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Year 3 > Pathology 2 > Flashcards

Pathology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Where does LDL build up in atherosclerosis?

A

Tunica intima

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2
Q

Which arteries are most prone to atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Abdominal aorta
  2. Coronary arteries
  3. Popliteal arteries
  4. Thoracic aorta
  5. Internal carotids
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3
Q

90% of ischemic heart disease is due to _________

A

Atherosclerosis

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4
Q

What is “critical stenosis”?

A

> 75% reduction in the diameter of the artery

Leads to compensatory vasodilation

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5
Q

When can an MI be seen histologically and macroscopically?

A

Histologically from 4 hours

Macroscopically from 12 hours

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6
Q

What are the potential complications of MI?

A 
Arrhythmias
Cardiac arrest
Ventricular aneurysm
Pedicarditis
Papillary muscle dysfunction
Myocardial rupture
Heart failure
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7
Q

What is diastolic heart failure?

A

Reduced filling due to increased resistance

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8
Q

What are the causes of diastolic heart failure?

A

LV hypertrophy
Aortic stenosis
Hypertension

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9
Q

What are the causes of systolic heart failure?

A

IHD
MI
Cardiomyopathy

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10
Q

How does systemic hypertension affect the left ventricle?

A

LV hypertrophy
Without dilation
Impaired filling

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11
Q

What is the most common type of valvular heart disease?

A

Mitral regurgitation

due to a floppy mitral valve

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12
Q

What is functional regurgitation?

A

When a valve becomes incompetent due the dilation of a ventricle

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13
Q

What is the main causative organism of rheumatic fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

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14
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Painful joints
  3. Involuntary muscle movements
  4. Non itchy rash- erythema marginatum
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15
Q

Which factors predispose to infective endocarditis?

A 
Artificial valve
Bicuspid aortic valve
Floppy mitral valve
Stenosis
Immunosuppression
Diabetes
Alcohol
IVDU
Dental work
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16
Q

Which 3 organisms most commonly cause ACUTE endocarditis?

A

Highly virulent organisms-

  1. S. aureus
  2. Pneumococcus
  3. S.pyogenes
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17
Q

Which 2 organisms most commonly cause SUBACUTE endocarditis?

A

Low virulence organisms- 1. Strep viridans

2. Enterococci

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18
Q

What type of endocarditis is more common in replacement valves?

A

Subacute

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19
Q

What is the most common type of cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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20
Q

What can cause dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcohol
Genetics
Chronic anaemia

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21
Q

What is the pathophysiology of heart muscle in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

NO dilation of chambers
Hypertrophic fibres
Cardiac wall thickened
Decreased chamber size

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22
Q

What is the pathophysiology of heart muscle in restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Both atria dilated

Normal sized ventricles, but decreased ventricular compliance

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23
Q

What is the main cause of myocarditis?

A

Viruses

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24
Q

What can cause pericarditis?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Immune mediated eg. SLE, Rheumatic fever
  3. Trauma
  4. Radiation
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25
Q

What are the causes of right to left cardiac shunts?

A
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot
  2. Transposition of great arteries
  3. Perisitent truncus arteriosus
  4. Tricuspid atresia (right ventricle underdeveloped)
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26
Q

What are the causes of left to right shunts?

A

ASD
VSD

Can lead to pulmonary hypertension

27
Q

Which sinus is susceptible to sinusitis due to dental infection?

A

Maxillary sinus

28
Q

What us GPA/ Wegener’s?

A

Vasculitis of small and medium vessels

Affects upper respiratory tract, kidneys, lungs

29
Q

What are the signs/ symptoms of Wegner’s Granulomatosus?

A 
Nose bleeds/ sores
Ulcers
Subglottic stenosis -> hoarseness
Chronic ear infections
Haemoptysis
Haematuria
30
Q

Which antibodies will be present in Wegner’s Granulomatosus?

A

ANCA

31
Q

What age patients does Wegner’s Granulomatosus usually affect?

A

30-50years

32
Q

How can Wegner’s Granulomatosus be treated?

