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Microbiology - NBS Flashcards

1
Q

Neurtophils, monocytes and macrophages are all examples of ________

A

Phagocytes

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2
Q

________, ________ and ________ are all immune cells that release inflammatory mediators

A

Basophils, Mast Cells, Eosinophils

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3
Q

________ start as a monocyte and present antigens to T Cells

A

Macrophages

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4
Q

________ poduce cytokines, can activate helper and cytotoxic T cells and kill pathogen or tumor cells

A

Macrophages

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5
Q

________ ________ cells can inactivate pathogens

A

Natural Killer

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6
Q

Macrophages are considered part of our ________ Immune System

A

Innate

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7
Q

Killer-/Helper-/Regulatory-T Cells are all part of our ________ Immune System

A

Adaptive

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8
Q

The 3 main types of T cells are ________, ________ and ________

A

Helper T Cells
Killer T Cells
Regulatory T Cells

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9
Q

________ kill virus-infected cells with/without antibody by triggering target cell to “commit suicide”

A

Killer T Cells

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10
Q

________ help in antigen recognition and regulation, secrete cytokines (Interleukin 2 and Interferon Gamma), and activate helper and killer T cells and kill pathogen or tumor cell

A

Helper T Cells

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11
Q

________ help other T cells keep “under control”

A

Regulatory T Cells

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12
Q

Match the correct Type hypersensitivity reaction with its relative brief description
Type———————————-Description
I—————————————–Antibody mediated
II—————————————-T Cell mediated
III—————————————Immediate hypersensitivity
IV————————————–Immune complex mediated

A

Type———————————-Description
I—————————————–Immediate hypersensitivity
II—————————————-Antibody mediated
III—————————————Immune complex mediated
IV————————————–T Cell mediated

Remember the acronym "I AM IT"
I = "I"
II = "AM"
III = "I"
IV = "T"
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13
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgE, mast cells, basophils, allergic mediators and anaphylaxis, hay fever and asthma

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

a. I

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14
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgG, IgM, cause cell lysis and blood group incompatibility, pernicious anemia and myasthenia gravis

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

b. II

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15
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgG, antibody-mediated inflammation and SLE, RA, serum sickness and rheumatic fever

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

c. III

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16
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is delayed and associated with infections, dermatitis, graft rejections, poison oak, and poison ivy

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

d. IV

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17
Q

Match the WHO report with the appropriate year
WHO Report——————————————-Year
SARS out break in China————————–2013
Avian flu outbreak Asia—————————-2012
Hantavirus in Yosemite State Park————2003
Meningitis + West Nile virus———————-2002
Pertusis————————————————–
Norovirus————————————————
Salmonella———————————————-
8.8 million new cases of TB———————-
1.4 million deaths from TB————————

A

WHO Report——————————————-Year
SARS out break in China————————–2002
Avian flu outbreak Asia—————————-2003
Hantavirus in Yosemite State Park————2012
Meningitis + West Nile virus———————-2012
Pertusis————————————————–2012
Norovirus————————————————2013
Salmonella———————————————-2013
8.8 million new cases of TB———————-2013
1.4 million deaths from TB————————2013

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18
Q

________ is where self-reactive lymphocytes are repeatedly stimulated and the result is swollen lymph nodes

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

b. Canale-Smith Syndrome

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19
Q

________ is where self-reactive antibodies bind to receptors for acetylcholine

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

d. Myasthenia gravis

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20
Q

________ is where self-reactive T cells destroy myelin sheaths

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

c. Multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

________ is a chronic inflammation of joints involving IgM-IgG activation of macrophages

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

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22
Q

________ can cause inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage, hair loss, paralysis and convulsions and is caused by the breakdown of B and T cells that make IgG antibodies

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

b. Lupus erythematosus

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23
Q

________ can occur when the thymic tissue is missing, leading to no T cells, making the patient susceptible to life-threatening infections

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

d. DiGeorge Syndrome

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24
Q

________ is where there are no T or B cells

a. AIDS
b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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25
Q

________ is where helper T cells are targeted. Patient is susceptible to Pneumocystis carinii

a. AIDS
b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

a. AIDS

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26
Q

Match the following immunities to the detail
Detail———————————————–Immunity
Live (attenuated) or killed viruses——–Passive-active
Mother’s milk————————————Active
Immune globulins + vaccine—————Passive

A

Detail———————————————–Immunity
Live (attenuated) or killed viruses——–Active
Mother’s milk————————————Passive
Immune globulins + vaccine—————Passive-active

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27
Q

Which type of vaccine is designed not to infect the recipient?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

d. Noninfectious vaccines

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28
Q

Which type of vaccine is Salk an example of?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

d. Noninfectious vaccines

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29
Q

Which type of vaccine is using a weakened form of a microbe an example of?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

a. Attenuated vaccines

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30
Q

Which type of vaccine are most vaccines an example of?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

a. Attenuated vaccines

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31
Q

Which type of vaccine is genetically engineered?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

b. Carrier vaccines

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32
Q

Which type of vaccine is where a single gene from a pathogenic microbe is introduced into a virus and does not cause disease (called a “Trojan horse”)?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

b. Carrier vaccines

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33
Q

Which type of vaccine is where a piece of DNA which has the flu virus gene is injected?

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines

A

c. DNA vaccines

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34
Q

Infections, dermatitis and graft rejections are examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions

A

IV

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35
Q

SLE and RA are examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions

A

III

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36
Q

Match the following acid-fast staining details to their appropriate counterpart
Detail———————————————-Counterpart
Crystal Violet———————————–Mordant
Alcohol rinse———————————–Counterstain
Gram’s iodine———————————-Purple
Safranin——————————————Red
Gram (+)——————————————Primary dye
Gram (-)——————————————-Decolorizer

A

Detail———————————————-Counterpart
Crystal Violet———————————–Primary dye
Alcohol rinse———————————–Decolorizer
Gram’s iodine———————————-Mordant
Safranin——————————————Counterstain
Gram (+)——————————————Purple
Gram (-)——————————————-Red

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37
Q

ELISAs and Western Blot tests are used to test for

a. MLS
b. ALS
c. MS
d. HIV

A

d. HIV

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38
Q

________ presents antigen to T cell

A

Marophages

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39
Q

Anaphylaxis is an example of a Type ________ hypersensitivity reaction

A

I

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40
Q

SLE and RA are both examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions

A

III

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41
Q

Infections and dermatitis are both examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions

A

IV

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42
Q

________ inactivate pathogens

A

Natrual Killer Cells

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43
Q

An ________ is the part of the antigen recognized by the immune system

A

Epitope

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44
Q

The following agency/organization performs epidemiological studies

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

b. Center for Disease Control

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45
Q

The following agency/organization performs research in disease etiology/prevention

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

b. Center for Disease Control

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46
Q

The following agency/organization performs sets recommendations for immunization schedules

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

b. Center for Disease Control

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47
Q

The following agency/organization works with public health organizations of other countries

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

b. Center for Disease Control

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48
Q

The following agency/organization coordinates efforts to improve public health in the world

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

e. World Health Organization

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49
Q

The following agency/organization reviews reports of public health assessment before information is disclosed to the public

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry

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50
Q

The following agency/organization is a special US EPA list of national hazardous waste sites

a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
b. Center for Disease Control
c. Nationally Priorities List
d. U.S. Public Health Service
e. World Health Organization

A

c. Nationally Priorities List

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51
Q

The following department is in charge of chiropractic (and other health modalities) licensure and other health related issues, infected meat, food products recalled

a. Department of Environmental Protection
b. Department of Health
c. Public Health Department

A

b. Department of Health

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52
Q

The following department is in charge of protecting air, water and land

a. Department of Environmental Protection
b. Department of Health
c. Public Health Department

A

a. Department of Environmental Protection

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53
Q

The following department is in charge of servicing healthneeds, especially underprivileged

a. Department of Environmental Protection
b. Department of Health
c. Public Health Department

