Equine Dz

Question 1

Gastric emptying is normally slower/faster (choose one) in foals to facilitate the digestion of milk.

Answer 1

(Slower)

Question 2

What microbe are newborn foals exposed to during parturition that then persists as normal flora for the rest of their lives?

Answer 2

(Lactobacillus)

Question 3

(T/F) Diarrhea in older foals and adults results from large intestinal inflammation.

Answer 3

(T)

Question 4

What is the minimum database that you should obtain in a horse you are evaluating for diarrhea?

Answer 4

(PCV, TP, blood lactate, and USG)

Question 5

What is the classic clin path presentation of a horse with endotoxemia? Four answers.

Answer 5

(Leukopenia, neutropenia, left shift, toxic changes)

Question 6

What changes would you expect to see on a CBC in a horse with a chronic infection?

Answer 6

(Leukocytosis and increased fibrinogen)

Question 7

Why do you need to be particularly careful when performing a rectal examination on a horse with diarrhea?

Answer 7

(Rectal mucosa could be edematous and tear easily)

Question 8

What is a less risky and non-invasive diagnostic test when compared to rectal palpation that can assess bowel motility, wall thickness, and distension?

Answer 8

(AUS)

Question 9

What can be administered to a horse with mild diarrhea to absorb toxins and solidify the feces that needs to be tapered as the horses’ feces begin to return to normal?

Answer 9

(Biosponge)

Question 10

What are the three components that you need to consider when calculating your fluid rate to be administered to a patient with diarrhea?

Answer 10

(Their maintenance, ongoing losses, and replacement of what they have already lost)

Question 11

Since veterinarians tend to underestimate diarrhea volume, how much should you increase your estimate to be more accurate when administering ongoing loss and/or replacement fluids?

Answer 11

(1.5-2x your estimate)

Question 12

What is the maximum rate of enteral fluid delivery for a horse?

Answer 12

(20 ml/kg every 30 minutes)

Question 13

How much lite salt (in grams) should be added per 4 liters of water, which is what should be administered enterally to a horse with diarrhea?

Answer 13

(30g of lite salt)

Question 14

What should you check for prior to every administration of enteral fluids in a horse?

Answer 14

(Reflux)

Question 15

What is the normal PCV range for a normally hydrated horse?

Answer 15

(30-45%)

Question 16

What is the normal TP range for a normally hydrated horse?

Answer 16

(5.5-7.5 g/dL)

Question 17

To raise the protein concentration by 1 g/dL in a horse, how much plasma will you need?

Answer 17

(4-5L)

Question 18

What is the drug class of choice when treating Potomac Horse Fever (Neorickettsia risticii)?

Answer 18

(Tetracyclines)

Question 19

Of the list of infectious causes of diarrhea/colitis in weanlings and adult horses (listed below), which of them can be transmitted through direct horse-to-horse contact?
- Salmonella
- Potomac Horse Fever
- Clostridial colitis
- Corona viral infection
- GI parasitism

Answer 19

(Salmonella, Clostridial colitis, and Corona viral infection)

Question 20

(T/F) Stomach ulcers cause diarrhea in adult horses only, not in foals.

Answer 20

(F, the other way around)

Question 21

When should PTH vaccination boosters be administered during the year (season-wise)?

Answer 21

(Spring and late summer)

Question 22

How should you prevent the introduction of Salmonella into a herd of horses?

Answer 22

(Isolate new horses for several weeks)

Question 23

Is there a vaccination for the C. perfringens toxins?

Answer 23

(Yes)

Question 24

What is a common complication of PTH infections?

Answer 24

(Laminitis)

Question 25

What history often accompanies Clostridium infections?

Answer 25

(Hx of recent or concurrent tx with abx)

Question 26

What is the most common presenting sign of horses infected with Coronavirus?

Answer 26

(Fever)

Question 27

The colon depends on prostaglandins (PGE2) for what two physiological processes?

Answer 27

(Blood flow and restoration of the epithelium)

Question 28

What is the causative agent of antibiotic-induced diarrhea and what is the treatment for it?

Answer 28

(Clostridia spp. and you tx with metronidazole)

Question 29

What do blister beetles produce that is extremely irritating to the mucosa of horses?

Answer 29

(Cantharidin)

Question 30

Blister beetles and their toxin are most commonly found in what type of hay and which cuttings?

Answer 30

(Alfalfa hay and 2nd or 3rd cutting)

Question 31

Do horses with sand colic tend to have acute or chronic diarrhea?

Answer 31

(Chronic diarrhea)

Question 32

Where does sand accumulate in the colon?

Answer 32

(Sternal flexure)

Question 33

Does the absence of sand in your sleeve test rule out sand colic?

Answer 33

(No)

Question 34

How is sand colic treated?

Answer 34

(Feeding psyllium which traps sand and eliminates it)

Question 35

What are the two most common causes of parasitic-induced diarrhea in foals?

Answer 35

(Ascarids and small strongyles)

Question 36

Rotavirus has a high (morbidity/mortality) and a low (morbidity/mortality).

Answer 36

(High morbidity, low mortality)

Question 37

What type of cells is the peritoneum composed of?

Answer 37

(Squamous mesothelial cells)

Question 38

What are the two functions of the peritoneum?

