liver and GI Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of vit b12

A

forms rbc
develops nerve cells
forms DNA

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2
Q

how is b12 absorbed?

A

IF in the terminal ileum

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3
Q

what causes scurvy

A

lack of collagen synthesis due to vit c deficiency

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4
Q

functions of vit A

A

rhodopsin production
spermatogenesis
prevention of foetal resorption
growth
antioxidant

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5
Q

source of vit A

A

meat milk and carotenes

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6
Q

functions of Vit D

A

Ca absorption and reabsorption
Phosphate absorption and reabsorption
resorption and formation of bone
regulates DNA transcription of PTH

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7
Q

vit K functions

A

activation of clotting factors 2,7,9,10

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8
Q

vit K sources

A

spinach broccoli kale sunflower oil

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9
Q

folate functions

A

methylation rxns
DNA synthesis
methionine synthesis

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10
Q

where is folate stored

A

liver

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11
Q

what vit is folate

A

vit B9

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12
Q

how is alcohol metabolised in the liver

A

NOT phase 1 and phase 2 rxns
alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme converts alcohol to acetyl aldehyde which is very toxic to the liver and scars the tissue before converting it to acetyl-CoA which leads into fatty acid synthesis and causes the fatty liver

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13
Q

what is bile

A

H2O + electrolytes + bile acids + phospholipids + cholesterol + bile pigments

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14
Q

outline enterohepatic circulation

A

1) cholesterol is broken down into cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid
2) cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid are conjugated to increase hydrophilicity (so that they stay in the intestinal lumen and don’t diffuse through the membrane)
3) CCK released when food in stomach
4) release of bile by contraction of the gall bladder
5) 5% bile deconjugated and reabsorbed back to hepatocytes
6) 95% turn to bile salts and become micelles
7) micelles break down lipids into free fatty acids
8) the free fatty acids cross the intestinal lumen into the enterocytes and reform with the enterocytes as chylomicrons
9) 90% of the bile is reabsorbed in the terminal ileum via the Na/bile transporter
10) 5% of the bile excreted in faeces

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15
Q

outline the breakdown of Hb

A

1) broken into globin and heme
2) the globin is broken into its amino acids and recycled
3) the heme is broken down into iron and unconjugated bilirubin
4) the unconjugated bilirubin is carried in the blood via albumin to the liver
5) glucuronic acid conjugates bilirubin so that it can’t be absorbed by enterocytes
6) in the distal ileum intestinal bacteria turn the conjugated bilirubin into urobilinogen
7)
- 5% taken to liver and incorporated in bile
- 5% taken to kidneys –> yellow urobilinogen (colour of pee)
- 90% excreted in faeces as stercobilin (gives brown colour to poo)

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16
Q

how is cholesterol secreted?

A

only via the biliary pathway

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17
Q

what is the surface marking of the fundus of the gallbladder?

A

the tip of the 9th costal cartilage; where the right midclavicular line intersects the right costal margin

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18
Q

what are the 3 surfaces of the hepatocytes? and their functions

A

canalicular surface –> where bile is secreted
sinusoidal surface –> where the blood runs towards the central hepatic vein
intercellular surface –> between 2 hepatocytes

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19
Q

draw the biliary system from canaliculi to the entrance of bile into the duodenum

A

1) the canaliculi form the right and left hepatic ducts
2) the right and left hepatic ducts join into the common hepatic duct
3) the common hepatic duct also receives the cystic duct from the gall bladder
4) after the cystic duct the common hepatic duct turns into the bile duct
5) the bile duct travels posterior to the duodenum and the head of the pancreas
6) the bile duct joins with the pancreatic duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla
7) the hepatopancreatic ampulla empties its contents into the duodenum through a small opening called the major duodenal papilla

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20
Q

what is the blood supply of the gallbladder

A

right and left cystic arteries from the right hepatic artery

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21
Q

what are the components of the portal triad

A

hepatic portal vein
hepatic artery proper
bile duct

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22
Q

what LFTs give an index of liver function

A

bilirubin
albumin
prothrombin time

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23
Q

what causes jaundice (in terms of what causes the yellow colour)

A

raised serum bilirubin

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24
Q

what is cholestasis

A

a condition where the normal flow of bile is obstructed or reduced

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25
Q

explain the different types of jaundice and the type of bilirubin that they present with

A

pre-hepatic jaundice - due to haemolysis; increased unconjugated bilirubin levels

Hepatic jaundice - impaired liver function; elevated unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin

post-hepatic jaundice - obstruction of bile flow from liver to intestine; accumulation of conjugated bilirubin in the bloodstream

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26
Q

name 2 acuses of prehepatic jaundice

A

haemolysis and gilbert’s syndrome

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27
Q

pre hepatic vs post hepatic jaundice symptoms (urine, stools, itching, liver tests)

A

pre-hepatic
urine normal
stools normal
no itching
normal liver tests

post-hepatic
urine dark
stools pale
maybe itching
liver tests abnormal

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28
Q

what type of jaundice is this?
urine dark
stools pale
maybe itching
liver tests abnormal

A

post-hepatic/hepatic

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29
Q

what is Biliary Colic

A

A self-limiting pain in the RUQ/epigastrium associated with gallstones

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30
Q

what is Acute Cholecystitis

A

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder, most commonly caused by gallstones

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31
Q

what is Acute Cholangitis

A

Infection of the biliary tree, commonly due to an obstructing stone in the common bile duct

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32
Q

what is Choledocholithiasis

A

Gallstones within the biliary tree

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33
Q

what are risk factors for gall stones

A

female
age
white caucasian, native americans and hispanic
high cholesterol
Extravascular haemolysis, haemolytic anaemia, sickle cell, hereditary spherocytosis
Liver disease
Rapid weight loss/prolonged fasting
Diabetes
Medications - eg Oestrogen HRT, ceftriaxone, octreotide
Crohn’s disease
Rapid Weight Loss/Prolonged Fasting:

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34
Q

where does pain from gall stones manifest and where can it radiate

A

right upper quadrant
radiating into right shoulder

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34
Q

What is the commonest serious infection in cirrhosis

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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34
Q

what test do you run in a patient with jaundice

A

Liver enzymes: AST/ALT
Ultrasound: 90% have dilated intrahepatic bile ducts on ultrasound
if the ducts are dilates you need further imaging: - CT - Magnetic resonance cholangioram MRCP
- Endoscopic retrograde cholangiogram ERCP

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35
Q

what are some factors contributing to gallstone formation?

A

Increased Ca
Haemolysis
Increased cholesterol
Biliary stasis
Infection

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36
Q

what are the different types of gallstones that you can develop

A

cholesterol stones –> vast majority of cases
Black pigment stones –> due to too much billirubin
brown pigment stones –> mixed stones

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37
Q

symptoms of biliary colic

A

Localised RUQ pain
worse after fatty meal

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37
Q

symptoms of acute cholecystitis

A

RUQ/Epigastric Pain - may radiate to right shoulder if diaphragm is irritated (phrenic nerve)
Fever + rigors
Nausea + Vomiting
RUQ tenderness
Murphy’s Sign positive
Occasionally mildly deranged LFTs - esp. If Mirizzi syndrome
Raised inflammatory markers
Ultrasound can show inflamed gallstones and pericholecystic fluid

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38
Q

what is murphy’s sign

A

Murphy’s sign is elicited in patients with acute cholecystitis by asking the patient to take in and hold a deep breath while palpating the right subcostal area. If pain occurs when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner’s hand, Murphy’s sign is positive.

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39
Q

symptoms and signs of acute cholangitis

A

Charcot’s triad:
1. RUQ pain
2. Fever
3. Jaundice

if sepsis is very severe Reynold’s Pentad:
Charcot’s triad + Hypotension + confusion

RUQ tenderness
Raised inflammatory markers
Raised bilirubin, ALT, ALP
Duct dilation on ultrasound

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40
Q

what is the difference in the blood tests between acute cholangitis and acute cholecystitis

A

in acute cholangitis you will have raised bilirubin, ALT and ALP as the biliary tree is inflamed, whereas in acute cholecystits you do not.

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41
Q

if ultrasound shows acute cholangitis what tests do you order

A

CT or MRCP

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42
Q

what is pyrexia

A

fever

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43
Q

what are common drugs which cause drug induced liver injury

A

32-45% Antibiotics (Augmentin, Flucloxacillin, Erythromycin, Septrin, TB drugs)
15% CNS Drugs (Chlorpromazine, Carbamazepine Valproate, Paroxetine,
5% Immunosupressants
5-17% Analgesics/musculskeletal
(Diclofenac…)
10% Gastrointestinal Drugs (PPIs…)
10% Dietary Supplements
PARACETAMOL
Statins

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44
Q

explain what ALP, ALT, GGT and AST are

A

these are some of the liver function tests
ALT = alanine aminotransferase –> important in protein breakdown
- more specific for liver than AST

AST - aspartate aminotransferase –> indicates protein metabolism and is not as specific as ALT

ALP - alkaline phosphatase –> enzyme found specifically and bile duct in bone so indicates acute cholangitis

GGT - gamma-glutamyl transferase –> enzyme found in bile duct cells; more specific than ALP

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45
Q

explain paracetamol metabolism

A

paracetamol is also known as acetaminophen

There are 2 pathways for paracetamol metabolism:

A
most paracetamol is metabolised like this:
1) acetaminophen is conjugated with glucuronic acid
2) acetaminophen more hydrophilic now so easily excreted through urine

B
in case of OD or liver damage paracetamol is metabolised to a toxic compound which can further damage the liver
1) CYP2E1 converts acetaminophen to the intermediate NAPQI
2) NAPQI is toxic and causes hepatocyte damage

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46
Q

what investigations would you do for drug-induced liver disease

A

LFTs
Viral testing
FBC
CRP
ESR
Drug screens
CT
Social and medical history are very important; any new changes in prescriptions or meds?

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47
Q

how do you manage paracetamol poisoning?

A

give N acetyl Cysteine

supportive treatment for other complications of the OD:
- coagulation factors
- fluids, electrolytes
- maintain acid-base balance
- check for hypoglycaemia
- check for encephalopathy

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48
Q

what complication would you be worried about in someone with drug-induced liver damage?

A

renal failure

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49
Q

what is the difference between chronic liver disease and cirrhosis?

A

Chronic liver disease is progressive liver dysfunction that if treated could still be reversed

cirrhosis is the end result of chronic liver disease which couldn’t be saved –> irreversible remodelling of the liver; irreversible liver damage

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50
Q

what is Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency

A

genetic disorder where you don’t produce antitrypsin so you have too much trypsin which just diugests proteins
results in liver and lung damage

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51
Q

what is Wilson’s disease

A

Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the abnormal accumulation of copper in various tissues, particularly the liver, brain, and cornea of the eyes.

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52
Q

what is hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the excessive absorption and accumulation of iron in the body.
Uncontrolled intestinal iron absorption with deposition in liver, heart and pancreas

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53
Q

how do you treat hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

weekly therapeutic phlebotomy –> kind of like dialysis for blood

a certain amount of blood is withdrawn at regular intervals (usually weekly initially) to reduce iron levels.

