Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the characteristics of Gram positive bacteria, and give examples.

A

Stain purple with gram stain.
Simpler cell wall than gram negative, but a thicker peptidoglycan layer.

2 main cell wall layers- peptidoglycan (with lipotechoic acid and techoic acid), and then an inner/cytoplasmic membrane.

Are less resistant to antibiotics.

Examples: streptococcus, staphylococcus, Bacillus, Chlostridium, Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the characteristics of Gram negative bacteria, and give examples.

A

Stain pink with gram stain.
More complex cell wall: lipopolysaccharide, then an outer phospholipid membrane, petidoglycan then inner membrance.

More resistant to antibiotics.

Outer membrane with LPS- lipid portion is toxic and can cause fever and shock.

Examples: E.coli, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, cyanobacteria, proteobacteria, helicobacter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where are lactobacilli normally found in the body?

A

Vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are candida albicans normally found in the body?

A

Vagina, mouth, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are streptococcus bacteria arranged?

A

In a chain of cocci (spheres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are staphylococcus bacteria arranged?

A

In a bunch of cocci (spheres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 main components of bacteria which antibiotics target?

A
  1. Cell wall- Beta lactams (Penicillins, Cephalosporins and Carbapenems) and Glycopeptides (Vancomycin and Teicoplanin)
  2. Protein synthesis (Tetracyclines eg, Doxycycline, Aminoglycosides eg Gentamycin, Macrolides eg. Erythromycin and Streptogramins eg. Pristamycin)
  3. Folate synthesis (Trimethoprim or Sulfonamides eg. Sulfadiazine)
  4. DNA synthesis - Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin) or Metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do Beta lactam antibiotics work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Beta lactams include Penicillins eg, Amoxicillin, Cephalosporins eg. Cephalexin, and Carbapenems eg. Imipenem.

Bind transpeptidases, preventing peptidoglycan cross-linkage.

Side effects include hyposensitivity, CNS toxicity and seizures, and increased risk of GI disturbances and C. Difficile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do Glycopeptides work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Glycopeptides (eg. Vancomycin and Teicoplanin) work by binding peptides in peptidoglycan, to inhibit cross-linking.

Side effects include Nephrotoxicity and Red man syndrome (an infusion related hypersensitivity reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do Tetracyclines work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Tetracyclins (eg. Doxycycline) work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, by binding to the 30S ribosome subunit.

Side effects include Binding to teeth and causing staining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do Aminoglycosides work?Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

eg Gentamycin.
Prevent bacterial protein synthesis, by binding the 30S ribosome subunit.

Side effects include being nephrotoxic and ototoxic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do Quinolones work? Give examples.

A

Quinolones include Ciprofloxacin and Moxifloxacin.

They work by inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis, by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the process of gram staining.

A
  1. Add Crystal violet.
  2. Fix with iodine.
  3. Wash with acetone.
  4. Counterstain with neutral red.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do Sulfonamide antibiotics work? give examples of side effects.

A

Inhibit folate synthesis, by preventing addition of para-amino benzoic acid to folic acid.

Side effects include Steven-Johnson syndrome, skin rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give examples of Gram positive bacteria.

A

Bacilli- Aerobic = Listeria, Bacillus
Anaerobic= C.diff

Cocci- Staph eg. S.aureus, S.epidermidis
Strep- S.pneumoniae, S.pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give examples of Gram negative bacteria

A

Diplococci: Neisseria meningitidis, N. Gonorrhoea
Coccobacilli: Haem influenzae, Brucella, B.pertussis
Bacilli: Shigella, Salmonella, E.coli, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name some infections of the skin epidermis.

A

Impetigo
Folliculitis
Furunculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name 2 infections of the skin dermis.

A

Carbunculosis

Erysipelas (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name 2 infections of the subcuntaneus layer of skin.

A

Cellulitis

Necrotising fascitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Infection of epidermis
More common in children
Golden crusts on erythematous skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Infected hair follicle- often the scalp and groin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is folliculitis treated?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is furunculosis?

A

Deep inflammation due to folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a carbuncle?

A

Boil in the dermis, extending into subcutaneous layer

Abscess forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is cellulitis and where does it appear?

A 
Inflammation of dermis/ subcutaneous layer
Often lower limbs, unilateral
Red, hot, swollen, painful
No necrosis
May be red halo around a joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is cellulitis treated?

A

Penicillin V AND Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which bacteria usually causes cellulitis?

A

S. Aurues

Occaisionally S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What results may be found on a blood test of a patient with cellulitis?

A

Raised WCC and CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is erysipelas and where might it be found?

A

Rare
Infection of dermis/subcutaneous layer or face/legs
Clear border, raised orange peel appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which Bacteria usually causes Erysipelas?

A

Group A Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is Erysipelas treated?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 stages of necrotising fascitis?

A
  1. Acute- trauma and pain disproportionate to injury. Flu like symptoms
  2. Advanced- purple swelling
  3. Critical- toxic shock, drop in BP, unconscious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which bacteria usually cause necrotising fascitis?