A

Steroids
Cyclophosphamide
Methotrexate
Surgery

33
Q

What are the potential complications of Wegner’s Granulomatosus?

A

Nasal septum perforation
Airway stenosis
Respiratory or renal failure

34
Q

What is an inverted papilloma?

A

Nasal tumour in mucous membrane
Grows into underlying bone
Usually benign
May be caused by smoking, pollution, allergens

35
Q

What is Samter’s triad?

A
  1. Asthma
  2. Nasal polyps
  3. Aspirin hypersensitivity
36
Q

How can a nasal papilloma be treated?

A

Endoscopy

37
Q

What is the main cancer of the larynx/ nose/ sinuses?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

38
Q

Who is affected by juvenile nasal angiofibroma?

A

Males

Aged <20 years

39
Q

What are the symptoms of Juvenile Nasal Angiofibroma?

A

Nasal obstruction
Bleeding
hearing loss
headache

40
Q

What is nasopharnygeal carcinoma?

A

Rare undifferentiated cancer
Affects the nasopharynx
Can cause otitis media (glue ear)

41
Q

Which factors increase the risk of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV
Nitrosamines in diet
HLA

42
Q

_____________ is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria and can cause a “pseudomembrane” seen histologically

A

Diphtheria

43
Q

What epithelial cell type is found in the oesophagus and anus?

A

Squamous

44
Q

What epithelial cell type is found in the stomach, duodenum and colon?

A

Columnar

45
Q

What is the main cause of oesophagitis?

A

GORD

46
Q

Gastritis is often associated with which type of infection?

A

H.pylori

47
Q

What can be detected in breath if H.pylori infection is present?

A

Urease

48
Q

What is the triple therapy for H.pylori infection?

A
  1. PPI
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Amoxicillin/ Metronidazole
49
Q

What is the histological appearance of coeliac disease?

A

Crypt hyperplasia
Villous atrophy
Intra epithelial lymphocytosis
Lamina propria rich in plasma cells

50
Q

What is the HLA association in coeliac?

A

HLA DQ2/ HLA DQ8

51
Q

What are the potential complications of coeliac disease?

A

Anaemia
Oesteoporosis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Increased risk of malignancy

52
Q

In which part of the bowel is diverticular disease most common?

A

Sigmoid colon

53
Q

What are the complications of diverticular disease?

A 
Bowel perforation
Haemorrhage
Fistula
Obstruction
Superinfection with CMV/ C.Diff
54
Q

What conditions is ulcerative collitis associated with?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Ankylosing spondolytis

55
Q

What are the histological features of UC?

A 
Mucin depletion
Pseudopolyps
Punctuate ulcers
Inflammation
Basal plasmocytosis
Crypt abscess
Haemorrhagic mucosa
56
Q

How can UC be managed medically?

A
  1. 5-ASA Eg. Mesalazine
  2. Oral prednisolone
  3. IV hydrocortisone and fluids
  4. Anti TNF eg. Infliximab
57
Q

What is the histological appearance of Crohn’s?

A

Granulomas
Fat wrapping
Transmural lymphoid aggregates

58
Q

What is microscopic collitis?

A

Condition typically in middle aged women
Longstanding diarrhoea
Normal colonoscopy

59
Q

What are the 2 types of oesophageal carcinoma?

A
  1. Squamous cell carcinoma

2. Adenocarcinoma- develops from Barrett’s mucosa

60
Q

What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus?

A 
Smoking
Alcohol
Low protein diet
HPV infection
Family history in Iran
61
Q

What are the risk factors for oesophageal adenocarcinoma?

A 
GORD
Smoking
Alcohol
Obesity
NSAIDs
62
Q

What type of cancer has “signet ring” appearance histologically?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

63
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax
Due to degeneration of myenteric plexus
Leads to dysphagia, regurgitation and weight loss

64
Q

What are the causes of dysphagia?

A
  1. Mechanical blockage: Malignancy, stricture, mediastinal mass, retrosternal goitre, pharyngeal pouch
  2. Motility disorder- Achalasia, oesophageal spasm, Bulbar palsy
  3. Oesophagitis

Year 3 (22 decks)

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