Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Unit 8 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Neutrophils and Edema indicate (Chronic/Acute) inflammation

A

Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The TLR on macrophages that recognizes recognizes LPS from gram (-) bacteria is _____

A

CD14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TLRs up-regulate the nuclear transcription factor ______, which activates an immune response

A

NFκB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Arachidonic acid is released from the cell membrane by cleavage using the enzyme Phospholipase ____

A

A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cycloxygenase turns Arachidonic acid into _______

A

Prostaglandins (PGI2, PGD2, PGE2) thromboxanes, prostacyclin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5-Lipoxygenase turns Arachidonic acid into ______

A

Leukotriens
LTB4,
LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Prostaglandin mediates pain and fEver?

A

PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which Leukotriene attracts and activates neutrophils?

A

LTB4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The inactive pro-inflammatory factor produced in the liver is called _______

A

Hageman factor (factor XII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the inflammatory factor that mediates vasodilation, increased permeability and PAIN?

A

Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During an inflammatory response, redness is called ______ warmth is called _____ and swelling is called ______

A

Rubor
Calor
Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PGE2 raises body temperature by changing the set point controlled by the ________

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During vasodilation in post-capillary venules, when heavy weight cells slow and move to the periphery. This is called _____

A

Margination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The “speed-bumps” that a rolling neutrophil hits to slow down and feel the inside of a vessels wall are called ______

A

Selectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

P-selectins are released from ______ in endothelial cells, mediated by histamine

A

Weibel-Palade bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the four key chemotactic molecules that bring in neutrophiles?

A

C5a
IL8
LTB4
Bacterial products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An autosomal defect in the integrin CD18 creates a deficiency of ______

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The marginated pool (about 50% of your neutrophiles) hang out in your (organ) _______

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

-delayed separation of the umbilical cord
-increased circulating neutrophiles
-bacterial infections without pus
all indicate _____

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome lead to impaired phagolysosome formation due to impaired formation of ______

A

microtubules (protein trafficking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in the lysozyme, O2 is converted to super oxide (O2-) by the enzyme _______

A

NADPH Oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the lysozyme, super oxide (O2-) is converted to hydrogen peroxide by the enzyme _______

A

S.O.D.

Super oxide dismutase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Five most common catalase positive bacteria

A 
S. Aureus
P cepacia
S marcescenes
Nocardia
Aspergillus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

To induce healing, macrophages can enter tissue and secrete ____ and ____ as anti-inflammatory factors

A

IL-10 and TGF-β

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A walled off area of acute inflammation is called an ______

A

Abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lymphocyte and plasma cells in the tissue indicates _____ inflammation

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chronic inflammation is (innate/adaptive)

A

adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Promote class switching from IgM to IgG and secrete INF- γ (Th1/Th2) helper T cells

A

Th1 helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
Secrete IL-4, which does B cell class switching to IgE and IL-5, class switching to IgA
(Th1/Th2) helper T cells
A

Th2 helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the defining characteristic of a granuloma?

A

Epitheloid Histocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Caseous necrosis looks like (toast/cheese)

A

cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Defective cell-mediated and humoral immunity can lead to ______

A

SCIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A complete lack of immunoglobulin due to a disorder in B-cell maturation due to mutated Bruton’s tyrosine kinase

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

C5-C9 deficiency leaves you vulnerable to infection with ______

A

Neisseria (N gonorrhoeae and N meningitidis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mutation in the WASP protein can lead to _____ syndrome, where platelets are small and do not function properly

A

Wiskott-aldrich syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hereditary angioedema is caused by a deficiency in _____

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Polyendocrine autoimmune disorder results from a mutation in the gene that codes for _____

A

AIRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The endothelial wall has selectins that interact with ______ on marginating neutrophiles allowing “rolling” along the wall

A

sialyl-lewis x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Autoimmune disease with destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands

A

Sjögren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the difference between regeneration and repair?

A

Regeneration: replacement with native tissue
Repair: replacement with fibrous scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which three tissues are considered permanent tissues?

A

Myocardium
Skeletal muscle
Neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Permanent tissues heal by (regeneration/repair)

A

repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If you cut your skin down to the ______, you will get repair and not regeneration

A

Basal layer (stem cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The initial phase of repair consists of ______ tissue

A

granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What the difference between granulation and granuloma

A

Granulation: initial phase of repair
Granuloma: organized macrophages (Epitheloid Histocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Granulation tissue consists of what three things?