A

c. Public Health Department

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54
Q

________ is treated polio virus with formaldehyde to kill the virus

A

Salk

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55
Q

________ uses live and attenuated virus for this vaccine

A

Sabin

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56
Q

Match the following bacteria type with the appropriate adjective
Type—————————————-Adjective
Bacilli—————————————Spherical
Cocci—————————————Rod-shaped
Spirochete——————————-Spring
Spirilla————————————-Spiral

A

Type—————————————-Adjective
Bacilli—————————————Rod-shaped
Cocci—————————————Spherical
Spirochete——————————-Spiral
Spirilla————————————-Spring

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57
Q

Match
Living Situation———-Definition
Symbiosis—————–one benefits, other doesn’t care
Mutualism—————–one benefits, other eaten
Parasite——————–both benefit
Commensalism———2 live together ok

A

Living Situation———-Definition
Symbiosis—————–2 live together ok
Mutualism—————–both benefit
Parasite——————–one benefits, other eaten
Commensalism———one benefits, other doesn’t care

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58
Q

________ can be found in custard filled pastry, egg, tuna fish salad and occurs 2-4 hours after infection

A

Staph

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59
Q

________ can be found in improperly canned veges and smoked fish and occurs 18-26 hours after infection

A

Botulism

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60
Q

________ can be found in unpasteurized milk products, hot dogs, lunch meats and occurs up to 2 weeks after infection

A

Listeria

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61
Q

________ can be found in undercooked meat, vegetables, fruit exposed to fecal material and occurs 2 days after infection

A

E. coli

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62
Q

________ can be found in poultry, meats and eggs and occurs 12-48 hours after infection

A

Salmonella

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63
Q

________ can be found in foods and water and occurs 1-2 days after infection

A

Shigella

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64
Q

________ can be found in seafood and water and occurs 1-5 days after infection

A

Cholera

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65
Q

________ can be found in undercooked meat and occurs 3 hours to 3 weeks after infection

A

Francisella tularensis

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66
Q

________ can be found in raw milk, is associated with TB and occurs months to years after infection

A

Mycobacterium bovis

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67
Q

In ________ there is sudden fever, severe headache, seizures, coma and approximately 50% die

a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis
b. Western Equine Encephalitis
c. West Nile
d. Yellow Fever

A

a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis

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68
Q

In ________ there is fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting and approximately 3% die (mostly elderly + infants)

a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis
b. Western Equine Encephalitis
c. West Nile
d. Yellow Fever

A

b. Western Equine Encephalitis

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69
Q

In ________ there is fever, headache, abdominal pain and encephalitis

a. Rift Valley Fever
b. California Encephalitis
c. West Nile
d. Yellow Fever

A

b. California Encephalitis

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70
Q

In ________ there is bleeding and encephalitis

a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Dengue Fever
c. Colorado Tick Fever
d. Yellow Fever

A

a. Rift Valley Fever

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71
Q

________ occurred in Key West, FL in 2010 and is known to cause fever, rash, headache (known as dengue triangle)

a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Dengue Fever
c. Colorado Tick Fever
d. Yellow Fever

A

b. Dengue Fever

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72
Q

________ is known to cause fever, headache and nose bleeds

a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Dengue Fever
c. Colorado Tick Fever
d. Yellow Fever

A

d. Yellow Fever

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73
Q

________ is known to cause fever, headache, chills and eye pain

a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Dengue Fever
c. Colorado Tick Fever
d. Yellow Fever

A

c. Colorado Tick Fever

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74
Q

The following tick-spread disease causes fever, headache, chills and eye pain

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Colorado Tick Fever
c. Lyme Disease

A

c. Colorado Tick Fever

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75
Q

The following tick-spread disease has a classic sign of a bulls eye rash and has been attributed to migraines and joint pain for the rest of a person’s life

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Colorado Tick Fever
c. Lyme Disease

A

c. Lyme Disease

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76
Q

The following tick-spread disease causes a rash on the hands and feet

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Colorado Tick Fever
c. Lyme Disease

A

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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77
Q

________, ________, ________ and ________ are all considered re-emerging diseases

A

TB, Small Pox, Malaria and Mumps

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78
Q

________ is a rabies-like virus that leads to death

A

Lyssa virus

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79
Q

________ (aka Tsutsugamushi fever) causes a maculopapular rash

A

Scrub Typhus

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80
Q

________ is a fatal disease carried by pigs and bats that can lead to encephalitis and respiratory issues

A

Nipah Fever

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81
Q

________, also known as H5N1, or bird flu, leads to flu-like symptoms and can lead to complications and death

A

Avian Influenza

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82
Q

________ comes from a mosquito bite and can lead to encephalitis, high fever, and death

a. Lyssa virus
b. Nipah Fever
c. Chandipura virus
d. Norovirus

A

c. Chandipura virus

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83
Q

________ (aka Norwalk virus) is common in salad, sandwiches, ice, cold cuts, raw/undercooked oysters and clams, has a 1-2 day incubation period, and is estimated to cause 2/3 of all known foodborne illness in the US.

A

Norovirus

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84
Q

Which of the following is not gram positive

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Listeria monocytogene
c. Mycobacterium
d. Haemophilus

A

d. Haemophilus

Recall –> all bacteria that end in “US and UM” are gram positive except the one above

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85
Q

Which of the following is not gram negative

a. Salmonella
b. Listeria
c. Yersinia
d. Neisseria

A

b. Listeria

Recall –> all bacteria that end in “A and IA” are gram negative except the one above

86
Q

________ is known to cause flaccid paralysis

a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

b. Clostridium botulinum

87
Q

________ is known to cause spastic paralysis

a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

c. Clostridium tetani

88
Q

________ is aerobic and associated with Woolsorter’s disease

a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

a. Bacillus anthracis

89
Q

________ is associated with milk and cheese

a. Mycobacterium
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

d. Listeria monocytogene

90
Q

________ is associated with TB and Leprosy

a. Mycobacterium
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

a. Mycobacterium

91
Q

________ (aka C. Welchi) is associated with wounds, brown bubbles under the skin and gas gangrene

a. Camphylobatcer jejuni
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria
d. Clostridium tetani

A

b. Clostridium perfringens

92
Q

________ is associated with Babes Ernst bodies, the Schick test, and a gray pseudomembrane

a. Mycobacterium
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria
d. Listeria monocytogene

A

c. Corynebacterium diphtheria

93
Q

________ is associated with Rheumatic fever, a strawberry tongue and scarlet fever

a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus mutans

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

94
Q

________ is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis

a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus mutans

A

c. Streptococcus viridans

95
Q

________ is associated with neonatal meningitis and can occur at birth

a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus mutans

A

b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

96
Q

________ is associated with dental caries

a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus mutans

A

d. Streptococcus mutans

97
Q

Match the following Ricketts to their aka
Rickettsia Type——————————–Aka
Rickettsia rickettsia————————–Scrub Typhus
Rickettsia prowazekii———————–Epidemic Typhus
Rickettsia typhi——————————–Tick Typhus
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi——————Epidemic Typhus

A

Rickettsia Type——————————–Aka
Rickettsia rickettsia————————–Tick Typhus
Rickettsia prowazekii———————–Epidemic Typhus
Rickettsia typhi——————————–Murine Typhus
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi——————Scrub Typhus

98
Q

________ is the number 1 cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in the US

a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Neisseria meningitides
c. Chlamydia psittaci
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

a. Neisseria gonorrhea

99
Q

________ is the number 1 STD in the US

a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Neisseria meningitides
c. Chlamydia psittaci
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

d. Chlamydia trachomatis

100
Q

________ can be found in hot tubs and is associated with burn infections and blue/green pus

a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Pseudomonal aeruginosa
c. Chlamydia psittaci
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

b. Pseudomonal aeruginosa

101
Q

All of the following are associated with meningitis except

a. Neisseria meeningitidis
b. Haemophilus
c. Strep agaliactiae (group B)
d. Shigella

