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Principles > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenesis is defined as…

A

The sequence of events from a healthy state to clinical disease

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2
Q

Some sequelae of coronary artery thromobosis are?

A

Myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, ischaemia, angina, heart failure

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3
Q

Physical characteristics of inflammation include…

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

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4
Q

Redness and heat assoc with inflammation is due to…

A

Vasodilation within the damaged area, causing increased blood flow and as a result skin temperature

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5
Q

Necrosis is defined as…

A

(premature) Cell death

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6
Q

Apoptosis is defined as…

It is useful because…

A

Programmed cell death

Get rid of damaged, dead cells and debris

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7
Q

Resolution is complete restoration of inflamed tissue. Factors favouring this include…

A

Minimal cell death/damage
Occurrence in an organ/tissue with good regenerative capacity
Short duration/rapid destruction of causal agent

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8
Q

Suppuration is…

A

The formation of pus, made up of living cells, dying cells, dead neutrophils, debris and bacteria

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9
Q

Organisation of tissues after inflammation is their replacement by _____ tissue

A

Granulation

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10
Q

Describe how granulation tissue is formed?

A

Capillaries grow into the inflammatory exudate with macrophages and fibroblasts
Angiogenesis, fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis (forms scars) occurs
Processes regulated by GFs (TNF, EGF)

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11
Q

Permanent cells are more susceptible to mutations. True/False?

A

False

Dividing cells are more susceptible - e.g. skin, gut, bone, hair cells

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12
Q

p53 is important in DNA repair. What does it do?

A

Recognises a base pair sequence alteration and triggers cell death when the DNA is damaged

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13
Q

Free radicals are dangerous to membrane integrity. What do they do?

A

Lipid peroxidation - bind to lipids and reduce their solubility
Broccoli and cabbage have high anti-oxidants that scavenge and destroy free radicals

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14
Q

An example of an area where liquifactive/colliquative necrosis would occur?

A

Brain

Liquid myelin sheath of nerve fibres remains after brain substance dies

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15
Q

An example of caseous necrosis?

A

Tuberculosis

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16
Q

An example of an area where fibrinoid necrosis would occur?

A 
Blood vessels (most common in liver)
Walls replaced by fibrin
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17
Q

Principle causes of acute inflammation include…

A

Bacterial and viral infections
Hypersensitivity
Trauma
Chemicals and irritants

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18
Q

The 3 phases of acute inflammation are:

A

Vascular - vasodilation and increased permeability
Exudative - fluid and cells escape from venules
Cellular - neurophils etc accumulate

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19
Q

What happens in transendothelial migration?

A

Neutrophils insert part of their cytoplasm into endothelium when they come into contact with ICAM-1

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20
Q

What is the effect of histamine?

What is it released by?

A

Vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction
Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

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21
Q

Chronic inflammation is associated with the presence of…

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells

Formation of granulation tissue -> fibrosis

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22
Q

Characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation include…

A

Ulcer formation
Abscess cavities/suppurative inflammation
Granulomatous inflammation
Fibrosis

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23
Q

A granuloma is defined as…

A

An aggregate of epitheloid histiocytes (macrophages etc)

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24
Q

Labile cells are cells that only multiply upon receiving a stimulus. True/False?

A

False

Multiply continually - stable cells only multiply after stimulus

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25
Q

First intention healing is when there is an ulcerated surface. True/False?

A

False

Surgical scar is left - minimal granulation tissue and fibrosis

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26
Q

Inherited metabolic disorders are usually autosomal dominant. True/False?

A

False

Autosomal recessive!

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27
Q

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent. True/False?

A

True

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28
Q

Type 1 Diabetes has no autoimmune assoc. True/False?

A

False

Type 2 has no autoimmune assoc.

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29
Q

Hyperplasia is defined as…

A

Enlargement due to increase in cell number

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30
Q

Hypertrophy is defined as…

A

Enlargement due to increase in cell size (no increase in cell number)

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31
Q

Atrophy is defined as…

A

Reduction in size due to decrease in cell size and number

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32
Q

Hypoplasia is defined as…

A

Reduced size of an organ that never fully developed to normal size
(failure of organ development)

33
Q

Which out of hyperplasia, hypoplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy are potentially reversible?

A

Hyperplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy

34
Q

Metaplasia is defined as…

A

Altered differentiation, where a mature cell type transforms into another cell type

35
Q

In Barrett’s oesophagus, ____ epithelium is replaced by ____ epithelium

A

Squamous, glandular

36
Q

Stable cells divide upon stimulation. Examples include…

A

Hepatocytes

Fibroblasts

37
Q

Permanent cells are not able to divide further. Examples include…

A

Neurones
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle

38
Q

Senescence is defined as…

A

Deterioration of function of cells

39
Q

Some characteristics of benign neoplasms

A 
Resemble normal
No invasion
Well differentiated
Normal mitotic figures
DO NOT METASTASISE
40
Q

Some characteristics of maligant neoplasms

A

Invasive
Varied differentiation
Abnormal mitotic figures
Necrosis is common

41
Q

Carcinomas are derived from mesenchymal cells/tissues. True/False?

A

False

Derived from epithelial tissue

42
Q

Sarcomas are derived from which type of tissue?

A

Mesenchymal tissue

43
Q

Squamous papillomas and adenomas are examples of which neoplasms?

A

Benign

44
Q

Neoplastic cells are monoclonal. What does this mean?

A

All cells in the lesion are derived from a single common ancestor

45
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Disordered Growth - A pre-malignant process that involves altered differentiation

46
Q

What is angiogenesis?

A

Formation of new blood vessels

Angiogenesis signal: VEGF

47
Q

What happens when angiogenesis becomes pathological?

A

Control of formation is lost - vessels formed are abnormal (i.e. leaky)

48
Q

What are the modulators of angiogenesis? What is the inhibitor?

A

Hypoxia, VEGF, TNFa

Thrombospondin-1 is the inhibitor

49
Q

Sarcomas metastasise by which route?

A

Haematogenous

50
Q

How can radiation cause cancer?

A

Causes oxidative stress, producing free radicals which damage DNA and other cells

51
Q

Name some examples of classical proto-oncogenes (stimulate cell division)

A

PDGF
ras
src

52
Q

Name some examples of tumour suppressor genes

A

p53

BRCA-1

53
Q

A daughter with mother with breast cancer at aged 70 is an example of a medium risk patient. True/False?

A

False

Low risk

54
Q

An individual with a BRCA1 mutation is an example of a high risk patient. True/False?

A

True

55
Q

Well differentiated tumours tend to have a better prognosis. True/False?

A

True

56
Q

Duke’s Stage A means…

A

Cancer is confined to wall

57
Q

Duke’s Stage B means…

A

Cancer penetrates wall

58
Q

Duke’s Stage C means…

A

Lymph node metastasis

59
Q

Duke’s Stage D means…

A

Metastatic disease

60
Q

T1 staging means…

A

Invasion of submucosa

61
Q

T2 staging means…

A

Invasion of muscularis propria

62
Q

T3 staging means…

A

Invasion of tissues

63
Q

T4 staging means…

A

Invasion of nearby organs

64
Q

N0 staging means…

A

No lymph node metastasis

65
Q

N1 staging means…

A

1-3 lymph nodes affected

66
Q

N2 staging means…

A

4+ lymph nodes affected

67
Q

Which type of emboli are associated with significant injury?

A

Fat

68
Q

How large does an air/gas embolus have to be to cause a functional effect?

A

100ml

69
Q

Which type of embolus is a rate complication of child birth?

A

Amniotic

70
Q

What fungus associated with peanuts are carcinogenic?

A

Aflatoxin

71
Q

What chemical associated with dyes are carcinogenic? What type of cancer is it commonly associated with?

A

Beta-napthylamine

Bladder cancer

72
Q

What is the common mechanism used by cancer sells to resist cell death?

A

BCL-2 upregulation which binds Bax/Bak

73
Q

What is the common mechanism used by cancer sells avoid immune destruction?

A

Upregulation of Programmed Death - Ligand 1 (PD-L1) to inhibit T cell proliferation

74
Q

Describe the extrinsic apoptotic pathway.

A

Death receptor activated (i.e. via TNF, Fas) which activates Caspase 8, which in turn activates Caspase 3

75
Q

Describe the intrinsic apoptotic pathway.

A

Mitochondrial Pathway (i.e. via Bax/Bak) which increases mitochondrial permeability releasing proteins (Cytochome C) that stimulate Caspase 3

76
Q

How does hypoxic injury affect cellular biochemistry?

A

Failure of Na+/K+ ATPase -> increased intracellular K+ leading to swelling
Failure of Ca2+ pump -> increased intracellular Ca2+

77
Q

What is the difference between a blood clot and a thrombosis?

A

Clot - extravascular

Thrombosis - intravascular

78
Q

What role does PTEN have in the cell cycle?

A

Tumour Suppressor - increases p27 transcription; P27 then blocks CDKs and cell cycle progression

79
Q

What is a telomere?

A

TTAGGG repeats that protect chromosome ends and dictate the replication number for a cell (AKA Hayflick Limit)

Principles (9 decks)

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