Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
Neutrophils and Edema indicate (Chronic/Acute) inflammation
A
Acute
2
Q
What are PAMPs?
A
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
3
Q
The TLR on macrophages that recognizes recognizes LPS from gram (-) bacteria is _____
A
CD14
4
Q
TLRs up-regulate the nuclear transcription factor ______, which activates an immune response
A
NFκB
5
Q
Arachidonic acid is released from the cell membrane by cleavage using the enzyme Phospholipase ____
A
A2
6
Q
Cycloxygenase turns Arachidonic acid into _______
A
Prostaglandins (PGI2, PGD2, PGE2) thromboxanes, prostacyclin
7
Q
5-Lipoxygenase turns Arachidonic acid into ______
A
Leukotriens
LTB4,
LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
8
Q
Which Prostaglandin mediates pain and fEver?
A
PGE2
9
Q
Which Leukotriene attracts and activates neutrophils?
A
LTB4
10
Q
The inactive pro-inflammatory factor produced in the liver is called _______
A
Hageman factor (factor XII)
11
Q
What is the inflammatory factor that mediates vasodilation, increased permeability and PAIN?
A
Bradykinin
12
Q
During an inflammatory response, redness is called ______ warmth is called _____ and swelling is called ______
A
Rubor
Calor
Tumor
13
Q
PGE2 raises body temperature by changing the set point controlled by the ________
A
hypothalamus
14
Q
During vasodilation in post-capillary venules, when heavy weight cells slow and move to the periphery. This is called _____
A
Margination
15
Q
The “speed-bumps” that a rolling neutrophil hits to slow down and feel the inside of a vessels wall are called ______
A
Selectins
16
Q
P-selectins are released from ______ in endothelial cells, mediated by histamine
A
Weibel-Palade bodies
17
Q
What are the four key chemotactic molecules that bring in neutrophiles?
A
C5a
IL8
LTB4
Bacterial products
18
Q
An autosomal defect in the integrin CD18 creates a deficiency of ______
A
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
19
Q
The marginated pool (about 50% of your neutrophiles) hang out in your (organ) _______
A
lungs
20
Q
-delayed separation of the umbilical cord
-increased circulating neutrophiles
-bacterial infections without pus
all indicate _____
A
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
21
Q
Chediak-Higashi syndrome lead to impaired phagolysosome formation due to impaired formation of ______
A
microtubules (protein trafficking)
22
Q
in the lysozyme, O2 is converted to super oxide (O2-) by the enzyme _______
A
NADPH Oxidase
23
Q
In the lysozyme, super oxide (O2-) is converted to hydrogen peroxide by the enzyme _______
A
S.O.D.
Super oxide dismutase
24
Q
Five most common catalase positive bacteria
A
S. Aureus P cepacia S marcescenes Nocardia Aspergillus
25
To induce healing, macrophages can enter tissue and secrete ____ and ____ as anti-inflammatory factors
IL-10 and TGF-β
26
A walled off area of acute inflammation is called an ______
Abscess
27
Lymphocyte and plasma cells in the tissue indicates _____ inflammation
chronic
28
Chronic inflammation is (innate/adaptive)
adaptive
29
Promote class switching from IgM to IgG and secrete INF- γ (Th1/Th2) helper T cells
Th1 helper T cells
30
```
Secrete IL-4, which does B cell class switching to IgE and IL-5, class switching to IgA
(Th1/Th2) helper T cells
```
Th2 helper T cells
31
What is the defining characteristic of a granuloma?
Epitheloid Histocyte
32
Caseous necrosis looks like (toast/cheese)
cheese
33
Defective cell-mediated and humoral immunity can lead to ______
SCIDS
34
A complete lack of immunoglobulin due to a disorder in B-cell maturation due to mutated Bruton's tyrosine kinase
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
35
C5-C9 deficiency leaves you vulnerable to infection with ______
Neisseria (N gonorrhoeae and N meningitidis)
36
Mutation in the WASP protein can lead to _____ syndrome, where platelets are small and do not function properly
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
37
Hereditary angioedema is caused by a deficiency in _____
C1 inhibitor deficiency
38
Polyendocrine autoimmune disorder results from a mutation in the gene that codes for _____
AIRE
39
The endothelial wall has selectins that interact with ______ on marginating neutrophiles allowing "rolling" along the wall
sialyl-lewis x
40
Autoimmune disease with destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands
Sjögren syndrome
41
What is the difference between regeneration and repair?
