Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the characteristics of Gram positive bacteria, and give examples.

A

Stain purple with gram stain.
Simpler cell wall than gram negative, but a thicker peptidoglycan layer.

2 main cell wall layers- peptidoglycan (with lipotechoic acid and techoic acid), and then an inner/cytoplasmic membrane.

Are less resistant to antibiotics.

Examples: streptococcus, staphylococcus, Bacillus, Chlostridium, Listeria

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2
Q

Describe the characteristics of Gram negative bacteria, and give examples.

A

Stain pink with gram stain.
More complex cell wall: lipopolysaccharide, then an outer phospholipid membrane, petidoglycan then inner membrance.

More resistant to antibiotics.

Outer membrane with LPS- lipid portion is toxic and can cause fever and shock.

Examples: E.coli, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, cyanobacteria, proteobacteria, helicobacter.

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3
Q

Where are lactobacilli normally found in the body?

A

Vagina

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4
Q

Where are candida albicans normally found in the body?

A

Vagina, mouth, skin

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5
Q

How are streptococcus bacteria arranged?

A

In a chain of cocci (spheres)

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6
Q

How are staphylococcus bacteria arranged?

A

In a bunch of cocci (spheres)

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7
Q

What are the 4 main components of bacteria which antibiotics target?

A
  1. Cell wall- Beta lactams (Penicillins, Cephalosporins and Carbapenems) and Glycopeptides (Vancomycin and Teicoplanin)
  2. Protein synthesis (Tetracyclines eg, Doxycycline, Aminoglycosides eg Gentamycin, Macrolides eg. Erythromycin and Streptogramins eg. Pristamycin)
  3. Folate synthesis (Trimethoprim or Sulfonamides eg. Sulfadiazine)
  4. DNA synthesis - Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin) or Metronidazole
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8
Q

How do Beta lactam antibiotics work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Beta lactams include Penicillins eg, Amoxicillin, Cephalosporins eg. Cephalexin, and Carbapenems eg. Imipenem.

Bind transpeptidases, preventing peptidoglycan cross-linkage.

Side effects include hyposensitivity, CNS toxicity and seizures, and increased risk of GI disturbances and C. Difficile.

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9
Q

How do Glycopeptides work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Glycopeptides (eg. Vancomycin and Teicoplanin) work by binding peptides in peptidoglycan, to inhibit cross-linking.

Side effects include Nephrotoxicity and Red man syndrome (an infusion related hypersensitivity reaction)

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10
Q

How do Tetracyclines work? Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

Tetracyclins (eg. Doxycycline) work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, by binding to the 30S ribosome subunit.

Side effects include Binding to teeth and causing staining.

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11
Q

How do Aminoglycosides work?Give examples. What are their common significant side effects?

A

eg Gentamycin.
Prevent bacterial protein synthesis, by binding the 30S ribosome subunit.

Side effects include being nephrotoxic and ototoxic.

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12
Q

How do Quinolones work? Give examples.

A

Quinolones include Ciprofloxacin and Moxifloxacin.

They work by inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis, by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase.

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13
Q

Describe the process of gram staining.

A
  1. Add Crystal violet.
  2. Fix with iodine.
  3. Wash with acetone.
  4. Counterstain with neutral red.
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14
Q

How do Sulfonamide antibiotics work? give examples of side effects.

A

Inhibit folate synthesis, by preventing addition of para-amino benzoic acid to folic acid.

Side effects include Steven-Johnson syndrome, skin rash.

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15
Q

Give examples of Gram positive bacteria.

A

Bacilli- Aerobic = Listeria, Bacillus
Anaerobic= C.diff

Cocci- Staph eg. S.aureus, S.epidermidis
Strep- S.pneumoniae, S.pyogenes

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16
Q

Give examples of Gram negative bacteria

A

Diplococci: Neisseria meningitidis, N. Gonorrhoea
Coccobacilli: Haem influenzae, Brucella, B.pertussis
Bacilli: Shigella, Salmonella, E.coli, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Enterobacter

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17
Q

Name some infections of the skin epidermis.

A

Impetigo
Folliculitis
Furunculosis

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18
Q

Name 2 infections of the skin dermis.

A

Carbunculosis

Erysipelas (rare)

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19
Q

Name 2 infections of the subcuntaneus layer of skin.

A

Cellulitis

Necrotising fascitis

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20
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Infection of epidermis
More common in children
Golden crusts on erythematous skin

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21
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Infected hair follicle- often the scalp and groin.

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22
Q

How is folliculitis treated?

A

Flucloxacillin

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23
Q

What is furunculosis?

A

Deep inflammation due to folliculitis

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24
Q

What is a carbuncle?