Answer 38

(Decrease friction and facilitate free movement of the viscera)

Question 39

What antibiotic can be used to treat Actinobacillus equuli infections?

Answer 39

(Penicillin)

Question 40

What are the two typical sources of hemoabdomen in horses?

Answer 40

(Ruptured middle uterine artery or a traumatized spleen)

Question 41

What sex and age of a horse are more commonly affected by a uroabdomen?

Answer 41

(Colt foals)

Question 42

What do you expect to feel on rectal palpation in a horse with peritonitis?

Answer 42

(A rough or gritty feeling due to small fibrin deposits all over the serosal surface of the GIT)

Question 43

What antibiotic should be included in your treatment for peritonitis to cover anaerobic bacteria?

Answer 43

(Metronidazole)

Question 44

What is the purpose of administering flunixin meglumine as a part of your treatment for peritonitis? Two answers.

Answer 44

(Minimize inflammation and fibrin formation)

Question 45

Why do you need to use extreme caution when lavaging the abdomen of a horse with evidence of hemorrhage?

Answer 45

(It may disrupt any clots they formed)

Question 46

Are the large or small intestines more often the location of adhesion formation?

Answer 46

(Small intestines)

Question 47

What are two mechanical causes of chronic change in GI motility?

Answer 47

(Adhesions and strictures)

Question 48

(T/F) GI neoplasia is uncommon in horses.

Answer 48

(T)

Question 49

If you are presented with a horse with diffuse GIT neoplasia, it will most likely be what kind of neoplasm?

Answer 49

(Alimentary lymphosarcoma)

Question 50

If you are presented with a horse with discrete GIT neoplasia, it will most likely be what kind of neoplasm?

Answer 50

(SCC)

Question 51

What is the treatment for sand colic?

Answer 51

Psyllium

Question 52

How can you determine if a horse’s colic may be due to sand on your physical exam?

Answer 52

(Listen to sternal flexure for 2-3 minutes, can hear the sand movement)

Question 53

What imaging modality can be used to confirm a horse has intestinal sand?

Answer 53

(Radiographs)

Question 54

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of encysted small Strongyles?

Answer 54

(Moxidectin)

Question 55

What would you expect to see on your CBC in a horse with an NSAID-induced colon ulcer?

Answer 55

(Hypoproteinemia)

Question 56

What are the two macrocyclic lactone drugs that are available for use in horses?

Answer 56

(Ivermectin and moxidectin)

Question 57

What are the two benzimidazole drugs that are available for use in horses?

Answer 57

(Fenbendazole and oxibendazole)

Question 58

What is the one nicotinic drug that is available for use in horses?

Answer 58

(Pyrantel)

Question 59

What is the one isoquinoline drug that is available for use in horses?

Answer 59

(Praziquantel)

Question 60

What parasite causes oral pain, difficulty eating, and anorexia following entry into the horse's mouth and larvae spending a few weeks in the oral mucosa?

Answer 60

(Gasterophilus spp.)

Question 61

What drug class is used for the treatment of Gasterophilus spp.?

Answer 61

(Macrocyclic lactones)

Question 62

What is the infective stage of Cyathostomins spp.?

Answer 62

(L3)

Question 63

What is the most important risk factor for the development of acute larval cyathostomosis?

Answer 63

(Anthelmintic treatment)

Question 64

Which larval stage of Strongylus vulgaris migrates to the junction of the cranial mesenteric artery and aorta causing a reaction that can result in thromboembolic colic?

Answer 64

(L4)

Question 65

Where does the Anoplocephala perfoliata tapeworm like to cluster?

Answer 65

(Ileocecal junction → obstruction and colic)

Question 66

Are heavier infections of Anoplocephala perfoliata associated with younger or older animals?

Answer 66

(Younger)

Question 67

What is the treatment for Anoplocephala perfoliata? Two answers.

Answer 67

(Praziquantel or 2x normal pyrantel dose)

Question 68

What is the clinical presentation of a ‘wormy horse’? Five answers.

Answer 68

(Weight loss, dull haircoat, pot belly, colic, and loose feces)

Question 69

What two parasites cause a ‘wormy horse’ appearance?

Answer 69

(Chronic cyathostomosis and Parascaris)

Question 70

Is chronic or acute cyathostomosis associated with Cythastomins larvae going into hypobiosis?

Answer 70

(Acute cyathostomosis)

Question 71

Why do horses with high fecal egg counts of Cythastomins spp. get dewormed more?

Answer 71

(B/c they will contaminate pastures, not b/c they have a high worm burden)

Question 72

What class of drugs currently appears to be effective against adult Cyathostomins?

Answer 72

(Macrocyclic lactones)

Question 73

Why can respiratory signs be present in a young horse with a heavy infection of Parascaris spp.?

Answer 73

(Parascaris life cycle involves tracheal migration of larvae)

Question 74

Why are benzimidazoles preferred in the treatment of Parascaris spp. over the use of macrocyclic lactones or pyrantel?

Answer 74

(BZD target the parasite's metabolic function instead of the neuromuscular system like MLs and pyrantel; if you paralyze them it could lead to obstruction)

Question 75

What test is used to diagnose Oxyuris equi?

Answer 75

(Scotch tape test)

Question 76

What two drug classes can be used to treat Oxyuris equi?

Answer 76

(MLs and BZDs)