Regeneration: replacement with native tissue
Repair: replacement with fibrous scar
42
Which three tissues are considered permanent tissues?
Myocardium
Skeletal muscle
Neurons
43
Permanent tissues heal by (regeneration/repair)
repair
44
If you cut your skin down to the ______, you will get repair and not regeneration
Basal layer (stem cells)
45
The initial phase of repair consists of ______ tissue
granulation
46
What the difference between granulation and granuloma
Granulation: initial phase of repair
Granuloma: organized macrophages (Epitheloid Histocytes)
47
Granulation tissue consists of what three things?
1. Fibroblasts
2. Capillaries
3. Myofibroblasts
48
The end result of granulation tissue is the production of a ______
scar
49
In granulation tissue, type ____ collagen is replaced with type ____
Type III replaced with Type I
50
Collagen found in bONE is type ____
type I
51
Collage found in carTilage is type ___
type II
52
The most pliable type of cartilage is type ___
type III
53
Collagen most commonly found is basement membrane is type __
type IV
54
In granulation tissue, type III collagen is eaten up by ______ with the co-factor _____
collagenase
| co-factor: zinc
55
Both regeneration and repair are mediated by what type of signaling?
paracrine (with growth factors)
56
Epithelial and fibroblast growth factor
| TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF
TGF-α
57
Important fibroblast growth factor, also inhibits inflammation
(TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF)
TGF-β
58
Growth factor endothelium, smooth muscle, and fibroblasts
| TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF
Platelet derived growth factor
59
Important for angiogenesis; also mediates skeletal development
(TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF)
Fibroblast growth factor
60
Important for angiogenesis
| TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF
Vascular endothelial growth factor
61
Wound edges brought together with minimal scaring is healing by _____ intention
primary
62
Edges are not approximated and granulation tissue fills in the defect is healing by _____ intention
secondary
63
When healing by secondary intention, the wound is contracted and made smaller by the efforts of _______
myofibroblasts
64
Which 3 vitamin/mineral deficiencies commonly lead to delayed wound healing?
Vitamin C (hydroxylation)
Copper (lysyl Oxidase)
Zinc (collagenase)
65
The normal sequence of collagen formation is ______
Gly-X-Y
| (Y-OH) with vitamin C and lysyl oxidase
66
Rupture of a wound (most commonly seen after abdominal surgery) is called ______
Dehiscence
67
Excess production of scar tissue is called ______
hypertrophic scar
68
Excess production of scar tissue that is out of proportion for the wound is called ______
Keloid
69
Keloids tend to have excess type _____ collagen
Type III
70
A hypertrophic scar has excess of the normal type ___ collagen
Type I
71
What is the difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?
Primary: weak platelet plug
Secondary: stabilization of platelet plug (clotting cascade)
72
Step 1 of primary hemostasis is ______
transient vasoconstriction
73
When endothelial cells are disrupted, the will transiently vasoconstrict mediated neural stimulation and the molecule _______
endothelin
74
The blood glycoprotein that binds exposed sub-endothelial collagen in primary hemostasis is called _____
vWF
| von Willebrand Factor
75
vWF comes in small part from platelets and in majority from ______ cells
endothelial
76
vWF is stored in the ______ which are storage granules in blood vessel endothelial cells
Weibel–Palade bodies
77
Weibel–Palade bodies contain ______ and _____
P-selectins
| vWF (von Willebrand Factor)
78
Platelets bind vWF using the _____ receptor
GP1b
79
Platelets aggregate at the site of injury via the ______ receptor
GPIIb/IIIa
80
Platelets aggregate and link together via the molecule _____
fibrinogen
81
The platelet plug formed in primary hemostatsis is (strong/weak)
weak
82
epistaxis is bleed from the ____
nose
83
The disease ITP is _____
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
84
Immune products such as IgG against platelets can result in the disease ____
ITP
| Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
85
The antibodies in ITP are made in the (organ) _____
spleen
86
With ITP you may fin increased (cells) _______ on a bone marrow biopsy
megakaryocytes
87
Pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels is called ______
Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia
88
The sheared fragment of a red blood cell is called a _______
Schistocyte
89
Two common syndromes where you will see Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia are _____ and _____
TTP: Throbocytopenic purpura
HUS: Hemolytic uremic Syndrome
90
Bernard Soulier syndrome is a (quantitate/qualitative) platelet dissorder
Qualitative
91
If GPIIb/IIIa is damaged as in Glanzmann thrombasthemia what will be impaired?