A

Boil in the dermis, extending into subcutaneous layer

Abscess forms

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25
What is cellulitis and where does it appear?
``` Inflammation of dermis/ subcutaneous layer Often lower limbs, unilateral Red, hot, swollen, painful No necrosis May be red halo around a joint ```
26
How is cellulitis treated?
Penicillin V AND Flucloxacillin
27
Which bacteria usually causes cellulitis?
S. Aurues | Occaisionally S. pyogenes
28
What results may be found on a blood test of a patient with cellulitis?
Raised WCC and CRP
29
What is erysipelas and where might it be found?
Rare Infection of dermis/subcutaneous layer or face/legs Clear border, raised orange peel appearance
30
Which Bacteria usually causes Erysipelas?
Group A Strep
31
How is Erysipelas treated?
Penicillin
32
What are the 3 stages of necrotising fascitis?
1. Acute- trauma and pain disproportionate to injury. Flu like symptoms 2. Advanced- purple swelling 3. Critical- toxic shock, drop in BP, unconscious
33
Which bacteria usually cause necrotising fascitis?
Group A Strep
34
Which bacteria causes gas gangrene?
Chlostridium perfringens
35
Which bacteria usually cause Septic arthritis?
S. aureus Strep N. Gonorrhoea Gram negative bacilli
36
What are the risk factors for septic arthritis?
Joint disease Immunosuppression Recent joint surgery Diabetes, CKD
37
Which joint is most commonly affected by septic arthritis?
Knee
38
How is septic arthritis treated?
IV Flucloxacillin | May need debridement
39
What is osteomyelitis?
Bone infection | Often in long bones of legs, arms or back
40
How is osteomyelitis treated?
Flucloxacillin
41
What is a dermatophyte infection?
Fungal infection of skin also known as tinea
42
How are dermatophyte infections treated?
Antifungals eg. Nystatin, Canestan If drug resistant or invasive use Fluconazole
43
What are the 2 most common causes of soft tissue infections?
S. Aureus | S. Pyogenes
44
Treponema pallidum causes which STI?
Syphillis
45
What type of bacteria is Gonorrhoea?
Gram neg diplococci
46
How is a gonorrhoea infection treated?
Penicillin If allergic: Cephalosporin or Ciprofloxacin
47
What type of bacteria is Chlamydia?
Gram negative Obligate intracellular so cant grow on culture media Has elementary body and reticulate body
48
How is chlamydia treated?
Tetracyclines eg. Doxycycline
49
What type of organism is Trichomonas vaginalis?
Protozoa with flagella
50
How is Trichomonas vaginalis treated?
Metronidazole
51
What type of organism is Candida albicans and how is it treated?
Yeast Fluconazole
52
What is a chancre?
Syphilis sore Firm painless not itchy Disappears after 4 weeks but bacteria remain
53
Which organisms most commonly cause a UTI?
E coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa in complicated patients
54
Proteus mirabilis is often associated with __________
Kidney stones
55
Which antibiotics are recommended for UTIs?
NItrofurantoin (has low resistance risk) BD for 3 days Trimethoprim BD for 3 days
56
Which antibiotics are recommended for acute pyelonephritis?
Cefalexin (Cephalosporin) Co-Amoxiclav
57
What is diagnostic of a UTI?
Pyuria | >10^% CFU/ml
58
What type of virus is Hep A and how is it spread?
ssRNA | Faeco oral, contaminated food and water and shellfish
59
Where Hep A virus is endemic how is it spread?
Person to person contact | Usually younger patients (asymptomatic)
60
How can Hep A be diagnosed on blood test?
HAV IgM raised from day 25 HAV IgG raised for life AST and ALT raised
61
What are the risk factors for Hep A?
Travel MSM IVDU
62
Which types of Hepatitis are vaccines available for?
``` Hep A Hep B (indirectly Hep D) ```
63
How is Hep B spread?
``` Blood IVDU Sex Direct conact Vertical transmission ```
64
Where Hep B is endemic it leads to ___________ infection.
Chronic
65
Where Hep B is sporadic it leads to ____________ infection.
Acute
66
How can Hep B be diagnosed on a blood test?
``` HbsAg (Hep B surface antigen) HbeAg (Hep B e antigen- determines infectivity) Anti Hbs Anti Hbe IgM (acute) IgG (chronic) ``` Raised LFTs
67
Hep B infection can lead to ___________
Cirrhosis | Hepatocellular carcinoma
68
What will be the blood results in ACUTE Hep B infection?
Raised LFTs HbsAg positive HbeAg positive Anti Hbe may be present IgM and IgG
69
What will be the blood results in PAST Hep B infection?
Normal LFTs HbsAg positive HbeAg may be positive Anti Hbs IgG
70
What type of virus is Hep B?
dsDNA enveloped
71
Which Hepatitis viruses are ssRNA viruses?
Hep A Hep C Hep D Hep E
72
Which Hepatitis viruses have envelopes?
Hep B Hep C Hep D (uses Hep B)
73
How can Hep B be treated?
Interferons | Lamivudine
74
What type of vaccine is the Hep B vaccine?
Recombinant Booster needed every 5 years Aim for antibodies >100
75
How is Hepatitis C spread?
Blood, IVDU, Sex, Vertical
76
85% of people infected wtih Hepatitis C develop ____________
Chronic silent infection | 25% then develop cirrhosis (4% develop cancer)
77
How can Hep C be diagnosed on blood test?
Hep C RNA | Anti HCV
78
What are the risk factors for the likelihood that Hep C will progress to cirrhosis or cancer?
Alcohol Co-infection with Hep B or HIV Older age Male
79
How can Hep C be treated?
Interferon Ribavirin Direct acting antivirals
80
What type of virus is Hep D?
ssRNA with no envelope | Uses Hep B envelope
81
How is Hep D transmitted?
Blood, IVDU, Sex
82
What is the difference between Hep D co-infection and superinfection?
Co-infection: Hep B and D together; severe acute disease, low chronic risk Super infection: Hep B carrier then Hep D infection; chronic Hep D, high risk of chronic liver disease
83
How is Hep E spread?
Faeco-oral route. associated with pigs
84
How many genotypes of Hep E virus are there?
4 1,2 and 4 in endemic areas 3 in non-endemic areas
85
How can Hep E be treated?
Ribavirin
86
What type of virus is HIV?
``` Group 6 retrovirus 2 species (1 high virulence, 2 low virulence) ```
87
How can HIV be transmitted?
1. Sexual 2. Parenteral- blood and needles 3. Vertical
88
What are the 3 stages of HIV?
1. Seroconversion- acute, flu, rash, 2-4 weeks post infection 2. Asymptomatic- slow decline in CD4 cells 3. AIDS- CD4 count below 200, susceptible to virulent infections then opportunistic infections
89
What percentage of people with HIV in the UK are undiagnosed?
12%
90
What are the AIDs defining conditions?
1. Tuberculosis 2. Kaposi's sarcoma 3. Pneumocystis (fungi) 4. Cryptosporidiosis (parasite) 5. Cerebral toxoplasmosis (protozoa)
91
What are the signs and symptoms of endocarditis?
``` Fever, night sweats, weight loss New murmur Osler's nodes Janeway lesions Splinter haemorrhages Anaemia Splenomegaly ```
92
Which organisms most commonly cause endocarditis?
Strep (alpha haemolytic) Staph Enterococci
93
What is sepsis?
Life threatening organ dysfunction | Caused by disregulated host response to infection
94
What is septic shock?
Sepsis with 1. Lactate >2 despite adequate fluids or 2. Vasopressors needed to maintain MAP >65
95
How should sepsis be treated?
1. Broad spectrum antibiotics eg. Meropenem, Cephalosporin 2. Fluids 3. Oxygen
96
What are the innate causes of immunodeficiency?
1. Neutrophil defect eg. Chronic granulomatous disease 2. NK defect 3. Complement defect 4. Cytokine defect 5. Splenectomy
97
What are the adaptive causes of immunodeficiency?
1. B cell/antibody defect | 2. T cell defect eg. Di George syndrome
98
What are secondary causes of immunodeficiency?
1. Splenectomy 2. Chemotherapy 3. AIDS 4. Neutropenia
99
Which infections do patients who have had a splenectomy usually present with?
Pneumococcus Meningococcus Malaria (encapsulated bacteria)
100
How do neutropenic patients present?
Bacterial or fungal infections without pus Fever Aplastic anaemia
101
What is the chance of obtaining Hep C from a needle stick injury?
3%
102
What type of bacteria is Salmonella?
Gram negative bacilli
103
What type of bacteria is Enterococci?
Gram positive cocci
104
What type of bacteria is Listeria?
Gram positive bacilli
105
What type of bacteria is Neisseria?
Gram negative diplococci
106
What type of organism is pneumocystis carinni?
Fungi The most common infection in AIDs
107
What is the most common species of malaria?
Plasmodum falciparum
108
What is the treatment for malaria?
Quinine | Artesunate
109
What is the incubation period for dengue fever?
7-14 days
110
What is a Rickettsial infection?
Gram negative bacteria Transmitted by ticks and fleas Causes Typhus, Pox, African tick bite fever
111
How is Rickettsial infection treated?
Doxycycline
112
What is Histoplasmosis?
Infection caused by breathing in fungal spores from bird or bat droppings
113
What is Schistosomiasis?
Parasitic flatworm Lives in freshwater Causes urinary and bowel infections
114
What type of antibiotic is Doxycycline?
Tetracycline Inhibits protein synthesis Used for COPD, Chlamydia, malaria
115
What type of antibiotic is Flucloxacillin?
Penicillin
116
What type of antibiotic is Gentamicin?
Aminoglycoside
117
What type of antibiotic is Erythromycin/Clarithromycin?
Macrolide
118
What type of antibiotic is Metronidazole?
Quinolone
119
What type of antibiotic is Trimethoprim?
Folate synthesis inhibitor
120
Cephalosporins and Carbapenems are _________ spectrum antibiotics.
Broad
121
Give examples of Glycopeptide antibiotics. What can they be used for?
Teicoplanin Vancomycin MRSA, Complicated gram positive infections
122
When should PEP be taken?
Ideally within 24 hours of potential exposure Within 72 hours Taken for 28 days
123
Which drugs does PEP contain?
1. Truvada (Emtricitbabine and Tenofovir) | 2. Raltegravir
124
Quinine and artesunate are used to treat which infection?
Malaria