A

Group A Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which bacteria causes gas gangrene?

A

Chlostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which bacteria usually cause Septic arthritis?

A

S. aureus
Strep
N. Gonorrhoea
Gram negative bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the risk factors for septic arthritis?

A

Joint disease
Immunosuppression
Recent joint surgery
Diabetes, CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which joint is most commonly affected by septic arthritis?

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is septic arthritis treated?

A

IV Flucloxacillin

May need debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Bone infection

Often in long bones of legs, arms or back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is osteomyelitis treated?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a dermatophyte infection?

A

Fungal infection of skin also known as tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are dermatophyte infections treated?

A

Antifungals eg. Nystatin, Canestan

If drug resistant or invasive use Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of soft tissue infections?

A

S. Aureus

S. Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treponema pallidum causes which STI?

A

Syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of bacteria is Gonorrhoea?

A

Gram neg diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is a gonorrhoea infection treated?

A

Penicillin

If allergic: Cephalosporin or Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of bacteria is Chlamydia?

A

Gram negative
Obligate intracellular so cant grow on culture media

Has elementary body and reticulate body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Tetracyclines eg. Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of organism is Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Protozoa with flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is Trichomonas vaginalis treated?

A

Metronidazole

51
Q

What type of organism is Candida albicans and how is it treated?

A

Yeast

Fluconazole

52
Q

What is a chancre?

A

Syphilis sore
Firm painless not itchy

Disappears after 4 weeks but bacteria remain

53
Q

Which organisms most commonly cause a UTI?

A

E coli

Pseudomonas aeruginosa in complicated patients

54
Q

Proteus mirabilis is often associated with __________

A

Kidney stones

55
Q

Which antibiotics are recommended for UTIs?

A

NItrofurantoin (has low resistance risk) BD for 3 days

Trimethoprim BD for 3 days

56
Q

Which antibiotics are recommended for acute pyelonephritis?

A

Cefalexin (Cephalosporin)

Co-Amoxiclav

57
Q

What is diagnostic of a UTI?

A

Pyuria

>10^% CFU/ml

58
Q

What type of virus is Hep A and how is it spread?

A

ssRNA

Faeco oral, contaminated food and water and shellfish

59
Q

Where Hep A virus is endemic how is it spread?

A

Person to person contact

Usually younger patients (asymptomatic)

60
Q

How can Hep A be diagnosed on blood test?

A

HAV IgM raised from day 25
HAV IgG raised for life

AST and ALT raised

61
Q

What are the risk factors for Hep A?

A

Travel
MSM
IVDU

62
Q

Which types of Hepatitis are vaccines available for?

A 
Hep A
Hep B (indirectly Hep D)
63
Q

How is Hep B spread?

A 
Blood
IVDU
Sex
Direct conact
Vertical transmission
64
Q

Where Hep B is endemic it leads to ___________ infection.

65
Q

Where Hep B is sporadic it leads to ____________ infection.

66
Q

How can Hep B be diagnosed on a blood test?

A 
HbsAg (Hep B surface antigen)
HbeAg (Hep B e antigen- determines infectivity)
Anti Hbs
Anti Hbe
IgM (acute)
IgG (chronic)

Raised LFTs

67
Q

Hep B infection can lead to ___________

A

Cirrhosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma

68
Q

What will be the blood results in ACUTE Hep B infection?

A

Raised LFTs
HbsAg positive
HbeAg positive

Anti Hbe may be present
IgM and IgG

69
Q

What will be the blood results in PAST Hep B infection?

A

Normal LFTs
HbsAg positive
HbeAg may be positive

Anti Hbs
IgG

70
Q

What type of virus is Hep B?

A

dsDNA enveloped

71
Q

Which Hepatitis viruses are ssRNA viruses?

A

Hep A
Hep C
Hep D
Hep E

72
Q

Which Hepatitis viruses have envelopes?

A

Hep B
Hep C
Hep D (uses Hep B)

73
Q

How can Hep B be treated?

A

Interferons

Lamivudine

74
Q

What type of vaccine is the Hep B vaccine?

A

Recombinant

Booster needed every 5 years
Aim for antibodies >100

75
Q

How is Hepatitis C spread?

A

Blood, IVDU, Sex, Vertical

76
Q

85% of people infected wtih Hepatitis C develop ____________

A

Chronic silent infection

25% then develop cirrhosis
(4% develop cancer)

77
Q

How can Hep C be diagnosed on blood test?

A

Hep C RNA

Anti HCV

78
Q

What are the risk factors for the likelihood that Hep C will progress to cirrhosis or cancer?

A

Alcohol
Co-infection with Hep B or HIV
Older age
Male

79
Q

How can Hep C be treated?

A

Interferon
Ribavirin
Direct acting antivirals

80
Q

What type of virus is Hep D?

A

ssRNA with no envelope

Uses Hep B envelope

81
Q

How is Hep D transmitted?

A

Blood, IVDU, Sex

82
Q

What is the difference between Hep D co-infection and superinfection?