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54
Q

what is steatosis

A

excess fat deposition

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55
Q

explain the pathogenesis of ascites

A

decreased oncotic pressure cuz of no more albumin synthesis
portal vein hypertension
reduced blood flow to kidneys –> triggers RAAS and leads to water retention
inflammation from cirrhosis increases blood vessel permeability

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56
Q

what are the complications of cirrhosis?

A

Coagulopathy - reducing clotting factor synthesis: evidence of bruising and deranged coagulation tests.
Jaundice - impaired breakdown of bilirubin: yellow appearance of the skin and sclera
Encephalopathy - poor detoxification of harmful substances: confusion
Ascites - poor albumin synthesis and increased portal pressure due to scarring: accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity
Gastrointestinal bleeding - increase portal pressure causing varices

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57
Q

what is caput medusae

A

Distended and engorged superficial epigastric veins around the umbilicus

sign of chronic liver disease and portal hypertension

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58
Q

what is Palmar Erythema

A

Red discolouration of palms especially over the hypothenar eminence
High oestrogen causes vasodilation

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59
Q

what is Dupuytren’s Contracture

A

Thickening of the palmar fascia; painless fixed flexion of fingers at the MCP joints (especially ring finger)

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60
Q

what is Leuconychia

A

Appearance of white lines/dots in nails - sign of hypoalbuminaemia

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61
Q

what is Gynaecomastia

A

Development of breast tissue in males - reduced hepatic clearance of androgens leads to peripheral conversion to oestrogen

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62
Q

what is Spider Naevi

A

Dilated capillary with central red papule and fine red lines extending radially - due to excess oestrogen - usually found in the distribution of the superior vena cava

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63
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for chronic liver disease?

A

liver biopsy

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64
Q

how do you treat ascites?

A

diuretics - spironolactone ± furosemide
restrict water and sodium
paracentesis + albumin
Trans-jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

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65
Q

how do you treat bleeding

A

give vit k and fresh frozen plasma

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66
Q

how do you treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose (decreases ammonia), antibiotics, and enemas (stops flora making NH3)

Lactulose is an osmotic laxative which helps reduce ammonia

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67
Q

what is the pathophysiology of alcoholic liver disease

A

1) Fatty Liver: Accumulation of fat in liver cells (steatosis).
2) Alcoholic Hepatitis: Inflammation of the liver tissue.
3) Alcoholic Cirrhosis: Advanced scarring of the liver tissue; irreversible stage.

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68
Q

what are the risk factors for non-alcoholic fatty liver

A

obesity, hypertension, diabetes, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperlipidaemia. Drugs (NSAIDs, amiodarone)

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69
Q

what is pruritus

A

itching

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70
Q

Hep A
transmission
prevention
name of virus
type of virus (dna/rna)
symptoms

A

faeco-oral
pre- and post-exposure immunisation –> Inactivated hepatitis A virus
Picorna virus
RNA
cholestasis (slowing of bile flow through the biliary system)
pruritus
significant jaundice
dark urine and pale stools.

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71
Q

Hep B
transmission
prevention
name of virus
type of virus (dna/rna)
symptoms

A

blood/sex
pre- and post-exposure immunisation + sexual education and behavioral change (condoms)
Hepadnavirus
DNA
Abdominal pain
Fatigue
Flu-like illness
Pruritus (itching)
Muscle and joint aches
Nausea and vomiting
Jaundice
RUQ pain
Malaise
Myalgia

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72
Q

Hep C
transmission
prevention
name of virus
type of virus (dna/rna)

A

blood/sex
blood donor screening + condoms
Flavivirus
RNA

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73
Q

Hep D
transmission
prevention
type of virus (dna/rna)
treatment

A

blood/sex
HBV (Hep B virus) immunisation + Condoms

(Hep D requires Hep B for its replication → you can get Hep B vaccine to prevent Hep D)

RNA

Pegylated interferon alpha

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74
Q

Hep E
transmission
type of virus (dna/rna)

A

faeco-oral
clean drinking water
RNA

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75
Q

Hep B management

A

1) Screen for other viral infections (e.g., HIV, hepatitis A, C and D)

2) Referral to gastroenterology, hepatology or infectious diseases

3) Avoid alcohol

4) Education about reducing transmission

5) informing potential at-risk contacts

6) Testing for complications (e.g., for cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma)

7) Antiviral medication can be used to slow the progression of the disease and reduce infectivity

8) Liver transplantation for liver failure (fulminant hepatitis)

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76
Q

why do people with chronic liver diseases have raised levels of estrogen in their body

A

Estrogen is normally broken down in the liver, and its metabolites are excreted in bile. In liver diseases, this process is compromised, leading to elevated circulating levels of estrogen.

reduced hepatic clearance of androgens leads to peripheral conversion to oestrogen

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77
Q

what symptoms of chronic liver disease are due to raised estrogen in the blood

A

palmar erythema
gynaecomastia
spider naevi

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78
Q

what can cause C diff diarrhoea and why

A

antibiotic use –> disrupts the normal balance of the gut microbiota –> opportunity for C. difficile to proliferate and flourish.

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79
Q

what does watery diarrhoea tell you about where the patient has pathology

A

proximal small bowel problem

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80
Q

what kind of bacteria and viruses cause watery diarrhoea

A

BACTERIA
vibrio cholerae
E.coli
bacillus cereus (rice)
Clostridium perfringens (meats)
Staph aureus

VIRUSES
rotavirus and norovirus

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81
Q

what foods are clostridium perfringens found in

A

cooked meats

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82
Q

what does bloody and mucoid diarrhoea tell you about the cause of diarrhoea and the location of the pathology

A

inflammatory cause - inflammatory bowel disease
problem in colon
possible colon cancer
bacterial infection

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83
Q

what bacteria cause bloody and mucid diarrhoea

A

shigella
e coli
salmonella
clostridium difficile
campylobacter jejuni

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84
Q

what would you suspect if a patient presented with floating stools

A

high fat content in stools
malabsorption disease like coeliac or irritable bowel syndrome

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85
Q

what is the most common cause of diarrhoea in the UK

A

rotavirus/norovirus

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86
Q

what is traveller’s diarrhoea

A

Occurs within 2 weeks of arrival in new country
3 or more unformed stools per day plus one of the following:
Abdominal pain
Cramps
Nausea
Vomiting
Dysentery

Caused by organisms such as enterotoxigenic e.coli, campylobacter, shigella, non-typhoidal salmonella, viral, protozoal, cholera

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86
Q

what is melaena

A

dark black, tarry feces that are associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding

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87
Q

what are the 3 big signs that someone has internal GI bleeding

A

haematemesis - vomiting blood
melaena - dark tarry stool
coffee ground vomiting - With coffee ground emesis, the blood is not fresh or bright red. By the time your vomiting reflex was triggered, the blood had been in your GI tract long enough to begin to dry, congeal, and turn to a darker color.

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88
Q

what are the 2 medications that you can use for a variceal bleed and why

A

Antibiotics
- most patients die of sepsis because if they have a cirrhosed liver they are already immunocompromised and GI bacteria can translate to blood and to liver more easily

Terlipressin
- Terlipressin is a synthetic analog of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) that is used for its vasoconstrictive effects. When patient has esophageal bleeding you give terlipressin for vasoconstriction and because it will help the kidneys retain more water (avoid hypovolemia from bleed)

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88
Q

what score do you use to decide if you admit someone whom you suspect of a GI bleed?

A

Glasgow-Blatchford score

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88
Q

with what medications do you treat a non-variceal bleed

A

Consider proton pump inhibitors.

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89
Q

name 2 conditions which could cause upper GI bleeding

A

esophageal varices
peptic ulcers

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89
Q

what is an intramural obstruction?

A

the obstruction of the wall of the bowel –> obstruction is not in lumen, it is in the wall

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89
Q

what is diaphragm disease?

A

obstruction of the intestinal lumen due to fibrous scarring from NSAIDS

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90
Q

what are the causes of intramural obstructions?

A

Chron’s disease
diverticulitis
tumours
neural

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91
Q

where do you get diverticulitis

A

sigmoid colon

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92
Q

what could cause extraluminal obstructions

A

adhesions
volvulus
tumours; peritoneal deposits

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93
Q

explain the Glasglow-Blatchford score

A

The Glasgow-Blatchford score is used at the initial presentation in suspected upper GI bleed. It estimates the risk of the patient having an upper GI bleed. A score above 0 indicates a high risk for an upper GI bleed. The NICE guidelines (updated 2016) suggest considering early discharge in patients with a score of 0.

The easiest way to calculate the score is using an online calculator. It takes into account:

Haemoglobin (falls in upper GI bleeding)
Urea (rises in upper GI bleeding)
Systolic blood pressure
Heart rate
Presence of melaena (black, tarry stools)
Syncope (loss of consciousness)
Liver disease
Heart failure

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94
Q

if a patient presents with diarrhoea what red flags would you look out for

A

Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance
Renal failure
Immune compromise
Severe abdominal pain
Cancer risk factors
Over 50
Chronic diarrhoea
Weight loss
Blood in stool

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95
Q

how do you manage diarrhoea

A

fluids
electrolyte monitoring and replacement
antiemetics
antimotility agents - not in inflammatory diarrhoea
DO NOT give broad spectrum antibiotics

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96
Q

what is chron’s disease

A

A chronic inflammatory disorder affecting any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus characterised by patchy, transmural inflammation of intestinal mucosa
(transmural = layers that make up the wall of the intestine)

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97
Q

what are the features of the bowel in chron’s disease

A

C cobblestone appearance
R rosethorn ulcers
O obstruction
H Hyperplasia of lymph nodes
N narrowing of lumen
S skip lesions

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98
Q

what are possible causes of chron’s disease

A

genetic
smoking
western diets
antibiotics
contraceptives

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99
Q

where is chron’s most common location

A

distal ileum

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100
Q

symptoms of chron’s

A

Diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Weight loss
Fever
Fatigue
Intestinal complication - due to wall thickening, lumen narrowing and ulceration

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101
Q

signs of chron’s

A

Pyrexia
Dehydration
Angular stomatitis → inflammation of one or both corners of the mouth
Aphthous ulcers → shallow and painful sores in the mouth
Pallor → pale colour of skin; due to anaemia
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Abdominal pain, mass and distension

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102
Q

name 2 inflammatory bowel diseases

A

chron’s
ulcerative colitis

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103
Q

what are some complications of chron’s disease

A

Arthritis → inflammation in crohn’s can extend beyond the gut leading to joint inflammation
Erythema nodosum → painful red nodules under the skin - systemic inflammation
Pyoderma Gangrenosum → rare skin condition characterised by painful, ulcerating skin lesions
Episcleritis, Uveitis, Conjunctivitis – inflammation of the eyes’ episclera and uvea
Aphthous Ulcers
Fatty liver disease → Chronic inflammation associated with Crohn’s disease can contribute to insulin resistance → can lead to increased hepatic lipogenesis, promoting the accumulation of fat in liver cells.
Gallstones and kidney stones → chron’s affects formation of bile acid
Pulmonary disease → also due to systemic inflammation
Venous thrombosis → systemic inflammation triggers clotting cascade more readily
Osteoporosis
B12 deficiency
Anaemia

