acute leukaemia?

A

Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Pallor
Enlarged lymph nodes
Petechiae/ecchymoses (bleeding into the skin and tissue)

80
Q

What are the clinical signs of chronic leukaemia?

A

Gradual weight loss
Lethargy
Possible mild splenomegaly/hepatomegaly
May be asymptomatic

81
Q

What does bleeding time test for?

A

Vascular and platelet disorders

82
Q

What does whole blood clotting time test for?

A

Severe deficiencies of one or more coagulation factors (doesn’t specify if its the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway)

83
Q

What does an activated partial prothrombin test detect?

A

Intrinsic coagulation and final common pathway defects

MODULE 2 - Natural Defences (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions