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Principles > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain…

A

Purple

Stain well due to thick peptidoglycan layer

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2
Q

Gram negative bacteria stain…

A

Pink

Thinner peptidoglycan layer doesn’t retain stain well

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3
Q

Endotoxin is produced by…

A

Gram negative bacteria

Part of the cell wall

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4
Q

Exotoxin is produced by…

A

Gram positive bacteria
Exported from the cell

As well as specific gram negative bacteria such as E.coli, Shigella and V. cholerae

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5
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains are?

A

Streptococci

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6
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters are?

A

Staphylococci

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7
Q

The test to classify different Streptococci spp.?

A

Haemolysis
Alpha (partial) - Strep. pneumoniae + viridans
Beta (complete) - Group A (pyogenes) and B Strep.
Gamma (none) - Enterococcus sp.

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8
Q

Examples of: Alpha-haemolytic Streptococci?

A

Strep. pneumoniae + “viridans” group

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9
Q

Examples of: Beta-haemolytic Streptococci?

A

Group A Strep. (Strep. pyogenes), Group B Strep.

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10
Q

Examples of: Non-haemolytic Streptococci?

A

Enterococcus sp.

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11
Q

The test to distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from other Staph. spp.?

A

Coagulase test
+‘ve = Staph. aureus
-‘ve = other Staph. spp. (common skin commensals)

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12
Q

Treatment of choice for Staph. aureus infection?

A

Flucloxacillin

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13
Q

Examples of gram negative cocci in pairs (diplococci)

A

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (often appears intracellular)

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14
Q

Some examples of Gram negative bacilli

A 
Bordetella
H. influenzae
Coliforms incl. E.coli
Pseudomonas
Campylobacter
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15
Q

Examples of coliforms that are gut commensals

A

E. coli
Klebsiella sp.
Proteus sp.

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16
Q

Examples of coliforms that are gut pathogens

A

Salmonella sp.
Shigella sp.
E. coli 0157 (risk from petting zoos)

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17
Q

The name of the toxin produced by E. coli 0157 is…

A

Verotoxin (VTEC) - or shigella-like toxin

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18
Q

Treatment of choice for coliform infections?

A

First-line: Gentamicin

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19
Q

Examples of strict aerobes (2)

A

Pseudomonas sp. (Gram negative bacilli)

Legionella sp. (Gram negative bacilli)

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20
Q

Examples of strict anaerobes (2)

A

Clostridium spp. (Gram positive bacilli)

Bacteroides spp. (Gram negative bacilli)

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21
Q

Treatment of choice for anaerobic infections?

A

Metronidazole

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22
Q

Genetic variation in bacteria is dangerous because…

A

Resistance to antibiotics may develop.

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23
Q

Gene transfer: Transformation

A

DNA from dead bacteria is taken up by living bacteria and incorporated into plasmids/bacterial chromosome.

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24
Q

Gene transfer: Conjugation

A

Sex pilus forms between bacteria to allow transfer of plasmid DNA.

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25
Q

Gene transfer: Transduction

A

Viruses (or phages) can transfer bacterial DNA between cells they infect.

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26
Q

The 5 methods of spread of infection are…

A

Inhalation, Ingestion, Inoculation, mother to Infant, Intercourse

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27
Q

Viruses contain RNA or DNA, never both. True/False?

A

True

Size of their capsid (protein coat) limits space

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28
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics inhibit cell growth. True/False?

A

False - Kill bacteria directly

bacteriostatic inhibits cell growth

29
Q

Vancomycin is part of which family of antibiotics?

A

Glycopeptides

30
Q

Penicillins, cephalosporins and glycopeptides act on the bacterial ___ ___

A

Cell wall

31
Q

Penicillins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys

32
Q

Benzylpenicillin is given IV and is AKA penicillin V. True/False?

A

False

Penicillin G; phenoxymethyl-penicillin is AKA penicillin V

33
Q

Flucloxacillin is a ___ spectrum antibiotic. Which organisms is it effective against?