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104
Q

how do you diagnose chron’s disease

A

endoscopy + biopsy of inflammation

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105
Q

what investigations would you do in a patient presenting with chron’s like symptoms

A

FBC
TFT
LFT
U&E
CRP
Faecal Calprotectin - very specific to IBD
Endoscopy + biopsy –> GOLD STANDARD
Colonoscopy
Barium enema

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106
Q

what protein you can measure in blood which indicates IBD

A

Faecal Calprotectin

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107
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for IBD

A

ENDOSCOPY + BIOPSY

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108
Q

how do you treat chron’s disease

A

oral corticosteroids: budesonide and prednisolone

IV hydrocortisone in severe flareups

Anti-TNF antibodies if no improvement: infliximab

immunosuppressants if things get really bad: methotrexate or azathioprine

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109
Q

can surgery cure chron’s disease

A

no

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110
Q

name an anti-TNF antibodies

A

Infliximab

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111
Q

name an immunosuppressant

A

methotrexate

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112
Q

what is the first line of treatment of chron’s disease

A

oral corticosteroids: BUDESONIDE AND PREDNISOLONE

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113
Q

how do you monitor chron’s disease and why

A

colonoscopies because of increased risk of colorectal cancer

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114
Q

what is ulcerative colitis

A

mucosal inflammation affecting the rectum and progressing proximally and continuously through the colon

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115
Q

what is the most common form of IBD

A

ulcerative colitis

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116
Q

what ethnicity is more predisposed to ulcerative colitis

A

jewish

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117
Q

what is the effect of smoking on ulcerative colitis

A

decreases risk

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118
Q

what are risk factors for ulcerative colitis

A

being jewish
milk consumption
bacterial microflora alteration
NSAIDs

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119
Q

what is a possible cause of ulcerative colitis

A

Potential abnormal immunological response to normal intestinal microflora

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120
Q

what are proctitis, pancolitis and left-sided disease

A

these are different presentations of ulcerative colitis

proctitis in inflammation limited to the rectum

left-sided disease is when the inflammation extends from rectum to sigmoid colon (on the left side of the body)

pancolitis is when inflammation extends throughout the entire colon (from rectum to caecum)

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121
Q

presentation of ulcerative colitis (symptoms and signs)

A

Symptoms
Bloody diarrhoea and rectal bleeding
Acutely unwell - hypovolemic shock
Abdominal pain
Weight loss
Fatigue
Loose stools
Tenesmus (constantly feeling like you need to poop even if your bowel is already empty)

Signs
Febrile
Pale
Dehydrated
Abdominal tenderness
Abdominal distension/mass
Tachycardic, hypotensive

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122
Q

where do you tend to see erythema nodosum

A

on shins

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123
Q

what is spondyloarthropathy and with what GI condition would you see it

A

a group of inflammatory rheumatic diseases that primarily affect the joints of the spine (spondylo-) and may involve other joints as well

would expect to see it in severe cases of ulcerative colitis

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124
Q

what is a major complication of ulcerative colitis

A

toxic megacolon

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125
Q

why is a toxic megacolon very problematic

A

Thin colon wall can be perforated → release of bowel contents in abdominal cavity and sepsis
Compromised blood flow to surrounding structures and to colon wall
Can cause severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

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126
Q

with what scoring system can you assess the severity of UC and what points does it include

A

TRUELOVE AND WITTS
stool frequency
bleeding
pulse rate
temperature

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127
Q

what investigations would you carry out for UC

A

Routine bloods - FBC, TFT, LFT, U&E
CRP
Faecal Calprotectin
ENDOSCOPY + BIOPSY
Colonoscopy - asses colon and terminal ileum plus biopsy w/ PPV of 100%
Sigmoidoscopy - alternative test
Take care during acute flares as risk of perforation
Abdominal X-Ray - observe dilatation of bowel and perforations. Dilatation present if (rule of 3s)
Small bowel: diameter > 3cm
Large bowel: diameter > 6cm
Caecum: diameter > 9cm

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128
Q

what parts of the GI wall do ulcerative colitis and chron’s disease affect

A

UC - mucosa only
Chron’s - transmural (affects multiple layers - mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, serosa/adventitia (depending if you are intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal))

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129
Q

which one is intraperitoneal and which one is retroperitoneal: serosa and adventitia

A

serosa - intra
adventitia - retro

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130
Q

what is diverticulitis

A

Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop along the walls of the colon (large intestine). These pouches, known as diverticula, are formed when weak spots in the colon wall give way under pressure, causing the mucosa to protrude through the submucosa and if very severe through the muscularis propria.

if it fully goes through muscularis propria you get peritonitis

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131
Q

what is the difference between diverticulitis and diverticular disease

A

diverticulitis is infection of diveriticulum where diverticular disease is diverticulum with no infection yet

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132
Q

how do you treat diverticular disease

A

Increased fibre diet and bulk-forming laxatives eg ispaghula husk
*Avoid stimulant laxative like Senna

surgery if indicated

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133
Q

what segment of the bowel can commonly turn into volvulus

A

sigmoid colon

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134
Q

how does the epithelium change in GORD

A

from stratified squamous to columnar

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135
Q

what is the difference between NAFL (non-alcoholic fatty liver) and NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

NAFL is just a simple fatty liver whereas NASH involves more liver damage (INFLAMMATION, FAT, HEPATOCELLULAR INJURY, FIBROSIS)

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136
Q

how do you distinguish between NAFL (non-alcoholic fatty liver) and NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

biopsy

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137
Q

how do you treat non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

A

treat underlying cause and reduce risks (lose weight, exercise, smoking, control diabetes, LDL). Medication: pioglitazone, vitamin E, statins, ACEi.

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138
Q

what is terlipressin

A

a synthetic analog of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) that is used for its vasoconstrictive effects. When patient has esophageal bleeding you give terlipressin for vasoconstriction and because it will help the kidneys retain more water (avoid hypovolemia from bleed)

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139
Q

what is a problem with taking too many NSAIDs

A

NSAID induced gastric ulcer

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140
Q

with what type of patient history would you be concerned about a non-variceal upper GI bleed

A

NSAIDs, anticoagulation or antiplatelet use
peptic ulcers history

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141
Q

which is more common: small or large bowel obstruction

A

small

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142
Q

causes of small bowel obstruction

A

adhesions form previous abdominal, colorectal or pelvic surgeries
hernias
malignancies
chron’s disease

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143
Q

causes of large bowel obstruction

A

colorectal malignancy - most common
volvulus

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144
Q

how do chron’s and coeliac disease lead to bowel obstruction

A

formation of strictures –> narrowing of the intestine

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145
Q

explain the pathophysiology of mechanical bowel obstructions

A

mechanical means due to hernias, adhesions, and malignancies

Obstruction of the bowel 🡪 bowel distension above the block and results in increased fluid secretion into the distended bowel + swallowed air in small bowel
More dilatation 🡪 decreased absorption and mucosal wall oedema
Increased pressure with intramural vessels becoming compressed in distal intestine
Untreated obstruction leads to
Ischaemia
Necrosis
Perforation

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146
Q

symptoms and signs of small bowel obstruction

A

Pain – initially colicky (starts and stops then diffuse)
Pain is higher in abdomen than in LBO
Vomiting following pain – occurs earlier in SBO compared to LBO
Nausea
Anorexia
Obstipation - constipation with no passage of wind
Increased bowel sounds
Tympanic percussion –> where obstruction is the sound of percussion will be more resonant cuz of trapped air
Tenderness – suggests strangulation
Less distension as compared to LBO (since more distal the obstruction, the greater the distension)

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147
Q

symptoms and signs of large bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal pain – more constant than in SBO
Vomiting – more faecal like
Acute presentation – on average 5 days of symptoms
Abdominal distension
Palpable mass – hernia, distended bowel loop or caecum
Constipation
Fullness/bloating

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148
Q

why do large bowel obstruction symptoms appear later and more acute than small bowel obstructions

A

Large bowel has a larger lumen 🡪 the ability of large bowel to distend is much greater 🡪 symptoms present slower and later than in SBO

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149
Q

what investigations do you do for a small bowel obstruction

A

AXR
CT (abdominal)
FBC

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150
Q

what investigations do you do for a large bowel obstruction

A

AXR
DRE - Digital rectal exam
FBC
CT/MRI

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151
Q

how do you treat bowel obstructions

A

Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Bowel decompression
Analgesia and anti-emetic
Antibiotics
Surgery

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152
Q

what do you call constipation without farts

A

obstipation

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153
Q

what is the difference between primary sclerosing cholangitis and primary biliary cholangitis

A

PSC affects bile ducts inside and outside the liver
PBC affects bile ducts inside of the liver

PSC also is very common in IFD, whereas PBC is not

to diagnose PSC you need Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)

to diagnose PBC you can use blood tests which show elevated ALP

PSC can’t be treated
PBC can be treated

PSC increases your risk of colon cancer

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154
Q

what is a closed loop obstruction

A

two points of obstruction along the bowel - leading to a middle section sandwiched between two points of obstruction

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155
Q

what is coeliac disease

A

Autoimmune T cell mediated inflammation of the mucosa of the small bowel, and malabsorption, following exposure to gluten

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156
Q

what are risk factors for coeliac disease

A

other autoimmune conditions
IgA deficiency
familial link

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157
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is coeliac disease

A

type 4

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158
Q

explain the pathophysiology of coeliac disease

A

Gluten breaks down to gliadin which triggers the immune system to produce IgA autoantibodies such as anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG), and anti-endomysial (anti-EMA) which target the epithelial cells of the small bowel causing villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytes.

villous atrophy leads to malabsorption

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159
Q

where is iron absorbed in the GI

A

duodenum and jejunum

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160
Q

what are the symptoms of someone with coeliac disease

A

anaemia –> malabsorption of Fe, B12, Folate
steatorrhea and diarrhoea
dermatitis herpetiformis
abdominal pain
fatigue and weakness

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161
Q

what are signs of coeliac disease

A

Angular stomatitis, mouth ulcers, weight loss, failure to thrive (in children), osteopenia (Ca2+ and Vit D malabsorption), bloating

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162
Q

what is the 1st line investigation for coeliac disease

A

Raised anti-tissue transglutaminase tTG antibodies
raised anti-endomysial EMA antibodies
Total IgA antibodies raised –> possible false negative for coeliac in IgA deficient patients as IgA will come back low)

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163
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease

A

Endoscopy and duodenal biopsy (villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytes)

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164
Q

what are the 3 structural changes to the bowel in coeliac disease

A

villous atrophy
crypt hyperplasia
intraepithelial lymphocytes

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165
Q

if a patient is diagnosed with coeliac what further tests would you do to monitor the condition. what other things would you be interested in

A

FBC –> Hb, iron, B12, folate
DEXA bine scan
genetic testing

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166
Q

DDx for coeliac disease

A

IBD, IBS, lactose intolerance. Tropical sprue (chronic inflammation of bowel associated with travel. Jejunal biopsy = incomplete villous atrophy vs coeliac with complete atrophy)

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167
Q

management of coeliac disease

A

gluten free diet
replace vitamin deficiencies

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168
Q

complications of coeliac disease

A

Osteopenia, anaemia, malignancy (T cell lymphoma, NHL), vitamin deficiency

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169
Q

define gastritis

A

Inflammation of the stomach mucosal lining

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170
Q

causes of gastritis

A

autoimmune
alcohol
H. Pylori
bacterial reflux
NSAIDs
stress

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171
Q

how does alcohol lead to gastritis

A

Alcohol increases gastric acid and irritates stomach.