A

d. Shigella

102
Q

________ is associated with Travelers diarrhea, metallic green sheen, UTI and the symptoms show up after 2 days

a. Eschericia coli
b. Shigella
c. Salmonella
d. Vibrio cholera

A

a. Eschericia coli

103
Q

Match the pathogen to the poop
Pathogen————————–Poop
E. coli——————————-Bacillary dysentery, tenesmus
Shigella—————————-Pea soup diarrhea
Salmonella———————–Rice water stools
Vibrio cholera——————-Traveler’s diarrhea

A

Pathogen————————–Poop
E. coli——————————-Traveler’s diarrhea
Shigella—————————-Bacillary dysentery, tenesmus
Salmonella———————–Pea soup diarrhea
Vibrio cholera——————-Rice water stools

104
Q

________ is associated with the Bubonic Plague and rat fleas

A

Yersinia pestis

105
Q

________ is the number 1 most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and is associated with contaminated beverages and food

A

Camphylobacter jejuni

106
Q

________ is associated with whooping cough and is protected against with the DPT vaccine

A

Bordetella pertussis

107
Q

________ (aka Rabbit Fever) is potentially a dangerous biological terrorist threat

A

Francisella tularensis

108
Q

________ is associated with Pontiac disease, like to hang out in water droplets, and can lead to a pneumonia that will kill a person

A

Legionella

109
Q

________ is the number 1 most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and is associated with meat, poultry and eggs

A

Salmonella

110
Q

_______ (aka Friedlanders) is associated with “red currant jelly” sputum, pneumonia, and typically takes hold in the elderly or immunocompromised people

A

Klebsiella

111
Q

________ is comma-shaped associated with rice water stools and death within 1-2 days but does not enter the blood stream

A

Vibrio cholera

112
Q

Match the following pathogen with their vector
Pathogen—————————————Vector
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever——–Chiggers
Yersinia pestis——————————–Flies
Scrub Typhus———————————Ixodid Ticks
Shigella—————————————–Mosquitos
West Nile—————————————Fleas

A

Pathogen—————————————Vector
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever——–Ixodid Ticks
Yersinia pestis——————————–Fleas
Scrub Typhus———————————Chiggers
Shigella—————————————–Flies
West Nile—————————————Mosquitos

113
Q

Match the following pathogens to their fever
Pathogen—————————–Fever
Rochalimaea quintana———–Q fever
Coxiella burrnetii——————-Rocky Mtn Spotted fever
Ixodid———————————–Trench fever

A

Pathogen—————————–Fever
Rochalimaea quintana———–Trench fever
Coxiella burrnetii——————-Q fever
Ixodid———————————–Rocky Mtn Spotted fever

114
Q

________ is an ornithosis, from parrots and other birds and generates symptoms that are flu-like

A

Chlamydia psittaci

115
Q

________ invades the lymph tissue of the genitalia and is the most common STD in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

116
Q

________ has a sudden acute onset with fever, headache and malaise, and can come from inhaling/drinking dry infected milk or ticks

A

Coxiella burnetii

117
Q

________ causes syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

118
Q

________ causes yaws (ulcerations of the extremities)

A

Treponema pertenue

119
Q

________ causes a relapsing fever, comes from lice, and is an infection via the mucous membranes

a. Borrelia hermsii
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Leptospira interrogans

A

b. Borrelia recurrentis

120
Q

________ comes from a squirrel or chipmunk tick and can be fatal

a. Borrelia hermsii
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Leptospira interrogans

A

a. Borrelia hermsii

121
Q

________ comes from a deer tick and can cause Lyme Disease

a. Borrelia hermsii
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Leptospira interrogans

A

c. Borrelia burgdorferi

122
Q

________ comes from rat urine and can lead to Weil’s Syndrome

a. Borrelia hermsii
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Leptospira interrogans

A

d. Leptospira interrogans

123
Q

Match the following WBC with the pathogen they attack
WBC——————————————Pathogen
Neutrophils——————————–Parasites
Lymphocytes——————————Bacteria
Eosinophils———————————Viruses

A

WBC——————————————Pathogen
Neutrophils——————————–Bacteria
Lymphocytes——————————Viruses
Eosinophils———————————Parasites