A
  1. Fibroblasts
  2. Capillaries
  3. Myofibroblasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The end result of granulation tissue is the production of a ______

A

scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In granulation tissue, type ____ collagen is replaced with type ____

A

Type III replaced with Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Collagen found in bONE is type ____

A

type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Collage found in carTilage is type ___

A

type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The most pliable type of cartilage is type ___

A

type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Collagen most commonly found is basement membrane is type __

A

type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In granulation tissue, type III collagen is eaten up by ______ with the co-factor _____

A

collagenase

co-factor: zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Both regeneration and repair are mediated by what type of signaling?

A

paracrine (with growth factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Epithelial and fibroblast growth factor

TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF

A

TGF-α

57
Q

Important fibroblast growth factor, also inhibits inflammation
(TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF)

A

TGF-β

58
Q

Growth factor endothelium, smooth muscle, and fibroblasts

TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF

A

Platelet derived growth factor

59
Q

Important for angiogenesis; also mediates skeletal development
(TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF)

A

Fibroblast growth factor

60
Q

Important for angiogenesis

TGF-α/TGF-β/PDGF/FGF/VEGF

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor

61
Q

Wound edges brought together with minimal scaring is healing by _____ intention

A

primary

62
Q

Edges are not approximated and granulation tissue fills in the defect is healing by _____ intention

A

secondary

63
Q

When healing by secondary intention, the wound is contracted and made smaller by the efforts of _______

A

myofibroblasts

64
Q

Which 3 vitamin/mineral deficiencies commonly lead to delayed wound healing?

A

Vitamin C (hydroxylation)
Copper (lysyl Oxidase)
Zinc (collagenase)

65
Q

The normal sequence of collagen formation is ______

A

Gly-X-Y

(Y-OH) with vitamin C and lysyl oxidase

66
Q

Rupture of a wound (most commonly seen after abdominal surgery) is called ______

A

Dehiscence

67
Q

Excess production of scar tissue is called ______

A

hypertrophic scar

68
Q

Excess production of scar tissue that is out of proportion for the wound is called ______

A

Keloid

69
Q

Keloids tend to have excess type _____ collagen

A

Type III

70
Q

A hypertrophic scar has excess of the normal type ___ collagen

A

Type I

71
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?

A

Primary: weak platelet plug
Secondary: stabilization of platelet plug (clotting cascade)

72
Q

Step 1 of primary hemostasis is ______

A

transient vasoconstriction

73
Q

When endothelial cells are disrupted, the will transiently vasoconstrict mediated neural stimulation and the molecule _______

A

endothelin

74
Q

The blood glycoprotein that binds exposed sub-endothelial collagen in primary hemostasis is called _____

A

vWF

von Willebrand Factor

75
Q

vWF comes in small part from platelets and in majority from ______ cells

A

endothelial

76
Q

vWF is stored in the ______ which are storage granules in blood vessel endothelial cells

A

Weibel–Palade bodies

77
Q

Weibel–Palade bodies contain ______ and _____

A

P-selectins

vWF (von Willebrand Factor)

78
Q

Platelets bind vWF using the _____ receptor

A

GP1b

79
Q

Platelets aggregate at the site of injury via the ______ receptor

A

GPIIb/IIIa

80
Q

Platelets aggregate and link together via the molecule _____

A

fibrinogen

81
Q

The platelet plug formed in primary hemostatsis is (strong/weak)

A

weak

82
Q

epistaxis is bleed from the ____

A

nose

83
Q

The disease ITP is _____

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

84
Q

Immune products such as IgG against platelets can result in the disease ____

A

ITP

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

85
Q

The antibodies in ITP are made in the (organ) _____

A

spleen

86
Q

With ITP you may fin increased (cells) _______ on a bone marrow biopsy

A

megakaryocytes

87
Q

Pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels is called ______

A

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia

88
Q

The sheared fragment of a red blood cell is called a _______

A

Schistocyte

89
Q

Two common syndromes where you will see Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia are _____ and _____

A

TTP: Throbocytopenic purpura
HUS: Hemolytic uremic Syndrome

90
Q

Bernard Soulier syndrome is a (quantitate/qualitative) platelet dissorder

A

Qualitative

91
Q

If GPIIb/IIIa is damaged as in Glanzmann thrombasthemia what will be impaired?

A

Platelet aggregation

92
Q

The extrinsic pathway and common pathway are measured by (PT/PTT)

A

PT

93
Q

The intrinsic pathway and common pathway are measured by (PT/PTT)

A

PTT

94
Q

You can better measure the effect of coumadin with (PT/PTT)

A

PT

95
Q

You can better measure the effect of heparin with (PT/PTT)

A

PTT

96
Q

Hemophilia A is a deficiency in factor ____

A

VIII

97
Q

In Hemophilia B there is a deficiency in factor _____

A

IX

98
Q

von Willibrand factor helps to stabilize factor _____

A

VIII

99
Q

All newborn babies are given a shot of vitamin __ to prevent hemorrhagic shock

A

Vitamin K

100
Q

A post-mortem blood clot will not contain lines of _____

A

Zahn

101
Q

Lines of Zahn are composed of ______

A

Fibrin

102
Q

Name three factors that increase endothelial cell damage and the chance of thrombosis.

