Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

________ is calcium infiltration into normal tissues (ex. Hypervitaminosis D)

A

Metastatic calcification

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2
Q

________ is calcium infiltration into abnormal/damaged tissue (ex. atherosclerosis or atheroma…damage to tunica intima)

A

Dystrophic calcification

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3
Q

________ necrosis occurs from TB

A

Caseous

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4
Q

________ occurs when a membrane is injured which effects ionic transfer. Albuminous.

A

Cloudy Swelling

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5
Q

________ necrosis is associated with infarction (MI)

A

Coagulation

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6
Q

Pancreas issues can be associated with ________ degeneration

A

Enzymatic

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7
Q

A “nutmeg liver” and “Tabby cat heart” both have to do with ________ degeneration

A

Fatty

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8
Q

________ necrosis can be the result of the brain “melting”, tertiary syphilis, leprosy and can also occur to the skin due to certain infections

A

Liquefaction

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9
Q

________ degeneration affects the peripheral nerves and the degeneration occurs next to the Node of Ranvier

A

Wallerian

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10
Q

________ degeneration is most common in skeletal muscle and is where the muscle is replaced by hyaline

A

Zenker’s (waxy)

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11
Q

Match the following terms with their description
Term——————–Description
Karyolysis————Nuclear condensation
Karyorrhexis——–Nuclear rupture
Pyknosis————–Nuclear swelling

A

Term——————–Description
Karyolysis————Nuclear rupture
Karyorrhexis——–Nuclear swelling
Pyknosis————–Nuclear condensation

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12
Q

________ is the absence of an organ (usually a paired organ)

A

Agenesis

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13
Q

________ is where small remnants of an organ is present (but the organ lacks full development)

A

Aplasia

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14
Q

________ is where the organ forms smaller than normal and is defective

A

Hypoplasia

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15
Q

________ is a decrease in size (due to disuse). Seen most commonly in muscle

A

Atrophy

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16
Q

________ in an increase in size (ex. muscle exercise)

A

Hypertrophy

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17
Q

________ is an increase in number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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18
Q

________ is a change from one cell type to another (ex. happens in the lung tissue with smokers)

A

Metaplasia

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19
Q

________ is a change in size, shape/function of a cell and is the last stage before precancerous stage (but is still reversible)

A

Dysplasia

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20
Q

________ is the complete disorganization of a cell (cancer)

A

Anaplasia

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21
Q

Match the following type of collagen to where its found in the body
Collagen——-Location
Type 1———–Disc (Nucleus Pulp.)
Type 2———-Basement Membrane
Type 3———-Bone, Msc, Tendons, Ligs, Ann. Fibrosus
Type 4———-Spleen/Lymph nodes

A
Collagen-------Location
Type 1-----------Bone, Msc, Tendons, Ligs, Ann. Fibrosus
Type 2----------Disc (Nucleus Pulp.)
Type 3----------Spleen/Lymph nodes
Type 4----------Basement Membrane
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22
Q

Type ________ collagen is reticular collagen

A

3

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23
Q

________ is a pneumoconiosis from sand, rock or glass

A

Silicosis

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24
Q

________ is a pneumoconiosis that leads to mesothelioma and malignant tumors

A

Asbestosis

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25
Q

________ is a pneumoconiosis from iron

A

Siderosis

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26
Q

________ is a pneumoconiosis from cotton dust

A

Byssinosis

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27
Q

________ is a pneumoconiosis from mining coal

A

Anthracosis

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28
Q

________ is an endemic fungus on the eastern seaboard (Florida to Nova Scotia)

A

Blastomycosis

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29
Q

Match the following
Silicosis——————Caplans’ Syndrome
Byssinosis—————Ohio/Mississippi Valley fever
Anthracosis————-Rocky Quarry disease
Hystomycosis———-San Joaquin Valley fever
Coccidiomycosis—–Brown Lung

A

Silicosis——————Rocky Quarry disease
Byssinosis—————Brown Lung
Anthracosis————-Caplans’ Syndrome
Hystomycosis———-Ohio/Mississippi Valley fever
Coccidiomycosis—–San Joaquin Valley fever

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30
Q

If sputum analysis yields “Curshmann’s Spirals” or “Charcot Leyden Crystals” then you likely have ________

A

Asthma

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31
Q

________ affects chloride channels and is associated with salty baby syndrome and affects the GI and respiratory mucus linings and exocrine secreations

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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32
Q

________ is where iron gets into lungs due to bleeding

A

Hemosiderosis

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33
Q

________ leads to honeycomb lung

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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34
Q

________ leads to caseous necrosis in the lungs, ghon complex/lesions, granulomas, epithelioid histiocytes and, if spread to the spine = Pott’s disease (and Gibbus deformity if collapsed vertebra

A

TB

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35
Q

________ is associated with vasculitis of the lung and kidney

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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36
Q

________ is associated with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

Emphysema

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37
Q

________ is increased nitrogen in the blood and could be due to decreased tubular excretion of nitrogen

A

Azotemia

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38
Q

________ is most commonly caused by prostate problems or ureter stones

A

Hydronephrosis

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39
Q

aka Nephrolithiasis

A

Kidney stone

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40
Q

Most common kidney stone is ________

A

calcium oxalate

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41
Q

Increased RBCs (and maybe a little protein) in the urine indicates ________

A

Nephritic Syndrome

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42
Q

Increased proteins in the urine indicates ________

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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43
Q

________ is associated with moth-eaten appearance (think soft tissue, not lytic bone tumor)

A

Polycystic kidney

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44
Q

________ is associated with acute tubular necrosis

A

Shock

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45
Q

________ is a mixed tumor (malignant nephroblastoma) of the kidney in children

A

Wilm’s

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46
Q

________ is due to decreased cortisol and is associated with low blood pressure, hyperpigmentation due to increased MSH and fatigue

a. Addison’s
b. Conn’s
c. Cushing’s
d. Goiter

A

a. Addison’s

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47
Q

________ is due to excess aldosterone and is associated with ypertension and water retention

a. Addison’s
b. Conn’s
c. Cushing’s
d. Goiter

A

b. Conn’s

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48
Q

________ is due to excess aldosterone and is associated with hyperadrenia, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae and central obesity

a. Addison’s
b. Conn’s
c. Cushing’s
d. Goiter

A

c. Cushing’s

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49
Q

________ is due to hyperplasia of thyroid cells due to lack of iodine

a. Addison’s
b. Conn’s
c. Cushing’s
d. Goiter

A

d. Goiter

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50
Q

________ is due to hyperthyoroidism and causes exophthalmoses, heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia and hair loss

a. Graves Disease
b. Hashimoto
c. Myxedema
d. Cushin’s

A

a. Graves Disease

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51
Q

________ is due to an autoimmune disorder and leads to hypothyroidism

a. Graves Disease
b. Hashimoto
c. Myxedema
d. Cushin’s

A

b. Hashimoto

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52
Q

________ is associated with hypothyroidism, causes cretinism in a child, cold intolerance, weight gain, bradycardia, loss of lateral 1/3 of eyebrows, and slow mental faculties

a. Graves Disease
b. Hashimoto
c. Myxedema
d. Cushin’s

A

c. Myxedema

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53
Q

________ cancer is associated with HPV

A

Cervical

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54
Q

________ can cause testicular cancer

A

Cryptorchidism

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55
Q

The ovary is the most common site for ________

A

Endometriosis

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56
Q

________ is a condition where the urethra exits on the dorsal surface of the penis

A

Epispadia

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57
Q

________ is a condition where the urethra exits on the ventral surface of the penis

A

Hypospadia

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58
Q

Increased ________ is associated with pregnancy or a hydatidiform mole (non-viable embryo that has implanted)

A

HCG

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59
Q

________ is a tumor of smooth muscle (ex. uterine fibroids)

A

Leiomyoma

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60
Q

________ is associated with anovulation,obesity, hirsutism (esp. hair on body and face)

A

Polycystic ovary disease

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61
Q

________ is associated with mesenchymal/stem cell and is the most common cause of testicular cancer

A

Seminoma

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62
Q

Hutchinson’s teeth, Rhagades, Saddle nose deformity, Sabre blade tibia and interstitial keratitis are the 5 signs of ________

A

Congenital Syphilis

63
Q

________ is the organism associated with acquired syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

64
Q

A hard, singular painless nodule (chancre) on perineum occurs during the ________ stage of acquired syphilis

A

Primary

65
Q

A maculopapular rash and condylomata lata (flat arts on the vulva) occurs during the ________ stage of acquired syphilis

A

Secondary

66
Q

Tabes dorsalis, aortic aneurysm and gummas inclusion body in CNS occurs during the ________ stage of acquired syphilis

A

Tertiary

67
Q

Aka for Argyll Robertson pupil

A

Prostitute’s pupil

68
Q

________ pupil is tonic pupil dilation (mydriasis) due to injury to CNIII Edinger Westphal nucleus

A

Adie’s

69
Q

________ is tonic pupil constriction due to injury to sympathetic cervical ganglia

A

Miosis

70
Q

________ is a soft painful lesion caused by Haemophilus ducreyi [gram (-) coccobacillus]

a. Chancroid
b. Chlamydia
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Gonorrhea

A

a. Chancroid

71
Q

________ is artery hardening

A

Arteriosclerosis

72
Q

________ is hardening due to fat

A

Atherosclerosis

73
Q

Patchy thickening (atheromas) occur at the ________ wall of medium and large arteries, causing them to become thick and lose elasticity

A

Subintimal

74
Q

Which of the following are risk factors of arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis?

a. hypertension
b. smoking
c. diabetes mellitis
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

75
Q

Ateriosclerosis/Atherosclerosis are the main cause for which 2 diseases

A
  1. Ischemic heart disease

2. Cerebrovascular disease

76
Q

________ arteriosclerosis is associated with calcified tunica media and medium sized arteries (ex. femoral, radial and uterine)

A

Monckeberg

77
Q

________ arteriosclerosis is associated with proliferation intima, small vessels and it obliterates artery

A

Obliterans

78
Q

________ arteriosclerosis is the arteriosclerosis of extremities

A

Peripheral

79
Q

________ can be asymptomatic aneurysms or they can put pressure on the lumbar spine

A

AAA

80
Q

________ aneurysms are associated with the Circle of Willis

A

Berry

81
Q

A patient waking up with a throbbing headache (typically in the occipital region could have ________

A

Hypertension

82
Q

Match the following regarding hypertension
Essential—————Earliest phase
Secondary————-Over 40
Benign——————Papilledema, retinal hemorrhages
Malignant————–Na+ retention and periph. resist.

A

Essential—————Over 40
Secondary————-Na+ retention and periph. resist.
Benign——————Earliest phase
Malignant————–Papilledema, retinal hemorrhages

83
Q

Match the following regarding hypertension
Hypertensive disease——Detail
Heart——————————Cotton wool spots
Renal——————————L. vent. hypertrophy
Cerebral————————–Loss of nephrons
Retinal—————————–Thrombosis and strokes

A

Hypertensive disease——Detail
Heart——————————L. vent. hypertrophy
Renal——————————Loss of nephrons
Cerebral————————–Thrombosis and strokes
Retinal—————————–Cotton wool spots

84
Q

________ is the congenital failure of closure between pulmonary artery and aorta

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

85
Q

________ is associated with right ventricular hypertrophy due to lung malfunction

A

Cor Pulmonale

86
Q

_______ is the dextrorotation of the aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy, intraventricular septal defect and pulmonary artery stenosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

87
Q

________ is usually due to a bacterial infection and affects the mitral and aortic valves

A

Rheumatic Fever

88
Q

In Rheumatic Fever, the ________ valve is usually the 1st affected

A

Mitral

89
Q

_______ anemia is associated with iron deficiency, females of child-bearing years, or chronic hemorrhage

A

Microcytic Hypochromic

90
Q

_______ anemia is associated with deficiency of B9 or B12, a loss of parietal cells, reticulocytosis development

A

Macrocytic normochromic

91
Q

________ anemia is associated with B12 absorption deficiency

A

Pernicious

92
Q

Triphasic color change

A

Pallor, cyanosis, rubor

93
Q

________ is associated with esophageal varices

A

Portal hypertension

94
Q

________ are bacteria that cause ulcerations in the stomach

A

H. Pylori

95
Q

________ emboli are due to activities like deep sea diving

A

Air emboli

96
Q

________ emboli can occur in adults with a fractured femur

A

Fat emboli

97
Q

________ is the most common form of non-ischemic cardiomyopathy and is associated with coxsackie virus, chronic anemail, alcoholism, sarcoidosis and pregnancy (3rd Trimester)

a. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
b. Idiaopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Restrictive diastolic disorder

A

b. Idiaopathic dilated cardiomyopathy

98
Q

________ is associated with a heavy muscular hyper-contracting heart, is congenital, Friedreich’s Atasxia, glycogen storage disease and infants of diabetic mothers

a. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
b. Idiaopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Restrictive diastolic disorder

A

a. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder

99
Q

________ is where left ventricular filling is impeded and is associated with amyloidosis, radiation-induced fibrosis and is found in children

a. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
b. Idiaopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Restrictive diastolic disorder

A

c. Restrictive diastolic disorder

100
Q
Match the following
Asbestosis---------------Tin dust
Siderosis-----------------Sugar cane dust
Bagassosis--------------Beryllium dust
Stannosis----------------Iron dust
Berylliosis---------------Asbestos dust
A
Asbestosis---------------Asbestos dust
Siderosis-----------------Iron dust
Bagassosis--------------Sugar cane dust
Stannosis----------------Tin dust
Berylliosis---------------Beryllium dust
101
Q

The 3 symptoms of Horner’s are ________

A
  1. Ptosis
  2. Mitosis
  3. Anhydrosis
102
Q

Whiplash, smoking, asbestos, and a Pancoast tumor can all cause ________

A

Horner’s

103
Q

Match the following regarding pneumonia
Lobular pneumonia———-Common in AIDS pts
Friedlander’s——————-Rusty sputum
Pneumocystis carinii——–Red currant jelly sputum
Pneumococcal—————-MC type of bacterial pneum.

A

Lobular pneumonia———-MC type of bacterial pneum.
Friedlander’s——————-Red currant jelly sputum
Pneumocystis carinii——–Common in AIDS pts
Pneumococcal—————-Rusty sputum

104
Q

________ is associated with mucosal ulcerations and watery stools, is episodic with bloody diarrhea and fever

a. Crohn’s
b. Hirschprung’s
c. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
d. Ulcerative Colitis

A

d. Ulcerative Colitis

105
Q

________ is associated with gas and distention, pencil-thin stools, is episodic with constipation and diarrhea

a. Crohn’s
b. Hirschprung’s
c. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
d. Ulcerative Colitis

A

c. Irritable Bowel Syndrome

106
Q

________ is associated with skip lesions, distal ileum and colon and chronic diarrhea, fever and anorexia

a. Crohn’s
b. Hirschprung’s
c. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
d. Ulcerative Colitis

A

a. Crohn’s

107
Q

________ is associated with skip congenital absence of Meissner’s and Auerbach’s autonomic plexus and could be fatal if not diagnosed in infancy

a. Crohn’s
b. Hirschprung’s
c. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
d. Ulcerative Colitis

A

b. Hirschprung’s

108
Q

Match the following terms with their aka
Term——————————Aka
Crohn’s————————–Congenital megacolon
Hirschprung’s—————–Celiac Sprue
Celiac Disease—————-Regional Enteritis
————————————-Gluten Enteropathy
————————————-Nontropical Sprue

A

Term——————————Aka
Crohn’s————————–Regional Enteritis
Hirschprung’s—————–Congenital megacolon
Celiac Disease—————-Nontropical Sprue
Celiac Disease—————-Gluten Enteropathy
Celiac Disease—————-Celiac Sprue