A

Narrow

Staph and Strep only (1st line for Staph aureus)

34
Q

Beta lactamase destroys which antibiotic?

A

Amoxicillin

35
Q

Co-amoxiclav is probs the best antibiotic to have on a desert island - why?

A

Treats everything apart from Pseudomonas and MRSA

Can be taken orally or IV

36
Q

Cephalosporins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys + urine

37
Q

Glycopeptides are only active against Gram _ cell walls

A

Positive

38
Q

Can you name the 3 macrolides?

A

Erythromycin, clarythromycin, azythromycin

39
Q

Gentamicin belongs to which class of antibiotics?

A

Aminoglycosides

40
Q

Macrolides are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bacteriostatic, erythromycin safe in pregnancy, liver

41
Q

Gentamicin [aminoglycoside] is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Both bacteriostatic + bactericidal, not safe in pregnancy, urine

42
Q

Name the antibiotics that act on bacterial DNA

A

Metronidazole, trimethoprim +/- sulphanimide, fluoroquinolones

43
Q

Metronidazole is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, treats aerobes/anaerobes

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, anaerobes (Clostridium and Bacteroides)

44
Q

Trimethoprim +/- sulphonamide is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, can be combined with sulphonamide to form _____

A

Bacteriostatic, co-trimoxazole

45
Q

The 4 antibiotics that most commonly cause C diff infection are…

A

Ciprofloxacin
Co-amoxiclav
Clindamycin
Cephalosporins (ceftriaxone)

46
Q

What is the limitation of gram staining?

A

Some bacteria do not stain well e.g. Mycoplasma

47
Q

Name the selective media that preferentially isolates S. aureus

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

48
Q

When is Salmonella Shigella (selective media) used?

A

To inhibit coliform growth

49
Q

Which differential growth media facilitates the identification of Enterobacteriaceae?

A

MacConkay Agar

50
Q

Which differential growth media facilitates the identification of lactose fermenters such as E.coli?

A

Eosin and Methylene Blue (EMB)

51
Q

What are the five moments of hand hygiene?

A 
1 - before patient contact
2- before aseptic task
3 - after risk of body fluid exposure 
4 - after patient contact
5 - after contact with patient surroundings
52
Q

You should never combine bacteriostatic and becteriocidal antibiotics. True/False

A

True

53
Q

What are the disadvantages of penicillin antibiotics?

A

Hypersensitivity
Resistance
Rapid excretion so multiple daily doses required

54
Q

What is clavulanic acid?

A

A ß-lactamase inhibitor - co-administered with amoxicillin (as co-amoxiclav) to enhance action

55
Q

What are the adverse effects of gentamicin?

A

Renal toxicity
CNVIII toxicity - deafness and dizziness
Close blood monitoring required

56
Q

Which antibiotics are excreted by the liver?

A

Macrolides - erythromycin

57
Q

Treatment of MRSA

A

IV Vancomycin

58
Q

Which bacteria causes Scarlet fever?

A

Group A Strep - Strep pyogenes

59
Q

Which groups are at particular high risk of S.pneumoniae infection?

A

Alcoholics and individuals with hyposplenism

60
Q

Treatment of C.difficile

A

Mild - PO Metronidazole

Severe - PO Vancomycin

61
Q

How does N.meningitidis appear on film?

A

Gram negative dipplococci that appear intracellular

62
Q

Treatment of E.coli O157

A

IV Gentamicin, followed my PO Co-trimoxazole

63
Q

How does H.influenzae appear on film?

A

Coccobacillus

64
Q

Which microorganism commonly causes respiratory infections in children?

A

H.influenzae

65
Q

Treatment of H.influenzae

A

Amoxicillin

66
Q

Treatment of Pseudomonas

A

Ciprofloxacin

67
Q

Treatment of Bacteroides

A

Metronidazole

68
Q

What stain is used for Mycoplasma?

A

ZN stain - identifies acid fast bacilli

69
Q

What is the only bacteria to be routinely diagnosed by PCR?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Principles (9 decks)

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