A
  1. atherosclerosis
  2. vasculitis
  3. high levels of homocysteine
103
Q

Protein C and protein S normally inactivate factors __ and ___, so if these factors are missing you may have a hypercoagulable state

A

V and VIII

104
Q

Warfarin/Coumadin block the action of the enzyme ________

A

vitamin k EPOXIDE REDUCTASE

105
Q

Heparin binds the protein ______

A

ATIII

Antithrombin III

106
Q

Estrogen (increases/decreases) coagulation factors

A

increases

risk associated with oral contraceptive

107
Q

The most common type (95%) of embolism is a ______embolus

A

thromboembolus

108
Q

The lung receives blood from both the _____ and ____

A

Pulmonary arteries

bronchial artery

109
Q

defective development or congenital absence of an organ or tissue is called _____

A

aplasia

110
Q

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) release perforin to allow entry of their granules, which contain ______ that active programmed cells death

A

Granzyme B

111
Q

The RIP1-RIP3 complex is called the _______

A

necrosome

112
Q

Cellular downsizing in response to stress is called _______

A

autophagy

113
Q

PGI2 (facilitates/blocks) platelet aggregation on endothelial walls

A

blocks

114
Q

The three broad categories that contribute to thrombosis are known as ______ ______

A

Virchow’s Triad

115
Q

The three components of Virchow’s Triad are:

A
  1. Stasis of flow
  2. Endothelial Injury
  3. Hypercoagulability
116
Q

The ‘wear-and-tear’ accumulate the deposits leading to ‘brown atrophy’ is called _______

A

Lipofuscin

117
Q

wasting syndrome is loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite in someone who is not actively trying to lose weight is called _______

A

Cachexia

118
Q

A rash of round, red welts on the skin that itch intensely, sometimes swelling, caused by an allergic reaction. These are called Hives or in medical lingo, ________

A

Urticaria

119
Q

An annular (ring-shaped), protein in blood plasma, that can bind the Fc receptor and rises in response to inflammation is _______

A

C reactive protein

120
Q

Transmembrane receptors that are the bridges for cell-cell and cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) interactions are called ________

A

integrins

121
Q

Which prostaglandin inhibits platelet activation and is a vasodilator?

A

PGI2 = prostacyclin

122
Q

Promotes apoptosis (IL-1/TNF)

A

TNF

123
Q

Metalloprotienases are collegenases containing the metal ______

A

zinc

124
Q

2 Drugs inhibiting neutrophil adhesion molecules are ______ and ______

A

corticosteriods and catecholamines

125
Q

C reactive protein is an indicator of ______ in acute inflammation

A

necrosis

126
Q

The “master switch” for induction of inflammation is ______

A

NF-κB

127
Q

Interferon __ activates macrophages while interferons__ and __ inhibit viral growth

A

IFNγ activates macrophages

IFN-α , IFN-β inhibit viruses

128
Q

The classic pathway of complement is activated by _____

A

C1 binding IgG and IgM (GM classic cars)

129
Q

T cells one recognize antigen presented on _____

A

MHC class I

130
Q

Anti ds-DNA and anti-sm (smith) are diagnostic for ______

A

SLE (lupus)

131
Q

Kidney disorder, photosensitivity, malar rash, and positive ANA. Dx _______

A

SLE (lupus)

132
Q

False positive syphilis test, discoid rash, falsely elevated PTT, and arthritis. Dx: ______

A

SLE (lupus)

133
Q

Positive anti-ssa and anti-ssb diagnose _______

A

Sjogren syndrome

134
Q

overactive fibroblasts can lead to ______ _______

A

systemic sclerosis

135
Q

a blood clot in a vein, forms independently from the presence of inflammation of the vein is called ______

A

phlebothrombosis

136
Q

Toll-like receptors are recognized on ______ cells, including macrophages and dendritic cells

A

sentinel cells

137
Q

Anti smith and anti ds dna are more specific for the diagnosis of ______

A

SLE: lupus

138
Q

Drug induced lupus can be detected by an anti-_____ antibody

A

histone

139
Q

Anti-U1 RNP can be found with _____ ______ ______ disease

A

mixed connective tissue disease

Unit 8 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions