Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

causes of fluctuating cognitive function

A

subdural hematoma
cerebral abscesses
meningioma
hypertensive encephalopathy
insulinoma producing hypoglycemia
acute aortic regurgitation
alcohol intoxication

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2
Q

difference between acute and chronic inflammation

A

acute is sudden onset, short duration, and resolves over time

chronic is slow onset, long duration, stays

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3
Q

Give examples of chronic inflammation that are not a result of acute inflammation

A

TB, leprosy, Chron’s disease, sarcoidosis
mononucleosis

Chron’s disease -> inflammatory bowel disease
Sarcoidosis -> granulomas all over body because immune system overreacts

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4
Q

which is the first cell at the site of inflammation

A

neutrophils

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5
Q

what are the two cells that appear at the site of inflammation?

A

neutrophils and macrophages

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6
Q

give a few characteristics of neutrophils

A

polylobed nuclei
many lysosomes
1st cells to arrive at site of inflammation
die at the site of inflammation

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7
Q

what is the relationship between macrophages and immunity?

A

macrophages present an antigen to lymphocytes to produce antibodies and create long-term immunity

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8
Q

which cells produce antibodies

A

plasma cells

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9
Q

what is the relationship between capillary sphincters and inflammation?

A

they open so that more blood flows at the site of inflammation –> capillary bed gets more activated –> b.p drops and you get more swollen

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10
Q

how do you treat acute inflammation?

A

depending on the cause ice, aspirin, ibuprofen, antihistamines, steroid creams, antibiotics

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11
Q

how does ice decrease inflammation?

A

shuts capillary sphincters so reduces redness and stops swelling

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12
Q

how does ibuprofen reduce inflammation?

A

inhibits prostaglandin synthase

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13
Q

what is prostaglandin synthase?

A

chemical mediator for inflammation

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14
Q

how do corticosteroids reduce inflammation?

A

up-regulate inhibitors of inflammation and downregulate mediators of inflammation

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15
Q

what cells are part of the reticuloendothelial system

A

alveolar macrophages
histocytes (connective tissue phagocytes)
Kupffer cells
Mesangial cells (macrophages of the renal system - phagocytes products from glomerular b. m.)
microglial cells

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16
Q

what is normal blood flow called

A

laminar blood flow

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17
Q

what causes clot formation

A

exposure of platelets to collagen

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18
Q

how does a clot affect blood flow?

A

creates turbulent flow

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19
Q

what is a thrombus?

A

solid mass of blood constituents in the vascular system

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20
Q

what are the three causes of thrombosis?

A

change in vessel wall
change in blood flow
change in blood constituents

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21
Q

what in the cigarette damages endothelial cells

A

nicotine

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22
Q

what do healthy endothelial cells produce to be less sticky

A

NO

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23
Q

why is aspirin used for people with a risk of infarction?