124
Q

________ become active inside a cell, take over the cell, and have either DNA or RNA

125
Q

________ is a subunit of the protein coat of a virus particle

126
Q

________ is the protein coat of a virus particle

127
Q

________ is made up of a trilamina lipid membrane

A

Viral Envelope

128
Q

________ are infectious particles made up of only protiens, no nucleic acid and are more resistant than viruses

129
Q

________ cause no immune response or inflammatory response (because your body doesn’t even know they are present) but they can be inactivated by hypochlorite and autoclaving

130
Q

________ can lead to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

131
Q

________ causes upper and lower respiratory tract infections, conjunctivitis and diarrhea

a. Echovirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Adenovirus

A

d. Adenovirus

132
Q

________ causes upper lower respiratory tract infections, pharyngitis, a skin rash and heart disease

a. Echovirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Adenovirus

A

a. Echovirus

133
Q

________ is the common cold

a. Echovirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Adenovirus

A

b. Rhinovirus

134
Q

________ causes pain in the intercostal muscles due to pleural irritation (Devil’s grip), herpangina (vesiculo-ulcerative lesions, myocarditis, pancreatitis and hand-foot-mouth disease and is considered very dangerous

a. Echovirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Adenovirus

A

c. Coxsackie virus

135
Q

________ has an enteric reaction

a. Influenza
b. Coxsackie virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Norovirus

A

b. Coxsackie virus

136
Q

________ is very prone to both antigenic shift and antigenic drift

a. Influenza
b. Coxsackie virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Norovirus

A

a. Influenza

137
Q

________ is part of the Paramyxo family and can lead to bronchiolitis and pneumonia (in children)

a. Influenza
b. Coxsackie virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Norovirus

A

c. Respiratory syncytial virus

138
Q

________ is part of the Paramyxo family and can lead to parotidis and orchitis or oophoritis, leading to possible sterility

a. Influenza
b. Mumps
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Norovirus

139
Q

________ is associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain and lethargy

a. Influenza
b. Mumps
c. Rotavirus
d. Norovirus

A

d. Norovirus

140
Q

________ is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea

a. Influenza
b. Mumps
c. Rotavirus
d. Norovirus

A

c. Rotavirus

141
Q

________ the only hepatitis that does not have a sequela of liver cancer

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

142
Q

________ the only hepatitis that one does not have carry for the rest of their life if infected

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

143
Q

________ the only hepatitis is DNA

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

144
Q

________ is lethal in its acute phase and is an endemic in Asian culture (esp. Japanese and Chinese)

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

145
Q

________ (aka Dane particle) will only replicate in the presence of Hep B

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

146
Q

Match each hepatitis with its transmission
Hep Type————————Transmission
Hep A—————————–Fecal/Oral
Hep B—————————–Sexual, IV drug user
Hep C—————————–Tattoos, blood transfusions
Hep D—————————–Co-infection w/Hep B

A

Hep Type————————Transmission
Hep A—————————–Co-infection w/Hep B
Hep B—————————–Tattoos, blood transfusions
Hep C—————————–Fecal/Oral
Hep D—————————–Sexual, IV drug user

147
Q

________ often tends to be contracted by children (which is why they should wash hands)

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

148
Q

________ (aka Rubeola) leads to Koplik spots, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis and is associated with the 3 C’s (Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivits)

a. Measles virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Parvo virus
d. EBV

A

a. Measles virus

149
Q

________ (aka German Measles) is associated with infant limb malformation during the 1st trimester

a. Measles virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Parvo virus
d. EBV

A

b. Rubella virus

150
Q

________ is associated with erythema infectiosum, aplastic anemia and slapped cheek disease

a. Measles virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Parvo virus
d. EBV

A

c. Parvo virus

151
Q

All the following belong to the Picorna family except

a. Echovirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Ebstein-Barr virus