172
Q

how do NSAIDS lead to gastritis

A

NSAIDs inhibit COX which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis which decreases mucus protective barrier production.

173
Q

explain the physiology of autoimmune gastritis

A

Autoimmune gastritis attacks parietal cells and forms intrinsic factor antibodies which reduces B12 absorption.

174
Q

symptoms of gastritis

A

Epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, dyspepsia (indigestion), anorexia/loss of appetite

175
Q

what is dyspepsia

A

indigestion

176
Q

what are the 1st line and the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease

A

1st line –> helicobacter pylori urea breath test + H. Pylori stool antigen test

gold standard –> endoscopy and biopsy

177
Q

how do you manage gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori

A

triple therapy: PPI + 2 antibiotics for 7 days

PPI: omeprazole
antibiotics: amoxicillin 1g, clarithromycin 500mg. if penicillin allergy, swap amoxicillin for 400mg metronidazole

178
Q

how do you treat gastritis caused by NSAIDs or alcohol

A

you stop consuming NSAID or alcohol
PPI

179
Q

how do you treat autoimmune gastritis

A

PPI
IM vit B12

180
Q

what are complications of gastritis

A

Peptic ulcers
Achlorhydria → low HCl in stomach
bleeding and anaemia
MALT lymphoma → Non-Hodgkin Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue Lymphoma
gastric cancer

181
Q

define peptic ulcers

A

A break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum forming ulcers. 2 types: duodenal (most common) and gastric

182
Q

where is peptic ulcers most common in the GI

A

duodenum

183
Q

what are causes of peptic ulcers

A

H. Pylori, NSAIDS
Zollinger Ellison syndrome → a condition in which a gastrin-secreting tumour or hyperplasia of the islet cells in the pancreas causes overproduction of gastric acid

184
Q

what is the physiology of peptic ulcers

A

NSAIDS and H. Pylori break down the gastric mucus barrier
gastric acid then forms an ulceration in the lining

185
Q

what drinks increase stomach acid

A

alcohol and caffein

186
Q

in what area of the stomach is gastric ulcers more common

A

lesser curvature of antrum

187
Q

what are the symptoms of peptic ulcers

A

epigastric pain
dyspepsia
nausea
vomiting
haematemesis (if artery is perforated)
melanea
weight loss

188
Q

1st line investigation for peptic ulcers

A

H. Pylori urea breath test or stool antigen test, FBC (anaemia or high platelet count)

189
Q

gold standard investigations for peptic ulcers

A

Endoscopy and biopsy (if red flags) – presence of ulcer

190
Q

DDx of peptic ulcers

A

Oesophageal cancer, gastric cancer, GORD, biliary colic

191
Q

treatment for peptic ulcers

A

stop NSAIDS/alcohol
triple therapy for H pylori
omeprazole (PPI) + 2 antibiotics (amoxicillin/metronidazole + clarithromycin)

192
Q

complications of peptic ulcers

A

Bleeding, perforation, gastric outflow obstruction, malignancy

193
Q

what is dysphagia

A

swallowing difficulties

194
Q

what is Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

syndrome which causes oesophageal webs, dysphagia, glossitis, iron deficiency anaemia

usually associated with precancerous oesophagus

195
Q

what are the types of oesophageal cancer and what portion of the GI do they affect

A

squamous cell carcinoma –> upper 2/3 of oesophagus
adenocarcinoma –> lower 1/3 of oesophagus

196
Q

what are causes of squamous cell carcinoma oesophageal cancer

A

smoking
alcohol
achalasia
hot foods and beverages
plummer-vinson syndrome
black and asian minority ethnicity

197
Q

what are causes of adenocarcinomas

A

barret s oesophagus
GORD
obesity
smoking
hernias
older age
male
caucasian

198
Q

what are the symptoms of oesophageal cancer

A

progressive dysphagia –> KEY PRESENTATION
vomiting
weight loss
anorexia
lymphadenopathy

199
Q

what are the signs of oesophageal cancer

A

hoarse voice
odynophagia
cough
melaena
heartburn

200
Q

A patient presents with red flags indicating possible oesophageal, gastric or bowel cancer. What are the red flags and how would you proceed?

A

red flags are anaemia, loss of weight, anorexia, melanea, haematemesis, dysphagia and recent progressive symptoms.

urgent 2 week endoscopy referral

201
Q

what is the 1st line and gold standard investigation for oesophageal cancer

A

Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy and biopsy (w/ barium swallow)

CT/MRI of chest/abdomen (metastases and staging)

202
Q

what is achalasia

A

muscles of oesophageal tube which are right above the stomach are unable to relax; makes swallowing both liquids and solids difficult

203
Q

DDx for oesophageal cancer

A

Achalasia (not progressive dysphagia – difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids), oesophageal strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus

204
Q

what is the difference between achalasia and oesophageal strictures

A

In achalasia, dysphagia usually occurs with both solid and liquid food, whereas in esophageal strictures, dysphagia typically occurs only with solid food and not liquids, until very late in the progression of the stricture.

achalasia is a problem with the functioning of the oesophagus

strictures are a problem with the structure of the oesophagus

205
Q

how do you treat oesophageal cancer

A

surgical resection with adjuvant radiotherapy/chemotherapy.
Palliative care

206
Q

what is the most common benign oesophageal tumour

A

Leiomyomas = smooth muscle tumours in oesophageal wall
They are slow growing and usually asymptomatic. Generally found by mistake in barium swallow

207
Q

what is the most common type of bowel cancer

A

colorectal cancer

208
Q

what are the causes of colorectal cancer

A

IBD
sporadic mutations
Hereditary:
- Familial adenomatous polyposis
- Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

209
Q

what is Familial adenomatous polyposis

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Mutation in APC tumour suppressor gene causing high polyp formation → potential of cancer before age 40

210
Q

what is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer. Mutation in DNA mismatch repair genes (genese which should identify mistakes in DNA and fix them)

211
Q

what are risk factors of colorectal cancer

A

Family history
IBD - especially UC
Age
Diet - high in red/processed meat, low in fibre
Obesity and sedentary lifestyle
Smoking
Alcohol
Low fibre diet (butyrate)
Genetics
Diabetes mellitus

211
Q

what type of cancer are most colorectal cancers (histology point of view)

A

adenocarcinomas

212
Q

what are the most common sites of metastasis of colorectal cancer

A

liver and lungs

213
Q

right sided vs left sided carcinoma in colorectal cancer

A

RIGHT:
- from appendix and caecum to the first 2/3 of the transverse colon
- usually asymptomatic until patient presents with iron deficiency anaemia from bleeding
- weight loss
- abdominal pain

LEFT:
- from last 1/3 of colon to anus
- blood and mucus in stools
- diarrhoea alternating with constipation
- tenesmus –> specific for rectal carcinoma
- thinner stools –> spoecific for rectal carcinoma

214
Q

what are the indicators of metastases in colorectal cancer

A

hepatomegaly
jaundice
lymphadenopathy

215
Q

what is the criteria for referring someone with suspected rectal cancer

A

over 40yr + abdominal pain + unexplained weight loss

over 50yr + unexplained rectal bleeding

over 60yr + change in bowel habit/iron deficiency anaemia

216
Q

what is the first line investigation for bowel cancer

A

Faecal Immunohistochemical Tests (FIT)
digital rectal exam
double contrast barium enema

217
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for bowel cancer

A

colonoscopy and biopsy

218
Q

DDx of colorectal cancer

A

IBS, IBD, haemorrhoids, anal fissure, anal prolaose, diverticulitis

219
Q

what is the 1st line treatment for colorectal cancer

A

surgical resection depending on affected area, chemotherapy (fluorouracil), radiotherapy

220
Q

what does bowel cancer screening consist of and how often is it done

A

offer screening every 2 years between the ages of 60 and 74. We are gradually extending this age range, and people aged 56 are now being invited as part of this proces

home testing kit –> faecal immunohistochemical test (FIT)

221
Q

how do you stage any type of cancer

A

CT chest abdomen and pelvis –> look at metastasis and spread for staging

222
Q

how do you stage colon cancer

A

Duke stage

223
Q

explain duke staging

A

used for colon cancer
A – cancer only in mucosa
95% 5 year survival
B - cancer has gone through muscularis
75% 5 year survival
C - spread to regional lymoh nodes
35% 5 year survival
D - distal lymph node involvement and metastasis
25% 5 year survival

224
Q

what are the different types of gastric cancer

A

type 1 –> intestinal metaplasia/differentiated
type 2 –> diffuse/undifferentiated; signet ring cells

225
Q

in what ethnicities is gastric cancer most prevalent

A

east asian and eastern europe

226
Q

what are causes of gastric cancer

A

H. Pylori, smoking, pernicious anaemia (chronic gastritis), mutations

226
Q

which type of gastritis is the most common

A

type 1

227
Q

type 1 vs type 2 gastritis

A

type 1: intestinal; gland forming cells; differentiated

type 2: diffuse; poorly differentiated cells, signet ring cells, linitis plastica (leather bottle appearance with thickened gastric wall)

228
Q

what is the appearance of type 2 gastritis ( i want the medical term)

A

linitis plastica (leather bottle appearance with thickened gastric wall)

229
Q

risk factors for gastric cancer

A

Intestinal: male, older age, H. Pylori, chronic/atrophic gastritis
Diffuse: female, younger age (<50), blood type A, genetic, H. Pylori

230
Q

what are the key presentations and symptoms of gastric cancer

A

Virchow’s node
sister mary joseph node
Severe epigastric pain
dysphagia
Metastatic signs –>
jaundice → indicates liver mets
Krukenberg tumour → ovaries
Weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, epigastric pain, tired all the time

231
Q

what are the signs of gastric cancer

A

Dysphagia, melaena/haematemesis, anaemia

232
Q

investigations for gastritis

A

Gastroscopy with biopsy →2-week endoscopy referral if dysphagia or age>55 with upper abdo pain, reflux or dyspepsia
Endoscopy ultrasound → shows depth of tumour invasion and nodal involvement
CT/MRI of the chest and abdomen (Tumour Node staging and metastases)
FBC (normal or anaemia)

233
Q

DDx of gastic cancer

A

Peptic ulcer disease, achalasia, oesophageal stricture

234
Q

what is the 1st line management for gastric cancer

A

surgical resection (total or sub-total gastrectomy) + adjuvant radiotherapy/chemotherapy (fluorouracil/cisplatin)

235
Q

which type of gastric cancer has worse prognosis

A

type 2

236
Q

explain the TNM staging

A

colorectal cancer staging

Looks at:
T → tumour size and extent
T1: Tumor in submucosa.
T2: Tumor in muscularis propria (muscle layer).
T3: Tumor in the serosa (outermost layer).
T4: Tumor in adjacent structures

N → involvement of nearby lymph nodes
N0: No regional lymph node involvement.
N1: Involvement of 1-3 regional lymph nodes.
N2: Involvement of 4 or more regional lymph nodes

M→ presence or absence of distant metastasis
M0: No distant metastasis.
M1: Distant metastasis present

Prognosis after surgery
R0 (Complete Resection): the entire tumor was successfully removed
R1 (Microscopic Involvement): there is microscopic tumour left on the surgical margin
R2 (Macroscopic Involvement): there is macroscopic (visible) tumour left on the surgical margin

237
Q

define chronic pancreatitis

A

Persistent chronic inflammation of the pancreas resulting in irreversible fibrosis and reduced function of the pancreas

238
Q

causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol consumption
Progression from acute pancreatitis
Trauma
Chronic kidney disease
Cystic fibrosis
Pancreatic cancer
Hypertriglyceridemia

239
Q

risk factors of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol, smoking, coeliac disease

240
Q

pathophysiology of chronic pancreatitis

A

Repeated bouts of acute pancreatitis can progress to chronic pancreatitis. With each bout of acute pancreatitis, there is ductal dilatation and damage to pancreatic tissue. Fibrotic tissue forms causing narrowing of ducts leading to stenosis.

241
Q

what are the key presentations of chronic pancreatitis

A

Severe pain in epigastric region which can radiate to back
Jaundice
loss of exocrine function (no pancreatic enzymes secreted in GI tract, especially lipase) → steatorrhea
loss of endocrine function (lack of insulin causing diabetes)
signs of malabsorption

242
Q

what vitamins are you most likely to be deficient of in chronic pancreatitis

A

Fat soluble vitamin deficiency → ADEK

243
Q

what are the 1st line investigations for chronic pancreatitis

A

Faecal-elastase 1 → enzyme involved in fat digestion (low)
faecal fat (high)
pancreatic function tests (decreased function) → A combination of tests including amylase, lipase, glucose, and other markers to assess overall pancreatic function.
Secretin-Stimulated Pancreatic Function Test: Measures pancreatic secretion in response to the hormone secretin, helping evaluate overall pancreatic function.
ERCP for visualisation of ducts

244
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for chronic pancreatitis

A

X-ray/CT/MRI scan shows calcification of pancreas and dilated ducts

245
Q

causes of acute pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED:
Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion sting
Hyperlipidaemia
ERCP
Drugs (diuretics)

245
Q

management of chronic pancreatitis

A

1st line – control pain (analgesia, NSAIDs) and risk factors (less alcohol, less smoking, obesity)
Replace pancreatic enzymes in deficiency (lipase), vitamin supplements. Insulin for diabetes. ECRP with stenting. Surgery to drain bile ducts

246
Q

what are the 3 most common causes of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones, alcohol, post-ERCP

247
Q

explain the physiology of autoimmune pancreatitis

A

pancreas releases exocrine enzymes which auto digest the pancreas.

248
Q

key presentations of acute pancreatitis

A

Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back
Vomiting
abdominal tenderness
Hypocalcaemia → The activated lipase, in particular, breaks down triglycerides (fats) into free fatty acids. These free fatty acids, in turn, bind to calcium ions in the bloodstream to form calcium soaps → less available free calcium in the blood

249
Q

do you get abdominal tenderness in chronic pancreatitis

A

no

250
Q

what are the signs of acute pancreatitis

A

jaundice
tachycardia
Chvostek sign
grey turner (flank bruising)
Cullen sign (periumbilical bruising)
signs of hypovolemia
pleural effusion

251
Q

cullen’s sign vs grey turner

A

cullen –> periumbilical bruising
grey turner –> flank bruising

252
Q

symptoms of acute pancreatitis

A

Dyspnoea, fever, nausea and vomiting, epigastric pain radiating to back

253
Q

1st line investigations for acute pancreatitis

A

Serum amylase raised (3 times the upper limit level)
FBC: leucocytosis (increase WBC count) with left shift (increase in immature WBCs)
raised haematocrit → dehydration from vomiting (decreased plasma so more blood cells to plasma ratio)
raised CRP
Raised urea → kidney dysfunction, a potential complication of severe acute pancreatitis.
low calcium
Imaging: chest x-ray, abdominal USS (gallstones), CT scan (inflammation, necrosis, effusions)

254
Q

how do you establish diagnosis of acute pancreatitis

A

Diagnosis needs 2 of 3: acute abdominal pain, elevated pancreatic enzymes (amylase/lipase), abnormal imaging

255
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for acute pancreatitis

A

Serum lipase raised (3 times the upper limit level)

256
Q

how do you score the severity of pancreatitis. detail

A

Glasgow score (severity of pancreatitis):

PANCREAS mnemonic

PaO2 low
Age >55
Neutrophils raised
Calcium low
uRea raised
Enzymes raised
Albumin low
Sugar raised

257
Q

DDx for acute pancreatitis

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm, peptic ulcer disease, cholangitis, oesophageal spasm

258
Q

treatment for acute pancreatitis

A

1st line –> IV fluids, analgesia, nil by mouth, oxygen, antibiotics, electrolyte replacement.

ERCP for gallstones, treat complications

259
Q

complications of acute pancreatitis

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome – leading cause of death
Sepsis
Pancreatic pseudocyst
Hypovolaemic shock from ruptured vessels
DIC → coagulation factors released as inflammatory response → thrombosis
Renal failure

260
Q

what is IBS

A

Functional bowel disorder characterised by recurrent bouts of abdomen pain and abnormal bowel motility. No organic cause

261
Q

epidemiology of IBS

A

More females, younger people

262
Q

what is the cause of IBS

A

there is no cause

263
Q

what are the risk factors for IBS

A

GI infections, previous severe and long-term diarrhoea, psychological (anxiety, depression, stress, trauma, abuse), eating disorders

264
Q

what are the 3 types of IBS

A

IBS-C (constipation), IBS-D (diarrhoea), IBS-M (mixed, both D + C)

265
Q

what are the key presentations of IBS

A

Abdominal pain, abnormal bowel motility, bloating, pain relieved by defaecation, altered stool form (diarrhoea, constipation), worse after eating, urgency, passage of mucus with stool

266
Q

how do you diagnose IBS

A

BY EXCLUSION

Clinical diagnosis requires:

a)abdominal pain + 2 of:
- relieved by defaecation
- altered stool form
- altered bowel frequency.

b) exclusion of:
- infection (normal FBC, ESR/CRP)
- IFD (Negative faecal calprotectin)
- coeliac disease (no anti-TTG or anti-EMA)
- Exclude cancer

267
Q

treatment of IBS

A

1) Conservative: education, diet modification (small regular meals, increase fluids, avoid caffeine, low FODMAP diet, increase/decrease fibre for constipation/diarrhoea.

FODMAP diet → a dietary approach designed to manage symptoms of IBS

2) Laxatives for constipation (senna, macrogol)
Loperamide for diarrhoea
Antispasmodics (buscopan, mebeverine) for pain and bloating

3) Severe IBS: tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline). Or SSRIs if they don’t work. Consider CBT

FODMAPs = Fermentable Oligosaccharides, Disaccharides, Monosaccharides, and Polyols → these are carbohydrates that can ferment in the gut and cause symptoms such as bloating, gas, abdominal pain, and altered bowel habits in some individuals.
The low FODMAP diet involves restricting high-FODMAP foods for a specified period, followed by a structured reintroduction phase to identify specific triggers. Once trigger foods are identified, the diet can be personalized to include well-tolerated FODMAPs and avoid problematic ones.

268
Q

what is charcot’s triad

A

key signs of acute cholangitis
RUQ pain
Jaundice
Fever

269
Q

what is Reynold’s pentad

A

key signs of very severe sepsis from acute cholangitis

RUQ pain
Jaundice
Fever
Confusion
hypotension

270
Q

what type of carcinoma are most pancreatic cancers

A

Majority are adenocarcinoma of exocrine pancreas of ductal origin.

271
Q

where are the majority of the pancreatic adenocarcinomas located in the pancreas

A

head of the pancreas or neck

272
Q

what are risk factors to pancreatic cancer

A

Smoking, alcohol, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, family history

273
Q

key presentations of pancreatic cancer

A

Courvoisier sign = painless palpable gallbladder and jaundice → suggests that the jaundice is not due to gallstone but to obstruction
pale stool and dark urine → high bilirubin that can’t be eliminated in poo
Pruritis = itching to the elevated bilirubin in the blood
Weight loss.
Trousseau sign of malignancy = blood clots felt as small lumps under skin → indicates a hypercoagulable state which is often seen in malignancies

274
Q

what is trousseau’s sign of malignancy

A

blood clots felt as small lumps under skin → indicates a hypercoagulable state which is often seen in malignancies

274
Q

what is courvoiser’s sign

A

sign of pancreatic cancer
painless palpable gallbladder and jaundice → suggests that the jaundice is not due to gallstone but to obstruction

275
Q

what are the 1st line and gold standard investigations for pancreatic cancer

A

1st line: Abdominal ultrasound + Pancreatic CT protocol (pancreatic mass)

gold standard: biopsy

276
Q

what is the management of pancreatic cancer?

A

1st line – surgical resection (Whipple)
Palliative therapy

277
Q

what is GORD and what is the pathophysiology

A

Reflux of gastric contents into the stomach due to reduced pressure across the lower oesophageal sphincter causing inflammation of the oesophagus
Decreased pressure across lower oesophageal sphincter makes it easier for gastric contents and acid to pass up into the oesophagus

278
Q

causes of GORD

A

Obesity, pregnancy, hiatal hernia, smoking, NSAIDs, caffeine, alcohol

279
Q

key presentations of GORD

A

Heartburn
epigastric or retrosternal pain
acid regurgitation (worse when lying down, related to meals, relieved by antacids)
Dysphagia
dyspepsia (indigestion)
chronic cough, nocturnal asthma, laryngitis, dental erosion

280
Q

what are the red flags for GORD

A

dysphagia
age >55
weight loss
upper abdominal pain/reflux
treatment-resistant dyspepsia
nausea and vomiting
low haemoglobin
raised platelet count

281
Q

1st line treatment of GORD

A

go straight to PPI if no red flags

if there are red flags: ENDOSCOPY

282
Q

what is the gold standard treatment for GORD

A

24-hour pH ambulatory monitor (pH <4 more than 4% of the time = abnormal)

283
Q

what test can you do to assess the functioning of the oesophagal sphincter and the oesophagal muscles?

A

oesophageal manometry –> catheter passed into the oesophagus and detects oesophageal and sphincter contractions

284
Q

management of GORD

A
  1. Conservative – stop smoking, stop alcohol, lose weight, eat smaller meals, avoid eating 3-4 hours before sleep, change sleeping position (more upright)
  2. Medical – proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole, lansoprazole), H2 receptor antagonist (antihistamine which reduces stomach acid, e.g., ranitidine). Over-the-counter alginates (Gaviscon) for symptom relief
  3. Surgery – Nissen fundoplication (tying the fundus of the stomach around the LOS to narrow it)
285
Q

what can Barret’s oesophagus lead to

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

286
Q

what is a Mallory Weiss tear?

A

Tear of the oesophageal mucosal membrane due to sudden increases in intra-abdominal pressure

287
Q

what are risk factors to mallory weiss tear

A

Forceful vomiting (alcoholism, bulimia), chronic coughing, weightlifting, hiatal hernia, retching

288
Q

key presentations of mallory wiess tear

A

Haematemesis after retching Hx, melaena, hypovolemic shock (hypotension, dizziness), dysphagia. No Hx of liver disease or portal hypertension

289
Q

where is McBurney’s point?

A

2/3 of the distance between the umbilicus and the ASIS

290
Q

what are the causes of appendicitis and explain the pathophysiology

A

most commonly due to obstruction of the lumen of the appendix by FAECOLITH (calcified faecal deposits), or infection and inflammation of the lymphoid tissue (LYMPHOID HYPERPLASIA, IBD)

it can also be due to foreign bodies

PATHOPHYSIO: Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix leads to stasis > bacterial overgrowth > inflammation. Obstruction leads to increased pressure in the appendix which can cause rupture.

291
Q

what are the physical exams for appendicitis

A

Rovsing’s Sign: palpation (pressing down) on the left lower quadrant of the abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.

Psoas Sign: Pain in the right lower quadrant is elicited when the patient extends the right hip against resistance or when the right hip is passively extended → The psoas is right next to the appendix

Obturator Sign: Pain in the right lower quadrant is felt when the right hip is flexed and internally rotated. → the obturator is right next to the appendix

Guarding: Involuntary tensing or contraction of the abdominal muscles in response to palpation or movement.

Rebound Tenderness: Pain is experienced when pressure is released after palpating the abdomen → suggests peritoneal inflammation

292
Q

what is Rovsing’s sign

A

sign of appendicitis
palpation (pressing down) on the left lower quadrant of the abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.

293
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for appendicitis?

A

Abdominal CT with contrast

294
Q

how do you manage appendicitis?

A

antibiotics and laparoscopic appendectomy

295
Q

what is normal portal venous pressure

A

5-10mmHg

296
Q

what cells play a role in the fibrosis and scarring of the liver

A

hepatic stellate cells

297
Q

what are the 3 types of portal venous hypertension, give examples

A

Pre-hepatic: portal vein obstruction (thrombus)

Intrahepatic: cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, schistosomiasis

Post-hepatic: right heart failure, constrictive pericarditis, Budd Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein obstruction)

298
Q

what is schistosomiasis

A

freshwater parasite which affects liver, urinary bladder, intestines etc.

299
Q

what is sarcoidosis

A

multisystem inflammatory disorder characterised by the formation of granulomas

300
Q

how does portal hypertension lead to hepatic encephalopathy

A

Venous blood accumulates in the portal system, raising pressure above 5-10mmHg.
This leads to the formation of portosystemic shunts where blood is directed away from the portal system and into systemic veins → liver receives less blood → reduced liver function (increased toxic products in the blood like ammonia which can cross BBB and cause hepatic encephalopathy).

301
Q

name 2 portosystemic shunts in portal hypertension

A

oesophageal veins –> oesophageal varices
paraumbilical veins

302
Q

key presentations of portal hypertension

A

Ascites
caput medusae → paraumbilical veins close when you are born and turn into ligaments but in the presence of portal hypertension they may reopen to offer an alternative pathway to bypass the liver
GI bleeding from esophageal varices
Haemoptysis
melaena/hematochezia (passage of bright red blood through the rectum)
Jaundice
Pruritus
hepatic encephalopathy (asterixis, altered consciousness, lethargy, seizure, coma)
Gynecomastia
Palmar erythema
Spider naevi
Splenomegaly

303
Q

1st line and gold standard investigation for portal hypertension

A

1st line
Liver USS (nodules = cirrhosis), CT/MRI scan (ascites, cirrhosis, splenomegaly), endoscopy (oesophageal varices). Labs (FBC, LFT, serology may identify cause)

gold standard
Hepatic venous pressure gradient measurement (difference in pressure between IVC and portal vein)

304
Q

how can you treat ascites invasively

A

paracentesis

305
Q

management of portal hypertension

A

Treat underlying disease → lifestyle modifications
Beta blockers → to reduce portal pressure; they reduce HR so they reduce CO and the consequential pressure on the venous system
Management of esophageal varices: sclerotherapy or endoscopic variceal ligation
Diuretics
Management of hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose, enemas, antibiotics)
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

306
Q

complications of portal hypertension

A

Hepatic encephalopathy, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, Ascites, bleeding (oesophageal varices), caput medusae, diminished liver function, enlarged spleen

307
Q

what is the marker for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Alpha-fetoprotein → marker for liver cancer

308
Q

causes of ascites

A

Cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, peritonitis, malignancy, nephrotic syndrome

309
Q

pathophysiology of ascites

A

Excessive build-up of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. Poor liver function = low albumin = low blood oncotic pressure = fluid loss into the peritoneal cavity

310
Q

key presentations of ascites

A

Distended large abdomen, shifting dullness: percuss abdomen and observe dullness over fluid and resonance over air. Supine = central abdomen resonant as bowel floats, flanks dull as fluid collects. Lying on side = flank resonant as fluid moves to other side

311
Q

1st line investigations for ascites and gold standard

A

1st line
Shifting dullness on examination.
WBC count
Ascites tap: abdominal paracentesis → for protein measurement

gold standard
Abdominal ultrasound (fluid in peritoneal cavity)

312
Q

explain why you do an ascites tap in ascites and what information this gives you

A

Ascites tap: abdominal paracentesis → for protein measurement
If Protein <25g/dL:
Indicates a low protein concentration in the ascitic fluid.
Typically associated with transudative ascites.
Implies that there is not enough protein being synthesized by the liver.
Possible causes: cirrhosis and heart failure
If Protein >25g/dL:
Indicates a higher protein concentration in the ascitic fluid.
Typically associated with exudative ascites.
Suggests that proteins, including inflammatory markers, have leaked from blood vessels into the peritoneal cavity due to increased permeability.
Possible causes: nephrotic syndrome
Peritonitis
Malignancy
TB

313
Q

what is the difference between transudate and exudate

A

transudate is due to decreased oncotic pressure or increased hydrostatic pressure and results in plasma leaking in body cavities –> associated with portal hypertension, hypoalbuminea, heart failure

exudate is due to inflammation which causes leaky capillaries so you get fluid full of proteins and vessel contents in body cavities –> associated with infections, cancers, inflammation, autoimmune conditions

314
Q

management of ascites

A

Management of Ascites
Fluid and salt restriction
Diuretics: spironolactone ± furosemide (can be given together because spironolactone causes hyperkalemia and furosemide causes hypokalemia → they cancel each other out)
Large-volume paracentesis
Albumin
Trans-jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

315
Q

what is a major complication of ascites

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

316
Q

what is a major cause of acute liver failure in the UK and how do you treat it

A

paracetamol OD
N-acetylcysteine

317
Q

causes of chronic/acute liver disease, including metabolic and vascular causes

A

Acute liver disease is most common cause

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

Drugs: paracetamol, alcohol.

Viral infection: hepatitis, Epstein Barr virus.

Autoimmune hepatitis.

Neoplastic: hepatocellular or metastatic carcinoma.

Metabolic: Wilson’s disease, alpha 1 antitrypsin, haemochromatosis, NAFL.

Vascular:
Budd-Chiari syndrome → blockage of hepatic vein by a thrombus (hepatic vein thrombosis) which leads to liver congestion

Congestive hepatopathy → Liver damage resulting from congestive heart failure

318
Q

risk factors for acute liver injury

A

Chronic alcohol abuse, female, chronic hepatitis

319
Q

risk factors for chronic liver injury

A

Alcohol, obesity, T2DM, drugs, metabolic disease

320
Q

pathogenesis of ascites

A

decreased synthesis of albumin → lower oncotic pressure
Portal hypertension → triggers vasodilation of splanchnic circulation (intestinal circulation) to redistribute blood away from liver → more fluid in abdominal vessels coupled with decreased oncotic pressure from decreased albumin
Reduced blood flow to kidneys → activated RAAS → water retention
Generalised inflammation increases blood vessel permeability

321
Q

compensated vs decompensated liver disease

A

compensated, with some preserved liver function → asymptomatic
decompensated which causes end-stage liver failure. → patient gets COAGULOPATHY, JAUNDICE, ENCEPHALOPATHY, ASCITES, UPPER GI BLEEDING

322
Q

the 5 signs of decompensated liver disease

A

COAGULOPATHY, JAUNDICE, ENCEPHALOPATHY, ASCITES, UPPER GI BLEEDING

323
Q

key presentations of liver disease

A

Jaundice
Ascites → due to less albumin synthesis
abnormal bleeding
hepatic encephalopathy (confusion, altered mood, asterixis (liver flap), comatose)
low serum albumin
Hepatomegaly

324
Q

the 3 stages of chronic liver disease

A

Inflammation
Fibrosis → reversible damage
Cirrhosis → irreversible damage

325
Q

signs and symptoms of chronic liver disease

A

Portal hypertension
oesophageal varices (enlarged veins)
caput medusae (cluster of swollen veins in abdomen)
spider naevi
palmar erythema
Gynecomastia
Clubbing
fetor hepatis (sweet musty rotten egg garlic breath) → presence of certain sulfur-containing compounds that are produced in the intestines by bacteria due to impaired liver function; bacteria have to take over metabolism of ammonia
Dupuytren’s contracture

Malaise
Nausea
Vomiting
abdominal pain
Pruritis
bleeding

326
Q

1st line investigations for chronic and acute liver disease

A

LFTs (all raised):
Bilirubin
PT/INR
serum AST + ALT
AST/ALT Ratio
AST/Platelet Ratio
NH3 → liver should convert NH3 to urea
GGT all raised → enzyme in liver and bile duct (inidcates inflammation of liver and bile)
Serum albumin and glucose decreased.
FBC:
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia → liver helps make thrombopoietin
leukopenia
U&E:
urea and creatinine raised → severe liver injury can impair blood flow to kidneys
deranged electrolytes
Bilirubin - hyperbilirubinemia in decompensated cirrhosis

327
Q

what is the most specific lab finding for diagnosing liver cirrhosis in chronic liver disease

A

thrombocytopenia

328
Q

acute and chronic liver injury gold standard investigations

A

Liver biopsy (distortion of liver parenchyma)

329
Q

what additional tests would you order for acute liver injury if you are worried about a drug OD or an infection

A

blood cultures
toxicology screen

330
Q

management of chronic liver injury

A

1st line – prevent progression, lifestyle monitoring (less alcohol, reduce BMI)
Antiviral therapy in viral hepatitis
liver transplant (MELD score – model for end-stage liver disease. Assesses severity and transplant likelihood
Manage complications:
hepatic encephalopathy –> lactulose
ascites –> diuretics
bleeding –> vit K
cerebral oedema –> mannitol
Hyperglycaemia –> dextrose

331
Q

how do you treat hyperglycaemia in chronic liver disease

A

dextrose + possible diabetes management

332
Q

how do you treat cerebral oedema

A

mannitol

333
Q

complications of chronic/acute liver disease

A

Malnutrition - increased use of muscle tissue as fuel (impaired glycogen storage and gluconeogenesis) + reduced protein available (form impaired liver metabolism)
Portal Hypertension, Varices and Variceal Bleeding
Ascites and Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)
Hepato-renal Syndrome
Hepatic Encephalopathy
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Hyponatraemia
Cerebral oedema → mannitol
AKI → acute kidney injury
Acute-on-chronic liver failure
Coagulopathy (Vit K def)

334
Q

how do you manage acute liver disease

A

1st line – intensive care management, ABCDE, fluids analgesia. Assessment for liver transplant.
Treat underlying causes and complications, e.g., paracetamol overdose with N-acetylcysteine

335
Q

what score is used to asses suitability for liver transplant in patients with chronic or acute liver disease

A

UKELD

336
Q

how do you manage coagulopathy due to chronic or acute liver disease

A

Vit K + FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

337
Q

what are the most common causes of liver cirrhosis

A

Alcoholic liver disease, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, hepatitis B, hepatitis C

338
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for liver cirrhosis

A

liver biopsy

339
Q

what is the score which assesses the severity and prognosis of cirrhosis and what does it take in to account

A

Child-Pugh score
Involves - bilirubin, albumin, INR, ascites, encephalopathy.