A

inhibits platelet aggregation

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24
Q

what is an embolus

A

mass of material lodged in the vessel

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25
what is ischemia
reduction in blood flow
26
what is infarction
reduction in blood flow which leads to subsequent cell death
27
what are the different types of emboli?
thrombus cholesterol crystals air tumour amniotic fluid fat
28
what organs have 2 blood supplies and identify those blood supplies
lungs (pulmonary art and bronchial art) and some parts of the brain (circle of Willis)
29
what is heparin
an anticoagulant
30
resolution vs repair
resolution - tissue can regenerate repair - tissue can't regenerate
31
which organs can regenerate
Liver GI tract lining skin bones lung pneumocytes
32
Can alveoli regenerate
no
33
what organs don't regenerate
brain heart spinal cord
34
1st intention healing vs 2nd intention
1st - brings ends together 2nd - the wound is too deep so it can't bring the end. the tissue has to start growing again from below up and blood supply needs to be brought from both sides
35
what do you call fibrosis in the brain
gliosis
36
what cells regenerate
hepatocytes pneumocytes all blood cells gut epithelium skin epithelium osteocytes bone marrow
37
what process plays a massive role in growth and development
apoptosis and cell migration
38
what is the difference between spina bifida occulta, meningocele, and myelomeningocele
spina bifida --> missing a spinous process meningocele --> meninges sticking out in a sack myelomeningocele --> cauda equina sticks out in the meningeal sack
39
what is a cleft lip
a split in the upper lip or roof of the palate
40
describe the possible cardiac congenital defects
non-closure of: - PATENT foramen ovale --> it raises the risk for stroke. Usually symptomless in children. Blood clots can travel from the right atrium to the left atrium and out to blood vessels of the body. If the clot blocks a blood vessel in the brain, it can cause a stroke. - VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT --> Ventricular septal defect is a common congenital heart defect. The baby may have no symptoms and the hole can close over time as the wall continues to grow after birth. If the hole is large, too much blood will be pumped to the lungs. This can lead to heart failure. - PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS --> The PDA lets oxygen-rich blood (blood high in oxygen) from the aorta mix with oxygen-poor blood (blood low in oxygen) in the pulmonary artery. As a result, too much blood flows into the lungs, which puts a strain on the heart and increases blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries.
41
what are the facial characteristics of a baby born with fetal alcohol syndrome
small eye openings thin upper lip smooth philtrum (no cupid's bow above mouth - the dip)
42
what protein is in excess in Down's syndrome
beta-amyloid --> gene present on chromosome 21
43
what are homeobox genes
genes that control cell migration
44
why are children with Down's syndrome more susceptible to bacterial infections
gene for
45
what is the most common type of hyperplasia in adult males and where does it take place specifically
prostatic hyperplasia from the core of the prostate --> the core is the one that enlarges
46
how does a cell decide when to apoptose
-when it detects too much DNA damage in the cell
47
what is p53 and how can mutations of it affect cancer
protein in cells which detects DNA damage and triggers apoptosis mutations in p53 lead to problems in detecting DNA damage --> growth of the cancer
48
what is the pathophysiological mechanism of HIV
induces apoptosis in CD4 T-helper cells --> immunodeficiency
49
what is the name of enzymes which trigger apoptosis
caspases
50
Complications of artherosclerosis
Cerberal infarction, Carotid artheroma ,myocardial infarction, Aortic aneurysm, peripheral, vascular disease, gangrene
51
What type of inflammation is caused by infectious mononucleosis and why
Chronic because it is caused by a virus so triggers lymphocyte response
52
How do you reduce the risk of NSAID-related gastritis
Prescribe selective COX-2 inhibitors and ppi
53
How do you reduce the risk of NSAID-related gastritis
Prescribe selective COX-2 inhibitors and ppi
54
What are the consequences of acute inflammation
redness, swelling, pain, heat and loss of function
55
Why does chronic inflammation lead to cancer
Inflammation causes cellular changes to repair damaged tissue —> increased cellular proliferation increases risk of developing mutations Chronic infl cells also generate a lot of ROS and Nitrogen species —> increase chances of mutations Infl cells also interfere with cell replication
56
What type of arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder
Rheumatoid arthritis
57
What type of arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder
Rheumatoid arthritis
58
What are carcinomas and sarcomas
Carcinomas - Malignant cancers of epithelium Sarcomas - Malignant cancers of connective tissue
59
Where do carcinomas and sarcomas most likely spread to
Carcinomas spread to the lymph nodes that drain their site In advanced stages carcinomas can also spread through blood to the bone Sarcomas spread to blood
60
Which are the most common cancers which spread to the bone
Breast, prostate, lung, thyroid and kidney
61
Do all tumours show up on a CT scan
Micro metastases do not if they are under 10mm
62
What is adjuvant therapy
Extra treatment given after surgical excision Ex.: radiotherapy after breast lumpectomy
63
What is the HER 2 receptor
A growth factor receptor found in some breast cancer cells which is associated with a more aggressive tumour and resistance to some kinds of chemotherapy and tamoxifen
64
What type of cancer is asbestos associated with
Mesothelioma
65
What type of cancer H. Pylori and epsine-barr associated with
Lymphoma
66
What cancer is HPV associated with
Cervical cancer
67
what is a carcinoma?
malignant cancer of epithelium
68
what is a sarcoma?
malignant cancer of connective tissue
69
What are the carcinogens for lung and skin cancer?
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (They result from burning coal, oil, gas, wood, garbage, and tobacco.)
70
what are the carcinogens for bladder cancer and breast cancer?
aromatic amines (chemicals found in industrial and manufacturing plants, tobacco smoke, commercial hair dyes, and diesel exhaust.)
71
what are the carcinogens for gut cancer?
nitrosamines (formed during the fermentation of various foods and tobacco and by the in vivo reaction of nitrite preservatives with amines under the acidic conditions found in the gastrointestinal tract. --> found in meat products, processed fish, cocoa, beer and other alcoholic beverages)
72
what are the carcinogens for leukaemia?
alkylating agents --> Actual chemotherapy or radiotherapy --> can cause patients to develop leukaemia (Alkylating agents keep the cell from reproducing (making copies of itself) by damaging its DNA. These drugs work in all phases of the cell cycle and are used to treat many different cancers, including cancers of the lung, breast, and ovary as well as leukemia, lymphoma, Hodgkin disease, multiple myeloma, and sarcoma.)
72
Kaposi sarcoma viral carcinogen
Human Herpes virus 8 Kaposi sarcoma is a disease in which cancer cells are found in the skin or mucous membranes that line the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, from mouth to anus, including the stomach and intestines
73
Hepatocellular carcinoma viral carcinogen
Hep B virus
73
Burkitt lymphoma and Nasopharyngeal carcinoma viral carcinogens
Epstein Barr Virus
73
Squamous cell carcinomas of the cervix, penis, anus, head and neck viral carcinogen
Human Papillomavirus
74
Merkle cell carcinoma viral carcinogen
Merkle cell polyomavirus
74
What cancers are associated with Human T-lymphotropic virus and Hep C virus and what kind of viruses are they
Adult T-cell leukaemia and Hepatocellular carcinoma RNA viruses
74
Which carcinogens are associated with skin cancer
UV and Arsenic (metal)
74
Which mycotoxin is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
Aflatoxin B1 mycotoxin = toxin produced by moulds and fungi in food
75
What type of cancer is asbestos associated with
mesothelioma
76
what is an adenoma?
benign neoplasm of glandular tissue or secretory epithelium; looks like small mushrooms with a stalk and have a smooth surface
77
what are papillomas?
benign neoplasm with a rough surface (think of ivan's mole on his face which he removed in russia) are non-glandular and from non-secretory epithelium
78
what is the 2 hit hypothesis
you already have a mutation that puts you at risk of cancer and if you get a second mutation/hit the cancer is triggered
79
what are the 2 viral risk factors for lymphoma?
H pylori and Epstein Barr
80
what are proto-oncogenes
genes which promote cell growth and survival and prevent apoptosis
81
what are tumour suppressor genes and how are they regulated in cancer
these genes inhibit cell growth and proliferation and in cancer they are down-regulated
82
small cell carcinoma vs non-small cell carcinoma
small cell --> very aggressive, loads of necrosis and rapid division non-small cell --> no very aggressive, growth doesn't generally outdo angiogenisis so little to no necrosis and doesn't grow as fast.
83
what is myeloma
plasma cell cancer --> originates from lymphoid progenitor cells
84
what is a carcinoma in-situ?
carcinoma which hasn't gone through BM yet
85
tumour grading vs tumour staging
Grading --> how much the tumour cells resemble the normal tissue --> very different = high grade Staging --> how much the tumour has spread
86
explain the TNM tumour staging
T = tumour size, depth and spread N = nodes --> extent of lymph node metastasis M = metastases --> extent of spread to other parts of the body
87
define carcinogenesis
conversion of normal cells to neoplastic cells via genetic alterations/mutations
88
define oncogenesis
formation of benign or malignant tumours
89
what is diethylstilboestrol
medication which was used for morning sickness but increased risk of vaginal cancer
90
micro-invasive carcinoma vs invasive carcinoma
micro-invasive = has breached BM but can still be fully excised invasive = got through BM and has high potential to invade rest of body
91
how do cancer cells invade BM
They produce: - proteases - collagenases - cathepsin D - urokinase-type plasminogen activator --> protease involved in cell migration They also have cell motility --> invade ECM
92
outline the steps of metastasis
formation of malignant tumour breaching of BM INTRAVASION breaching of lymphatic vessel or blood vessel (lymphatic vessel more easy to breach than blood vessel cuz only 1 cell layer whereas vs thick muscle layer) Evasion of host immune defence the tumour hides from the immune system by aggregating platelets on top of it --> can't be detected if it hides behind platelets travelling of tumour cells to new site EXTRAVASION tumour has adhesion receptors --> attaches to a place in the vessel and breaches the wall again to exit in new site growth factors released from tumour: - VEGF - fibroblast growth factor Inhibition of angiogenesis inhibitors: - angiostatin -endostatin -vasculostatin tumour growth and angiogenesis beyond 1mm
93
what type of cancers invade venules easily and where do they usually metastasize
sarcomas easily invade venules and they can metastasize to the lungs because they travel up the vena cava to the heart through the pulmonary artery and to the lungs where they can easily get lodged in the capillaries and grow
94
would you give chemotherapy to someone going into liver failure?
NO
95
Angiogenesis inhibitors
- angiostatin -endostatin -vasculostatin
96
tumour definition
any abnormal swelling
97
neoplasm definition
a lesion resulting from abnormal and autonomous growth of cells which persists after the initiating stimulus has been removed
98
what are borderline neoplasms?
between benign or malignant
99
what is the relationship between neoplastic cells and the stroma?
stroma supports the neoplastic cells --> mechanical support and nutrition : metastatic cells hijack the stroma
100
Name the benign and malignant neoplasm of striated muscle
Rhabdomyoma and Rhabdomyosarcoma