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E&E Exam 3 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two purposes of the small intestinal villi?

A

(Enzyme production and nutrient absorption)

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2
Q

What do Brunner’s glands, which are contained within the submucosa of the duodenum, secrete?

A

(Bicarbonate)

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3
Q

What type of cells are located in the Peyer patches of the ileum?

A

(M cells)

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4
Q

What is the fatal congenital anomaly of most commonly calves that is characterized by a body wall defect with exposed viscera that can cause dystocia in the mom?

A

(Schistosomus reflexus)

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5
Q

What are the four types of hernia?

A

(Umbilical, inguinal/scrotal, diaphragmatic, and perineal)

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6
Q

What are two possible sequelae of a hernia, pertinent to the trapped gut?

A

(GI obstruction and ischemia/necrosis of the trapped gut)

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7
Q

What is the structure that remains, that is not normally present postnatally, in an animal with Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

(Vitelline duct)

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8
Q

What disease is associated with ileocolonic aganglionosis resulting from a defect in the gene for endothelin receptor B?

A

(Lethal white overo syndrome)

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9
Q

Strangulating lipomas are associated with what age of horses?

A

(Older horses)

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10
Q

What is the term for the failure of the hindgut to connect to the perineum?

A

(Atresia ani/coli)

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11
Q

What age of animal is more commonly affected by rectal prolapse?

A

(Young animals)

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12
Q

What does rectal prolapse occur secondarily to?

A

(Straining to defecate)

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13
Q

What does rectal stricture occur secondarily to?

A

(Proctitis and fibrosis)

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14
Q

What is the almost pathognomonic (these are Dr. Southard’s words) lesion associated with FPL and CPV?

A

(Segmental hemorrhagic enteritis)

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15
Q

How can you tell the difference between the segmental necrotic gut due to a stricture versus FPL or CPV?

A

(Strictures have an obvious line of demarcation, FPL/CPV blend into normal tissue)

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16
Q

What is the classic gross finding of jejunal hemorrhage syndrome?

A

(Hemorrhage and necrosis in the jejunum with clotted blood in the lumen)

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17
Q

What age group of dairy cattle is more commonly affected by jejunal hemorrhage syndrome?

A

(Adult/mature)

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18
Q

Although the causation of jejunal hemorrhage syndrome has not been proven, it is suspected to be associated with infections with what two agents?

A

(Clostridium perfringens type A and Aspergillus fumigatus)

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19
Q

What are the species of coccidia that affect large versus small animals?

A

(Large - Eimeria spp.; small - Isospora spp.)

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20
Q

Right dorsal colitis is often associated with the use of what medications in horses?

A

(NSAIDs)

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21
Q

What viral disease causes ulcers over the Peyer’s patches of the ileum?

A

(BVD)

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22
Q

How does the location of lesions caused by salmonellosis change between horses/pigs and cattle?

A

(Horses/pigs → large intestine; cattle → small intestine)

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23
Q

Pair the disease with the causative clostridial agent:
- Necrotizing and hemorrhagic enteritis usually in newborn or young animals

Options:
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium piliforme
Clostridium chauvoei
Clostridium septicum

A

Clostridium perfringens

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24
Q

Pair the disease with the causative clostridial agent:
- Blackleg (can affect tongue), enteritis

Options:
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium piliforme
Clostridium chauvoei
Clostridium septicum

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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25
Q

Pair the disease with the causative clostridial agent:
- Clostridial abomasitis aka braxy in sheep and calves

Options:
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium piliforme
Clostridium chauvoei
Clostridium septicum

A

Clostridium septicum

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26
Q

Pair the disease with the causative clostridial agent:
- Necrotizing enteritis

Options:
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium piliforme
Clostridium chauvoei
Clostridium septicum

A

Clostridium difficile

27
Q

Pair the disease with the causative clostridial agent:
- Hepatic necrosis, enteritis, colitis, myocarditis

Options:
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium piliforme
Clostridium chauvoei
Clostridium septicum

A

Clostridium piliforme

28
Q

What are the four types of diarrheagenic E. coli that can cause anywhere from minimal inflammation and no blunting of the villi to severe villous blunting?

A

(Enterotoxigenic aka ETEC, enteropathogenic, enterohemorrhagic, and enteroinvasive)

29
Q

What toxin does a specific strain of E. coli (not naming it because it would give the answer away) produce that causes the death of endothelial cells, leading to edema in the mesocolon, brain, larynx, and stomach?

A

(Shiga toxin 2E)

30
Q

What do Brachyspira hyodysenteriae/pilosicoli cause in pigs?

A

(Necrotizing colitis aka swine dysentery → diarrhea with blood and mucus)

31
Q

Why do you not want to house turtles and snakes in the same enclosure?

A

(Turtles carry Entamoeba invadens which can cause fibrinonecrotizing colitis in snakes)

32
Q

What is the scientific name of the dog-infecting whipworms?

A

(Trichuris vulpis)

33
Q

How can you tell the difference between hookworm and whipworm infections based on 1) the location of infection and 2) the clinical signs?

A

(Location - whipworms = large intestine; hookworm = small intestine; C/S - whipworms = diarrhea and weight loss; hookworm = hemorrhagic diarrhea and anemia)

34
Q

What part of the GI tract becomes distended, hyperemic, edematous, and ulcerated in a horse infected with Neorickettsia risticii?

A

(Large colon)

35
Q

(T/F) Hemomelasma ilei are described as red to brown plaques on the serosa of the antimesenteric surface of the ileum that are a significant finding in horses as they are pathognomonic for a bacterial infection.

A

(F, insignificant, don’t indicate anything)

36
Q

What is the term for the (thought to be) immune-mediated type of IBD that causes histiocytic inflammation primarily in boxers and some other breeds?

A

(Histiocytic ulcerative colitis)

37
Q

What are the four possible infectious causes of canine granulomatous enteritis/colitis, IBD being a noninfectious cause?

A

(Prototheca spp. (algae), Pythium spp. (oomycete), Histoplasma capsulatum (fungus), and Blastomycosis dermatitidis (fungus))

38
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a foal and noticed the GI tract is significantly thickened at some locations, what would be at the top of your differential list? Imagine you didn’t start cranial and have just looked at the GI tract so far.

A

(Rhodococcus equi infection)

39
Q

Where are lesions caused by Johne’s disease (causative agent: Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis aka MAP) primarily found in the GI tract of ruminants?

A

(Distal small intestine)

40
Q

What is the causative agent of proliferative enteropathy which is characterized by segmental proliferation of enterocytes/colonocytes of the ileum, cecum, and colon?

A

(Lawsonia intracellularis)

41
Q

What cell type do gastrointestinal stromal tumors arise from?

A

(Interstitial cells of Cajal aka the pacemaker cells of the GI tract)

42
Q

What are the four possible causes for the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal (or coelomic) cavity aka ascites?

A

(Decreased oncotic pressure, increased hydrostatic pressure, lymphatic obstruction, and leaky vessels)

43
Q

What are the three possible causative agents of fibrinous peritonitis in pigs?

A

(Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s dz), Streptococcus suis, and Mycoplasma hyorhinis)

44
Q

What do the fatty acids that are released from lysed adipocytes combine with to form a soap-like substance through saponification?

A

(Calcium)

45
Q

In pancreatic hypoplasia, which portion of the pancreas fails to develop?

A

(Exocrine)

46
Q

The cells of which portion of the pancreas gives rise to islet cell tumors?

A

(Endocrine)

47
Q

What lobe of the liver is the most commonly torsed liver lobe?

A

(Left lateral)

48
Q

What hepatic disease can vitamin E/selenium deficiency cause in young pigs?

A

(Causes hepatosis dietetica → centrilobular to massive necrosis of the liver)

49
Q

What is the causative agent of histomoniasis in turkeys that is carried by chickens in the eggs of the cecal worm Heterakis gallinarum?

A

(Histomonas meleagridis)

50
Q

What is the causative agent of the zoonotic disease tularemia that can cause numerous <1 cm in diameter white foci throughout the liver and often similar lesions in other organs?

A

(Francisella tularensis)

51
Q

The causative agent of the zoonotic disease tularemia that can cause numerous <1 cm in diameter white foci throughout the liver and often similar lesions in other organs is Francisella tularensis.

What three other organisms can present similarly to tularemia?

A

(Salmonella, Listeria monocytogenes, and Toxoplasma gondii)

52
Q

What species is affected by capsular fibrosis of the liver which is due to ascarid migration, also termed ‘milk spots’ due to the disease presentation?

A

(Pigs)

53
Q

Besides an anorexic cat, what two other cases can cause increased transport of lipids to hepatocytes which results in hepatic lipidosis?

A

(Overconditioned periparturient dairy cows and poultry on high-energy diets)

54
Q

What toxicity in dogs causes a decreased ability of hepatocytes to process lipids resulting in hepatic lipidosis?

A

(Aflatoxicosis)

55
Q

What are two differential diagnoses for a pale liver (listed by Dr. Southard in her PPT, could be others)? Two answers.

A

(Amyloidosis and glycogen deposition)

56
Q

Vacuolar hepatopathy, which is characterized by the deposition of glycogen in hepatocytes that affects dogs, is associated with imbalances of what?

A

(Hormones → hyperadrenocorticism, glucocorticoid tx, and/or stress)

57
Q

What is the term for the accumulation of bile in bile ducts, canaliculi, and hepatocytes?

A

(Cholestasis)

58
Q

What disease process puts an animal at more risk for canalicular cholestasis as opposed to bile duct cholestasis?

A

(Sepsis)

59
Q

What two processes occur concurrently to give a cirrhotic liver its ‘grape-like’ appearance?

A

(Concurrent fibrosis and nodular regeneration)

60
Q

What is the term for the disorder of amino acid and glucose metabolism that presents with degenerative vacuolar hepatopathy with regenerative nodules, and cutaneous hyperkeratosis with epidermal edema and basal cell hyperplasia?

A

(Hepatocutaneous syndrome)

61
Q

What is the most common primary hepatic tumor in dogs?

A

(Hepatocellular carcinomas)

62
Q

What is the most common primary liver tumor in cats?

A

(Cholangiosarcoma/biliary carcinoma)

63
Q

What infection in cattle can result in fibrinous cholecystitis?

A

(Salmonellosis)

64
Q

Besides a biliary tree obstruction, what can lead to gallbladder distention?

A

(Anorexia)

E&E Exam 3 (8 decks)

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