109
Q

________ is hereditary and is associated with chronic intestinal malabsorption causing mucosal damage

A

Celiac Disease

  • –aka Nontropical Sprue
  • –aka Gluten Enteropathy
  • –aka Celiac Sprue
110
Q

________ is associated with mucosal abnormalities in small bowel, multiple nutritional deficiencies, and a triad of sore tongue, diarrhea, weight loss

A

Tropical Sprue

111
Q

________ is associated with small bowel infection, lymph obstruction, anemia, weight loss, skin pigmentation, diarrhea, joint symptoms, severe malabsorption, abdominal pain, cough, pleuritic pain and affects men aged 30-60

A

Whipple’s Disease

112
Q

_________ is an aggressive peptic ulcer/tumor that can perforate through the lining

A

Zollinger-Ellison

113
Q

________ is found in the ascending colon and produces polyps

A

Gardener’s Syndrome

114
Q

Match the following
Chronic Bronchitis—————Bronchiolitis
Small Airway Disease———-Dead Lung
Emphysema———————–Blue Bloater
Bronchiectasis——————–Pink Puffer

A

Chronic Bronchitis—————Blue Bloater
Small Airway Disease———-Bronchiolitis
Emphysema———————–Pink Puffer
Bronchiectasis——————–Dead Lung

115
Q

Match the following
Glomerulonephritis—————Proeinuria
Pyelonephritis———————-RBCs in blood
Nephrotic Syndrome————WBC casts in blood

A

Glomerulonephritis—————RBCs in blood
Pyelonephritis———————-WBC casts in blood
Nephrotic Syndrome————Proeinuria

116
Q

________ is the most common association with Urethritis

A

E. coli

117
Q

________ is inflammation of the bladder

A

_____Cystitis

118
Q

________ is associated with an infection of the GI/GU region in females

A

PID

119
Q

________ occurs on the lateral lobe of the prostate and is associated with frequency of urination issues and painful dysuria

A

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

120
Q

________ is an inflammation to the prostate gland, often due to gram (-) bacterial infection

A

Prostatitis

121
Q

________ is associated with the posterior lobe of the prostate and can lead to blastic metastasis to the pelvis and lumbar spine

A

Prostate Cancer

122
Q

________ is associated with an abnormal protrusion of tissue

A

Inguinal Hernia

123
Q

________ is associated with inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce

a. Balanitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Phimosis

A

a. Balanitis

124
Q

________ is associated with inflammation of the testicles

a. Balanitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Phimosis

A

c. Orchitis

125
Q

________ is associated with inflammation of the epididymis

a. Balanitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Phimosis

A

b. Epididymitis

126
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is associated with constriction of the foreskin, to the point that it cannot be retracted
epididymis
a. Balanitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Phimosis
A

d. Phimosis

127
Q

________ is associated with generalized swelling in the scrotum

a. Hematocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

A

b. Hydrocele

128
Q

________ is associated with blood in the testes

a. Hematocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

A

a. Hematocele

129
Q

________ is associated with varicose veins and a “bag of worms” appearance

a. Hematocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

A

d. Varicocele

130
Q

________ is associated with localized swelling

a. Hematocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

A

c. Spermatocele

131
Q

________ is associated with painful, persistent, abnormal erection

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epispadia
c. Hypospadia
d. Priapism

A

d. Priapism

132
Q

________ is associated with undescended testicles and increased association with cancer

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epispadia
c. Hypospadia
d. Priapism

A

a. Cryptorchidism

133
Q

________ is associated with urethral defect on the ventral surface of the penis

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epispadia
c. Hypospadia
d. Priapism

A

c. Hypospadia

134
Q

________ is associated with urethral defect on the dorsal surface of the penis

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epispadia
c. Hypospadia
d. Priapism

A

b. Epispadia

135
Q

________ is associated with dysplasia of cavernous sheaths with fibrosis and results in a crooked penis

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Peyronie’s Disease
c. Paraphimosis
d. Priapism

A

b. Peyronie’s Disease

136
Q

________ is associated with “turtle neck”

a. Cryptorchidism
b. Peyronie’s Disease
c. Paraphimosis
d. Priapism

A

c. Paraphimosis

137
Q

________ is secreted during the first half of the cycle to stimulate egg development

a. Estrogen
b. FSH
c. LH
d. Progesterone

A

b. FSH

138
Q

________ is secreted from the pituitary mid-cycle to cause ovulation

a. Estrogen
b. FSH
c. LH
d. Progesterone

A

c. LH

139
Q

________ is associated with proliferation during the first half of the cycle

a. Estrogen
b. FSH
c. LH
d. Progesterone

A

a. Estrogen

140
Q

________ is associated with secretion during the second half of the cycle

a. Estrogen
b. FSH
c. LH
d. Progesterone

A

d. Progesterone

141
Q

________ is associated with ectopic endometrium and painful menstruation

a. Ectopic Pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Pregnancy
d. Salpingitis

A

b. Endometriosis

142
Q

________ is associated with infection of fallopian tubes, under 35 years old, IUD presents increased risk, and ectopic pregnancy

a. Ectopic Pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Pregnancy
d. Salpingitis

A

d. Salpingitis

143
Q

________ is associated with HCG released, chorion and trophoblast

a. Ectopic Pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Pregnancy
d. Salpingitis

A

c. Pregnancy

144
Q

________ is associated with improper implantation, and rupture that could cause sterilization and/or death

a. Ectopic Pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Pregnancy
d. Salpingitis

A

a. Ectopic Pregnancy

145
Q

________ is associated with disorganized, benign mass development instead of a fetus

a. Breast Cancer
b. Hydatidiform Mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Ovarian Tumor

A

b. Hydatidiform Mole

146
Q

________ is associated with disorganized, cancerous mass development instead of a fetus

a. Breast Cancer
b. Hydatidiform Mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Ovarian Tumor

A

c. Choriocarcinoma

147
Q

________ is associated with increase in hormone secrtions, tumor of the ovaries and can occur in women over 50 years old

a. Breast Cancer
b. Hydatidiform Mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Ovarian Tumor

A

d. Ovarian Tumor

148
Q

________ is associated with an increase in obesisty, nulliparous, early menarche, and late menopause

a. Breast Cancer
b. Hydatidiform Mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Ovarian Tumor

A

a. Breast Cancer

149
Q

Match the following
Alveoli—————Microglial cells
Brain—————–Alveolar macrophage
Liver——————Dust cells
Lungs—————-Histocytes or fixed macrophages
Tissue—————Kupffer cells

A

Alveoli—————Alveolar macrophage
Brain—————–Microglial cells
Liver——————Kupffer cells
Lungs—————-Dust cells
Tissue—————Histocytes or fixed macrophages

150
Q

Match the following
IgA—————–Smallest, most numerous
IgG—————–Allergies and parasites
IgE—————–First response, largest
IgM—————-Milk, membranes

A

IgA—————–Milk, membranes
IgG—————–Smallest, most numerous
IgE—————–Allergies and parasites
IgM—————-First response, largest

151
Q
Match the following
Type I-----------------Immune
Type I-----------------T-cell-mediated
Type III-----------------Antibody mediated
Type IV----------------Immediate
A

Type I—————–Immediate
Type I—————–Antibody mediated
Type III—————–Immune
Type IV—————-T-cell-mediated

152
Q
Match the following
Type I-----------------Dermatitis
Type I-----------------SLE, RA
Type III----------------Myasthenia Gravis
Type IV---------------Anaphylaxis
A

Type I—————–Anaphylaxis
Type I—————–Myasthenia Gravis
Type III—————-SLE, RA
Type IV—————Dermatitis

153
Q
Match the following
Neutrophils-------------30%
Lymphocytes-----------2%
Monocytes--------------60%
Eosinophil---------------0%
Basophil------------------8%
A
Neutrophils-------------60%
Lymphocytes-----------30%
Monocytes--------------8%
Eosinophil---------------2%
Basophil------------------0%