A

d. Ebstein-Barr virus

152
Q

________ belongs to the Picorna family

a. Mumps virus
b. Hepatitis A virus
c. Parvovirus
d. Ebstein-Barr virus

A

b. Hepatitis A virus

153
Q

________ is an eradicated, yet re-emerging pathogen responsible for Guarnieri bodies

A

Variola virus (small pox)

154
Q

Variola virus and Vaccinia virus both belong to the ________ family

155
Q

________ is responsible for cow pox, which leads to blisters on hands and was known as milk maid’s

A

Vaccinia virus

156
Q

Vericella zoster leads to ________ in children and ________ in adults and tends to hide in the ________

A

Chickenpox, Shingles, Dorsal root ganglia

157
Q

All the following belong to the Herpes family except

a. Vaccinia virus
b. Varicella zoster
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Epstein-Barr

A

a. Vaccinia virus

158
Q

________ leads to cold sores and whitlow (found on thumb of children)

A

Herpes simplex virus I

159
Q

________ is associated with genital herpes

A

Herpes simplex virus II

160
Q

________ is associated with cytomegalic inclusion disease and causes disseminated disease

A

Cytomagalovirus

161
Q

________ was called the kissing disease and is associated with extreme fatigue and an inflamed spleen

162
Q

________ is tested for using ELISA and Western Blot tests

163
Q

________ is associated with hemorrhagic fever and Walter Reed

A

Dengue virus

164
Q

________ is associated with fever, nausea, Aedes Aegypti mosquito and Walter Reed

A

Yellow fever

165
Q

________ is associated with fever, sore throat, headache, bleeding and death

A

Ebola virus

166
Q

________ is associated with fever, cough, lungs filling with fluid and death and comes from rodent dust

A

Hanta virus

167
Q

________ is associated with certain cervical cancers

A

Papillomavirus (HPV)

168
Q

________ is associated with pink cauliflower lesions on female genitalia

A

Molluscum virus

169
Q

________ is spread by fecal –> oral transmission and can affect the ventral horn…if it is the bulbar type, it can produce respiratory paralysis

A

Polio virus

170
Q

________ is a bullet-shaped RNA-based virus that leads to Negri bodies hangs out in the nerves

A

Rabies virus

171
Q

________ is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

172
Q

________ is associated with Eastern or Western equine, St. Louis, Venezuelan’s or California group and the mosquito is its vector

A

Arborvirus (Arborviral encephalitis)

173
Q

________ is associated with fever, headache, rash (20%-50% of the time), neck stiffness and comes from the mosquito

A

West Nile virus

174
Q

________ is associated with bleeding, and encephalitis and comes from the mosquito

A

Rift Valley fever

175
Q

________ is a negative reaction to aspirin and may cause fatty liver and encephalopathy

A

Reye’s Syndrome

176
Q

________ is associated with yeast infections (including thrush in children), and browning of nails

A

Candida albicans

177
Q

________ is associated with epidermis, hair, and dermis attacks (dermatophytosis) and is also called tinea ringworm

A

Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton

178
Q

________ is associated with pityriasis versicolor and affects the outer epidermis and resembles spaghetti when viewed under a microscope

A

Malassezia furfur

179
Q

________ is associated with black piedra and affects the hair

A

Piedraia hortae

180
Q

________ is associated with nodules beneath the skin, may invade the lymphatics and causes sporotrichosis…think “pricked by a rose thorn”

A

Sporothrix schenckii

181
Q

________ is associated with large fungal tumors of limbs and extremities and causes mycetoma and Madura foot

A

Pseudallescharia boydii, Madurella mycetomatis

182
Q

________ is associated with the SARS outbreak in China in 2002

A

Carona virus

183
Q

________ is associated with coccidioidomycosis (San Joaquin Valley Fever)

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidiodes immitis
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

b. Coccidiodes immitis

184
Q

________ is associated with North American blastomycosis (Chicago disease)

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidiodes immitis
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis

185
Q

________ is associated with pigeon roosts and causes Cryptococcosis (torulosis)

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidiodes immitis
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

c. Cryptococcus Neoformans

186
Q

________ is associated with cleaning chicken coups and Ohio Valley Fever

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidiodes immitis
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

d. Histoplasma capsulatum

187
Q

________ is associated with South American blastomycosis and affects the skin

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

188
Q

________ is associated with fungus balls in the lungs necrotic pneumonia and cause death

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

c. Aspergillus fumigatus

189
Q

________ (aka Pinworms) is associated with the Scotch tape test

a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Necator americanus

A

c. Enterobius vermicularis

190
Q

________ (aka Whipworm)

a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Necator americanus

A

a. Trichuris trichiura

191
Q

________ (aka Hookworm) can travel through a bare foot in the sand

a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Necator americanus

A

d. Necator americanus

192
Q

Match the following
Classification—————————Vector
Wuchereria bancrofti—————-Mangrove/Deer flies
Onchocerca volvulus—————-Cyclops in water
Loa loa————————————Mosquito (elephantitis)Dracunculus medinensis———–Black fly (river blindness)

A

Classification—————————Vector
Wuchereria bancrofti—————-Mosquito (elephantitis)
Onchocerca volvulus—————-Black fly (river blindness)
Loa loa————————————Mangrove/Deer flies
Dracunculus medinensis———–Cyclops in water

193
Q

All the following have a life cycle that requires both humans and snails and the vector is the ingestion of fresh water containing their larval stage except

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Opisthorchis sinensis

A

d. Opisthorchis sinensis

194
Q

________ is associated with the consumption of crabs

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Sporothrix schenckii
d. Opisthorchis sinensis

A

d. Opisthorchis sinensis

195
Q

If you pick a rose and your finger is injured from the thorn, which fungus should you be concerned about?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

196
Q

Match the following
Vector——————————–Classification
Raw beef—————————-Taenia Saginata
Raw pork—————————-Taenia Solium
Undercooked meat————–Hymenolepsis Nana
Canine feces———————–Echinococcus granuloses
Raw fish——————————Diphylobothrium latum

A

Vector——————————–Classification
Raw beef—————————-Echinococcus granuloses
Raw pork—————————-Diphylobothrium latum
Undercooked meat————–Taenia Solium
Canine feces———————–Taenia Saginata
Raw fish——————————Hymenolepsis Nana

197
Q

________ is the longest tapeworm and can cause B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

198
Q

________ is associated with amebic dysentery

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Balantidium coli

A

c. Entamoeba histolytica

199
Q

________ is associated with colitis

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Balantidium coli

A

d. Balantidium coli

200
Q

________ is associated with primary acute meningoencephalitis

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Balantidium coli

A

a. Naegleria fowleri

201
Q

________ is a diarrheal disease associated with malabsorption and flagellates in stool

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Balantidium coli

A

b. Giardia lamblia

202
Q

PPD Scratch Test is for ________

203
Q

________ is half an antigen

204
Q

________ is a trophozoite associated with urethritis and vaginitis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

205
Q

________ is a fungus that leads to an opportunistic (common in AIDS for example) lung infection

A

Pneumoncystis carinii

206
Q

________ is associated with malignant tertian malaria and is carried by the anopheles mosquito

A

Plasmodium falciparum

207
Q

________ is associated with baesiasis and is similar to malaria in symptoms and treatment

A

Babesia microti

208
Q

________ is associated with African sleeping sickness, the tsetse fly, rhodesiense and is fast-moving and most fatal

A

Trypanosoma rhodesiense, gambiense, brucei

209
Q

________ is associated with Chagas disease, the Reduviid (kissing) bug and affects the heart, esophagus and colon (by enlarging all of them)

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

210
Q

________ is associated with Kala-azar, increased skin pigmentation, splenomegaly, decreases bone marrow, the sand fly and is fatal 75%-95% of the time if left untreated

A

Leishmania donovani

211
Q

________ is associated with cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis and the sand fly

A

Leishmania tropica, mexicana, brasiliensis

212
Q

________ is associated with CNS dysfunction and cat feces and could be fatal to a fetus (since it is transplacental) which is why pregnant mothers are advised to stay away from a cat litter box

A

Toxoplasma gondi

BOARDS (12 decks)

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