340
Q

what is the MELD score

A

MELD score: model for end-stage liver disease. Gives 3 month mortality estimate and liver transplant advice

341
Q

explain why liver patients are immuno-compromised

A

Pathogens enters body via GI → liver is first filter to infections → needs a lot of leukocytes so that it can eliminate the pathogens effectively

liver patients have an impaired reticulo-endothelial function and reduced opsonic activity and leucocyte function

342
Q

what is autoimmune liver disease

A

Chronic inflammatory liver disorder which causes a chronic relapsing hepatitis

343
Q

what are the autoimmune liver diseases

A

PBC, PSC, Autoimmune hepatitis

344
Q

risk factors for autoimmune hepatitis

A

Female, genetic predisposition, immune dysfunction, other autoimmune conditions, HLA loci → HLA-DR3/DR4

345
Q

what are the different types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1: occurs in adults, typically women.

Type 2: occurs in children.

346
Q

what are the autoantibodies formed in type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies → Antibodies targeted against nuclear proteins and/or DNA

anti-smooth muscle antibodies → Antibodies targeted against actin, tubulin and other proteins

anti-soluble liver antigen

347
Q

what are the autoantibodies formed in type 2 autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti-liver kidney microsomes-1. → Antibodies targeted against subcellular vesicles that are derived from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). They contain various enzymes involved in drug metabolism and detoxification, particularly the cytochrome P450 enzymes.
Anti-liver cytosol antigen type-1.

348
Q

key presentations in autoimmune hepatitis

A

25% asymptomatic
the rest present with either acute hepatitis or chronic liver disease
rarely they can present directly with acute liver failure

acute hep presentation:
Jaundice
RUQ pain
Hepatomegaly
Malaise
fatigue
fever

chronic liver disease presentation:
Non-specific features: anorexia, nausea, weight loss, amenorrhoea, arthralgia or arthritis, acne, unexplained fever
Stigmata of chronic liver disease: hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, palmar erythema, spider naevi
Complications of cirrhosis (i.e. decompensation): ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, jaundice, GI bleeding

acute liver failure presentation:
Jaundice + Confusion + Coagulopathy in absence underlying liver disease

349
Q

key presentation of acute hepatitis

A

Jaundice
RUQ pain
Hepatomegaly
Malaise
fatigue
fever

350
Q

acute liver failure presentation

A

Jaundice + Confusion + Coagulopathy in absence underlying liver disease

351
Q

what are other autoimmune conditions which are associated with autoimmune hepatitis

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Coeliac disease
Thyroiditis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Other connective tissue diseases

352
Q

diagnosis and investigations for autoimmune hepatitis

A

use of IAIHG scoring system
it includes:

1) Gender: female more likely
2) ALP/AST ratio → indicator of cholestatic liver damage because ALP is marker for bile duct enzymes and bone whereas AST is general marker for liver damage and damage to other tissues. AST should generally be higher than ALP because it is in more tissue. If ALP is higher it indicates bile obstruction or primary biliary cholangitis. If the ratio is normal it simply excludes bile duct involvement
3) Serum immunoglobulins + Serum IgG → marker for the activation of the immune system and antibodies against liver; IgG is quite specific for liver antibodies
4) Antibodies:
Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis (adult):
ANA: antinuclear antibodies
SMA: anti smooth muscle antibodies
Type 2 (kid):
LKM: anti liver-kidney microsomes
5) Drug use history
6) Average daily alcohol intake
7) Histological findings from liver biopsy → liver biopsy done with percutaneous or transjugular approach
8) Other autoimmune disease
9) AMA → antimitochondrial antibodies → highly specific for PBC
10) Hepatitis viral markers → to exclude viral hepatitis

353
Q

how do you manage autoimmune hepatitis

A

1st line
immunosuppression with corticosteroid and immunosuppressant

prednisolone + azathioprine

2nd line
liver transplant

354
Q

what do you monitor patients with autoimmune hepatitis for? they are very susceptible to developing other complications

A

hepatocellular carcinoma
osteoporosis due to steroids: DEXA scan

355
Q

what is PBC

A

autoimmune T-cell mediated attack of interlobular bile ducts which results in inflammation

356
Q

what is more common: PBC or PSC
also mention what genders are associated with PBC or PSC

A

PBC more common
females

PSC - males

357
Q

risk factors for PBC

A

Female, age 45-60, smoking, other autoimmune disease, rheumatoid diseases

358
Q

what is xanthelasma

A

cholesterol deposits in the skin (xanthelasma)

359
Q

pathophysiology of PBC

A

Immune system attacks small interlobular bile ducts in the liver which obstructs bile outflow causing cholestasis.
Bile acids, bilirubin and cholesterol build up in the blood as they aren’t being excreted.
Bile acids cause itching, bilirubin cause jaundice and cholesterol causes deposits in the skin (xanthelasma) and blood vessels.
The back-pressure of the bile obstruction and overall disease process leads to fibrosis, cirrhosis, and liver failure.

360
Q

key presentations of PBC, signs and symptoms

A

Pruritis, fatigue, Jaundice, xanthelasma

signs: Pale stools, signs of cirrhosis (hepatomegaly, ascites, spider naevi)

symptoms: Abdominal pain, joint pain

361
Q

1st line and gold standard investigations for PBC

A

1st line
LFT
bilirubin
ALP
ALT
GGT
albumin
ultrasound

gold standard: AMA –> anti-microbial antibodies

362
Q

management of PBC 1st line and others

A

1st line: Ursodeoxycholic acid (bile acid analogue reduces intestinal absorption of cholesterol).

Cholestyramine (bile acid sequestrant) for pruritis.
Cholestyramine binds to bile acids in the intestine, forming complexes that are then excreted in the feces → decreases bile acid reabsorption → liver uses more cholesterol to synthesise new bile acids (less xanthelasma) + reduces bile acids overall and decreases itching

Liver transplant if severe

363
Q

complications of PBC

A

Liver cirrhosis, portal hypertension, steatorrhea, osteoporosis, hypercholesterolaemia

364
Q

what is PSC

A

Inflammation and fibrosis of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in strictured ‘beaded’ appearance of bile ducts.

365
Q

risk factors for PSC

A

Male, aged 40-50, heavily associated with IBD especially ulcerative colitis

366
Q

which autoimmune liver disorder is associated with UC

A

PSC

367
Q

Pathophysiology of PSC

A

Inflammation of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts leads to fibrosis and stricturing.
This obstructs bile flow causing cholestasis.
The biliary strictures lead to build up of bile acids and bilirubin in the blood causing pruritus and jaundice.
Ongoing strictures eventually lead to fibrosis, cirrhosis, and liver failure.

368
Q

key presentations of PSC

A

Pruritus, fatigue

Charcot’s triad: RUQ abdominal pain, fever, jaundice

hepatomegaly, IBD signs and symptoms

369
Q

what is ascending cholangitis and what are the three most key presentations

A

an acute infection of the bile ducts. In ascending cholangitis, bacteria from the intestines can ascend into the bile ducts, causing infection, inflammation, and obstruction.

the three most key symptoms are from Charcot’s triad: fever, RUQ pain, jaundice

370
Q

1st line and gold standard investigations for PSC

A

1st line
LFTs: raised bilirubin, ALP, AST and ALT, GGT. Decreased albumin.
Serology: no antimicrobial antibodies (AMA), maybe pANCA antibodies

gold standard
MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) – shows bile duct strictures or lesions

MRCP is required for diagnosis!!!

371
Q

management of PSC

A

cholestyramine for pruritus
Liver transplant

372
Q

complications of PSC; what are you especially worried about that you might want to monitor

A

Portal hypertension, cirrhosis, cholangiocarcinoma, colorectal cancer (risk from IBD), hepatic encephalopathy

especially worried about cholangiocarcinoma and colorectal cancer

373
Q

which one of PBS or PSC could be treated

A

PBS

PSC can’t be treated

374
Q

definition and stages of NAFL

A

Metabolic liver disease with evidence of hepatic steatosis (fat build up) which is not a secondary cause of alcohol consumption. Stages: non-alcoholic steatosis, non-alcoholic steatohepatitis, fibrosis, cirrhosis

375
Q

causes of NAFL

A

Metabolic syndrome: obesity, hypertension, diabetes, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperlipidaemia

376
Q

key presentations

A

either asymptomatic or with very severe symptoms of liver failure

hepatomegaly
jaundice
ascites
RUQ pain absence of chronic alcohol consumption

377
Q

1st line and gold standard investigations for NAFL
mention score used to assess chance of cirrhosis

A

1st line
Deranged LFTs: increased PT/INR, low albumin, increased bilirubin, increased AST and ALT, increased GGT
FBC: anaemia, thrombocytopenia. Lipid profile (raised LDL, cholesterol, triglyceride)
Liver ultrasound (fatty infiltrates)

gold standard
Liver biopsy (steatosis, inflammation, fibrosis)

Child Pugh score

378
Q

management of NAFL

A

1st line – treat underlying cause and reduce risks (lose weight, exercise, smoking, control diabetes, LDL).

Medications:
Pioglitazone → improves insulin sensitivity (improves fat levels in the blood which is a concern)

vitamin E → excess fat can cause oxidative damage in NAFL, and vit E is an antioxidant
Statins
ACEi.

end stage: liver transplant

379
Q

what is the main cause of liver disease and failure

A

Main cause of liver disease and failure

380
Q

key presentations of alcoholic liver disease

A

asymptomatic in early stages
later: abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, spider naevi (cluster of minute blood vessels under skin), alcohol dependency
Palmar erythema, dupuytren’s contracture (fingers bend towards palm of hand), ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, caput medusae (enlarged superficial epigastric veins), bruising, asterixis (flapping tremor), gynecomastia

381
Q

1st line and gold standard investigations for alcoholic liver disease

A

1st line:
LFTS: Gamma-glutamyl transferase (raised), AST and ALT (transaminases - raised), AST:ALT (ratio>2), ALP (alkaline phosphatase - raised), bilirubin (raised), albumin (low),
FBC: anaemia, thrombocytosis, high MCV

gold standard:
Liver biopsy: steatosis, inflammation, Mallory bodies

382
Q

what specific finding would you get from a liver biopsy from an alcoholic liver disease patient

A

Mallory bodies

383
Q

what screening tools can you use to assess alcohol dependence

A

CAGE
AUDIT

384
Q

management of alcoholic liver disease

A

Completely stopping alcohol consumption.
Give chlordiazepoxide for delirium tremens – alcohol withdrawal (tremors, agitation, ataxia, disorientation)
Also: weight loss, stop smoking
corticosteroids for alcoholic hepatitis (prednisolone)
liver transplant if severe (must abstain from alcohol for 3 months first)

385
Q

complications of alcoholic liver disease

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (thiamine deficiency), hepatic encephalopathy, renal failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, portal hypertension

386
Q

how much paracetamol are you allowed per day

A

400mg

387
Q

which hepatitis is associated with blood transfusions

A

Hep B

388
Q

what is secondary haemochromatosis

A

haemochromatosis as a result of transfusions, hep B and C, NAFLD

389
Q

how is iron mainly excreted in the body

A

mainly FAECES

other ways include bleeding (sloughing of intestinal cells, menstruation etc.)

390
Q

explain what the presence of Hep A IgG antibodies in the blood and absence of IgM means and why

A

indicates past Hep A infection or vaccination

IgM Antibodies:
Early Infection Marker: IgM antibodies are often the first antibodies to appear in response to a new infection.
The presence of IgM antibodies suggests an acute or recent infection.

IgG Antibodies:
Late Infection Marker: IgG antibodies usually appear later in the course of an infection.
The presence of IgG antibodies, especially in the absence of IgM antibodies, may suggest a past or resolved infection.
IgG antibodies can persist in the bloodstream for a more extended period, providing a marker of previous exposure or vaccination.

391
Q

hepatic encephalopathy vs Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

hepatic:
Brain infection due to toxic metabolites (especially ammonia) not removed by the liver due to liver dysfunction
can be due to liver cirrhosis and liver failure

Wernicke’s: it is specifically due to thiamine (vit B1) deficiency
is due to excess alcohol, malnutrition or impaired absorption of thiamine

392
Q

pathophysiology of alcohol-induced Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Thiamine deficiency impairs glucose metabolism, decreasing cellular energy. Brain is vulnerable to impaired glucose.
Alcohol reduces thiamine by interfering with thiamine conversion to its active form, preventing absorption, causes cirrhosis which interferes with thiamine storage in liver

393
Q

pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Ammonia is produced by intestinal bacteria when they break down proteins and is absorbed in the gut. Ammonia builds up in the blood in patients with cirrhosis because liver impairment prevents hepatocytes from metabolising ammonia into harmless waste products, and collateral vessels between the portal and systemic circulation mean that ammonia bypasses the liver and enters systemic circulation directly.

394
Q

key presentations of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Reduced consciousness, confusion, stupor, coma, changes to personality mood and memory.
Asterixis → ​​clinical sign that describes the inability to maintain sustained posture with subsequent brief, shock-like, involuntary movements
rigidity, hypokinesia.

395
Q

investigations and management of hepatic encephalopathy

A

investigations
Blood ammonia raised, abnormal LFTs, EEG (decrease in brain wave frequency and amplitude), U&E (maybe hyponatraemia or hypokalaemia)

management
Laxatives (e.g., lactulose) promote excretion of ammonia from gut before it is absorbed.
Antibiotics (e.g., rifaximin) reduce the number of intestinal bacteria which produce ammonia.
Nutritional support, e.g., nasogastric feeding

396
Q

key presentations of Wernicke-korsakoff encephalopathy

A

Wernicke’s: confusion, apathy, difficulty concentrating, ophthalmoplegia weakness and paralysis of eye muscles, ataxia – difficulty with coordinated movement.
Korsakoff: severe memory impairment (anterograde and retrograde), confabulation (creates stories to fill in memory gaps), behavioural changes

397
Q

what can Wernicke’s encephalopathy progress into

A

korsakoff syndrome

398
Q

investigations and management of Wernike’s encephalopathy

A

investigations:
thiamine levels decreased, LFTs deranged, MRI degeneration of mammillary bodies

management:
IV thiamine infusion (pabrinex). Can be given with glucose, magnesium, and multivitamins

399
Q

1st line and gold standard investigations for peritonitis

A

1st line Bloods, urine dipstick (rule out UTI), serum amylase + lipase (rule out pancreatitis), ECG if heart suspicion.

Gold standard CT abdomen

400
Q

investigations used for malabsorption

A

FBC
Increased/decreased MCV
Decreased calcium/iron/B12 and folate
Increased INR

Stool sample microscopy

Coeliac tests

401
Q

what is tropical sprue

A

severe malabsorption (of two or more substances) accompanied by diarrhoea and malnutrition
usually happens to residents or visitors to tropical areas

402
Q

a 75-year-old man presents with severe RUQ pain, rigours and fever. He has RUQ tenderness but a negative Murphy’s sign. Blood tests show high CRP and bilirubin. What is the next most appropriate test?

A

Abd ultrasound

403
Q

71 yr old man admitted to hospital with pneumonia. He is treated with co-amoxiclav. after 1 week he starts having severe diarrhoea (with no blood), and feels unwell and dehydrated. what is the most likely organism that caused the diarrhoea?

A

C diff

404
Q

man with cirrhosis presents with black stools, is apyrexial and jaundiced. bloods show anaemia and raised urea. what treatment will reduce mortality risk:
a) tranexamic acid
b) co-amoxiclav
c) metoclopramide
d) iron infusion

A

B

most patients die of sepsis because if they have a cirrhosed liver they are already immunocompromised and GI bacteria can translate to blood and to liver more easily

1st line treatment is: terlipressin (vasoconstriction) + co-amoxiclav

405
Q

a man with a history of liver transplant presented with deranged LFTs after eating raw pork meat on holiday. what is the most likely cause of the deranged LFTs
Hep A, B, C, D or E

A

Hep E

406
Q

man presents to GP with fatigue and deranged LFTs (raised ALT and ALP)
normal liver ultrasound
hepatitis screen negative
AMA positive
what is the diagnosis

A

PBC

407
Q

patient shows up with liver cancer and mets in GI lymph nodes. What Duke stage is he?

A

Dukes D

408
Q

a patient has abdominal pain which can be relieved by defecation. She also has loose stools and is 19yr old. what is the most likely diagnosis

A

IBS

409
Q

what costal cartilage does the subcoastal line pass through

A

10th costal cartilage

410
Q

at what vertebral level in the intertubercular line

A

L5

411
Q

where is the transpyloric plane and what does it intersect

A

transpyloric plane: between left and right 9th costal cartilages

crosses the pylorus of the stomach, the gallbladder, the pancreas and the hila of the kidney

412
Q

where is the intercristal plane

A

between the right and left iliac crests

413
Q

what nerves innervate the anterior abdominal wall and what kind of innervation do they receive

A

somatic
T7-T11
subcostal nerve (T12)
Iliohypogastric and ilioingunal nerve from L1

414
Q

which were the retroperitoneal components (not only organs)

A

adrenal glands, aorta, kidneys, oesophagus, ureters, pancreas, duodenum, ascending and descending colon, rectum

415
Q

what are the medial umbilical folds a remnant of

A

umbilical arteries

416
Q

name all of the hiatuses of the diaphragm and stat their vertebral level

A

oesophageal hiatus - T10
IVC - T8
Aorta - T12

417
Q

what is the blood supply and venous drainage of the oesophagus?

A

oesophageal arteries from aorta + left gastric arteries

drainage: left gastric vein azygous veins

418
Q

draw/name the branches of the SMA and IMA

A

SMA
jejunal artery
ileal artery
ileocolic artery
right colic
middle colic

IMA
left colic artery –> anastomoses with the middle colic via marginal artery
sigmoid artery
superior rectal artery

419
Q

explain how the portal venous system looks

A

spelling vein joins inferior mesenteric veins which then join the superior mesenteric and form the portal vein which breaks into smaller and smaller veins. all of the central veins then join into the hepatic vein which joins the IVC

420
Q

what is the innervation of the stomach?

A

parasympathetic: vagus
sympathetic: T5-T9

421
Q

what is the blood supply of the duodenum?

A

1st half from the coeliac trunk (gastro-duodenal artery) and the second half from SMA (inferior pancreatico-duodenal artery)

(this is because the duodenum has 2 embryological origins; first half is from the foregut and the second half is from the midgut)

422
Q

what is the difference between the jejunum and ileum

A

Jejunum
- lots of plicae circulares; ileum also has but much less

Ileum
- payer’s patches (submucosal lymph nodes)

423
Q

what is meckel’s diverticulum

A

embryological remnant of the connection between the midgut and the yolk sac –> how the baby was fed
(remnant of the vitelline duct)

424
Q

what were the three anatomical features of the large intestine?

A

haustra, taeniae coli, epiploic appendages

425
Q

what is the phenicolic ligament

A

ligament between transverse colon and diaphragm at the splenic flexure

426
Q

what is the innervation of the foregut, midgut and hindgut

A

foregut
sympathetic + visceral sensory- great splanchnic from T5-T9
parasympathetic - vagus

midgut
s + vs- lesser splanchnic T10-11
p - vagus

hindgut
s + vs - least T12
p - pelvic splanchnic S2-4

427
Q

what is the epiploic foramen?

A

the entrance to the lesser sac; lies behind the portal triad and the lesser omentum

428
Q

what is ligamentum teres remnant of and where is it

A

it is at the end of the falciform ligament inferior to the liver and it is the remnant of the umbilical vein

429
Q

what is does the ductus venosus turn into and what was the function of ductus venosus

A

ductus venosus becomes the ligamentum venosum in the adult
function of the ductus venosus is to shunt blood from umbilical vein straight to the IVC instead of through the liver because the umbilical vein carries very oxygenated blood from the mother –> you want to take that blood to systemic circulation and bypass the liver

430
Q

blood supply of pancreas

A

gastroduodenal artery from coeliac trunk splits into the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries

the SMA has the inferior anterior and posterior pancreatico-duodenal branches

the splenic artery from the coeliac supplies the body of the pancreas

431
Q

what is the sphincter of oddi

A

the circular muscle around the hepatopancreatic ampulla which leads to the major duodenal papilla

432
Q

papilla vs sphincter vs ampulla

A

papilla = lump
sphincter = muscle
ampulla = opening

433
Q

what are the cartilages which form the nasal septum?

A

vomer
ethmoid
septal cartilage

434
Q
A