Platelet aggregation
92
The extrinsic pathway and common pathway are measured by (PT/PTT)
PT
93
The intrinsic pathway and common pathway are measured by (PT/PTT)
PTT
94
You can better measure the effect of coumadin with (PT/PTT)
PT
95
You can better measure the effect of heparin with (PT/PTT)
PTT
96
Hemophilia A is a deficiency in factor ____
VIII
97
In Hemophilia B there is a deficiency in factor _____
IX
98
von Willibrand factor helps to stabilize factor _____
VIII
99
All newborn babies are given a shot of vitamin __ to prevent hemorrhagic shock
Vitamin K
100
A post-mortem blood clot will not contain lines of _____
Zahn
101
Lines of Zahn are composed of ______
Fibrin
102
Name three factors that increase endothelial cell damage and the chance of thrombosis.
1. atherosclerosis
2. vasculitis
3. high levels of homocysteine
103
Protein C and protein S normally inactivate factors __ and ___, so if these factors are missing you may have a hypercoagulable state
V and VIII
104
Warfarin/Coumadin block the action of the enzyme ________
vitamin k EPOXIDE REDUCTASE
105
Heparin binds the protein ______
ATIII
| Antithrombin III
106
Estrogen (increases/decreases) coagulation factors
increases
| risk associated with oral contraceptive
107
The most common type (95%) of embolism is a ______embolus
thromboembolus
108
The lung receives blood from both the _____ and ____
Pulmonary arteries
| bronchial artery
109
defective development or congenital absence of an organ or tissue is called _____
aplasia
110
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) release perforin to allow entry of their granules, which contain ______ that active programmed cells death
Granzyme B
111
The RIP1-RIP3 complex is called the _______
necrosome
112
Cellular downsizing in response to stress is called _______
autophagy
113
PGI2 (facilitates/blocks) platelet aggregation on endothelial walls
blocks
114
The three broad categories that contribute to thrombosis are known as ______ ______
Virchow's Triad
115
The three components of Virchow's Triad are:
1. Stasis of flow
2. Endothelial Injury
3. Hypercoagulability
116
The 'wear-and-tear' accumulate the deposits leading to 'brown atrophy' is called _______
Lipofuscin
117
wasting syndrome is loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite in someone who is not actively trying to lose weight is called _______
Cachexia
118
A rash of round, red welts on the skin that itch intensely, sometimes swelling, caused by an allergic reaction. These are called Hives or in medical lingo, ________
Urticaria
119
An annular (ring-shaped), protein in blood plasma, that can bind the Fc receptor and rises in response to inflammation is _______
C reactive protein
120
Transmembrane receptors that are the bridges for cell-cell and cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) interactions are called ________
integrins
121
Which prostaglandin inhibits platelet activation and is a vasodilator?
PGI2 = prostacyclin
122
Promotes apoptosis (IL-1/TNF)
TNF
123
Metalloprotienases are collegenases containing the metal ______
zinc
124
2 Drugs inhibiting neutrophil adhesion molecules are ______ and ______
corticosteriods and catecholamines
125
C reactive protein is an indicator of ______ in acute inflammation
necrosis
126
The "master switch" for induction of inflammation is ______
NF-κB
127
Interferon __ activates macrophages while interferons__ and __ inhibit viral growth
IFNγ activates macrophages
| IFN-α , IFN-β inhibit viruses
128
The classic pathway of complement is activated by _____
C1 binding IgG and IgM (GM classic cars)
129
T cells one recognize antigen presented on _____
MHC class I
130
Anti ds-DNA and anti-sm (smith) are diagnostic for ______
SLE (lupus)
131
Kidney disorder, photosensitivity, malar rash, and positive ANA. Dx _______
SLE (lupus)
132
False positive syphilis test, discoid rash, falsely elevated PTT, and arthritis. Dx: ______
SLE (lupus)
133
Positive anti-ssa and anti-ssb diagnose _______
Sjogren syndrome
134
overactive fibroblasts can lead to ______ _______
systemic sclerosis
135
a blood clot in a vein, forms independently from the presence of inflammation of the vein is called ______
phlebothrombosis
136
Toll-like receptors are recognized on ______ cells, including macrophages and dendritic cells
sentinel cells
137
Anti smith and anti ds dna are more specific for the diagnosis of ______
SLE: lupus
138
Drug induced lupus can be detected by an anti-_____ antibody
histone
139
Anti-U1 RNP can be found with _____ ______ ______ disease
mixed connective tissue disease