A

Co-infection: Hep B and D together; severe acute disease, low chronic risk

Super infection: Hep B carrier then Hep D infection; chronic Hep D, high risk of chronic liver disease

83
Q

How is Hep E spread?

A

Faeco-oral route. associated with pigs

84
Q

How many genotypes of Hep E virus are there?

A

4

1,2 and 4 in endemic areas
3 in non-endemic areas

85
Q

How can Hep E be treated?

86
Q

What type of virus is HIV?

A 
Group 6 retrovirus
2 species (1 high virulence, 2 low virulence)
87
Q

How can HIV be transmitted?

A
  1. Sexual
  2. Parenteral- blood and needles
  3. Vertical
88
Q

What are the 3 stages of HIV?

A
  1. Seroconversion- acute, flu, rash, 2-4 weeks post infection
  2. Asymptomatic- slow decline in CD4 cells
  3. AIDS- CD4 count below 200, susceptible to virulent infections then opportunistic infections
89
Q

What percentage of people with HIV in the UK are undiagnosed?

90
Q

What are the AIDs defining conditions?

A
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Kaposi’s sarcoma
  3. Pneumocystis (fungi)
  4. Cryptosporidiosis (parasite)
  5. Cerebral toxoplasmosis (protozoa)
91
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of endocarditis?

A 
Fever, night sweats, weight loss
New murmur
Osler's nodes
Janeway lesions
Splinter haemorrhages
Anaemia
Splenomegaly
92
Q

Which organisms most commonly cause endocarditis?

A

Strep (alpha haemolytic)
Staph
Enterococci

93
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Life threatening organ dysfunction

Caused by disregulated host response to infection

94
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Sepsis with
1. Lactate >2 despite adequate fluids
or
2. Vasopressors needed to maintain MAP >65

95
Q

How should sepsis be treated?

A
  1. Broad spectrum antibiotics eg. Meropenem, Cephalosporin
  2. Fluids
  3. Oxygen
96
Q

What are the innate causes of immunodeficiency?

A
  1. Neutrophil defect eg. Chronic granulomatous disease
  2. NK defect
  3. Complement defect
  4. Cytokine defect
  5. Splenectomy
97
Q

What are the adaptive causes of immunodeficiency?

A
  1. B cell/antibody defect

2. T cell defect eg. Di George syndrome

98
Q

What are secondary causes of immunodeficiency?

A
  1. Splenectomy
  2. Chemotherapy
  3. AIDS
  4. Neutropenia
99
Q

Which infections do patients who have had a splenectomy usually present with?

A

Pneumococcus
Meningococcus
Malaria

(encapsulated bacteria)

100
Q

How do neutropenic patients present?

A

Bacterial or fungal infections without pus
Fever
Aplastic anaemia

101
Q

What is the chance of obtaining Hep C from a needle stick injury?

102
Q

What type of bacteria is Salmonella?

A

Gram negative bacilli

103
Q

What type of bacteria is Enterococci?

A

Gram positive cocci

104
Q

What type of bacteria is Listeria?

A

Gram positive bacilli

105
Q

What type of bacteria is Neisseria?

A

Gram negative diplococci

106
Q

What type of organism is pneumocystis carinni?

A

Fungi

The most common infection in AIDs

107
Q

What is the most common species of malaria?

A

Plasmodum falciparum

108
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A

Quinine

Artesunate

109
Q

What is the incubation period for dengue fever?

110
Q

What is a Rickettsial infection?

A

Gram negative bacteria
Transmitted by ticks and fleas
Causes Typhus, Pox, African tick bite fever

111
Q

How is Rickettsial infection treated?

A

Doxycycline

112
Q

What is Histoplasmosis?

A

Infection caused by breathing in fungal spores from bird or bat droppings

113
Q

What is Schistosomiasis?

A

Parasitic flatworm
Lives in freshwater
Causes urinary and bowel infections

114
Q

What type of antibiotic is Doxycycline?

A

Tetracycline

Inhibits protein synthesis
Used for COPD, Chlamydia, malaria

115
Q

What type of antibiotic is Flucloxacillin?

A

Penicillin

116
Q

What type of antibiotic is Gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycoside

117
Q

What type of antibiotic is Erythromycin/Clarithromycin?

118
Q

What type of antibiotic is Metronidazole?

119
Q

What type of antibiotic is Trimethoprim?

A

Folate synthesis inhibitor

120
Q

Cephalosporins and Carbapenems are _________ spectrum antibiotics.

121
Q

Give examples of Glycopeptide antibiotics.

What can they be used for?

A

Teicoplanin
Vancomycin

MRSA, Complicated gram positive infections

122
Q

When should PEP be taken?

A

Ideally within 24 hours of potential exposure
Within 72 hours

Taken for 28 days

123
Q

Which drugs does PEP contain?

A
  1. Truvada (Emtricitbabine and Tenofovir)

2. Raltegravir

124
Q

Quinine and artesunate are used to treat which infection?

Year 3 (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions