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E&E Exam 3 > Equine Dz > Flashcards

Equine Dz Flashcards

1
Q

Gastric emptying is normally slower/faster (choose one) in foals to facilitate the digestion of milk.

A

(Slower)

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2
Q

What microbe are newborn foals exposed to during parturition that then persists as normal flora for the rest of their lives?

A

(Lactobacillus)

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3
Q

(T/F) Diarrhea in older foals and adults results from large intestinal inflammation.

A

(T)

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4
Q

What is the minimum database that you should obtain in a horse you are evaluating for diarrhea?

A

(PCV, TP, blood lactate, and USG)

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5
Q

What is the classic clin path presentation of a horse with endotoxemia? Four answers.

A

(Leukopenia, neutropenia, left shift, toxic changes)

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6
Q

What changes would you expect to see on a CBC in a horse with a chronic infection?

A

(Leukocytosis and increased fibrinogen)

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7
Q

Why do you need to be particularly careful when performing a rectal examination on a horse with diarrhea?

A

(Rectal mucosa could be edematous and tear easily)

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8
Q

What is a less risky and non-invasive diagnostic test when compared to rectal palpation that can assess bowel motility, wall thickness, and distension?

A

(AUS)

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9
Q

What can be administered to a horse with mild diarrhea to absorb toxins and solidify the feces that needs to be tapered as the horses’ feces begin to return to normal?

A

(Biosponge)

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10
Q

What are the three components that you need to consider when calculating your fluid rate to be administered to a patient with diarrhea?

A

(Their maintenance, ongoing losses, and replacement of what they have already lost)

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11
Q

Since veterinarians tend to underestimate diarrhea volume, how much should you increase your estimate to be more accurate when administering ongoing loss and/or replacement fluids?

A

(1.5-2x your estimate)

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12
Q

What is the maximum rate of enteral fluid delivery for a horse?

A

(20 ml/kg every 30 minutes)

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13
Q

How much lite salt (in grams) should be added per 4 liters of water, which is what should be administered enterally to a horse with diarrhea?

A

(30g of lite salt)

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14
Q

What should you check for prior to every administration of enteral fluids in a horse?

A

(Reflux)

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15
Q

What is the normal PCV range for a normally hydrated horse?

A

(30-45%)

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16
Q

What is the normal TP range for a normally hydrated horse?

A

(5.5-7.5 g/dL)

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17
Q

To raise the protein concentration by 1 g/dL in a horse, how much plasma will you need?

A

(4-5L)

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18
Q

What is the drug class of choice when treating Potomac Horse Fever (Neorickettsia risticii)?

A

(Tetracyclines)

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19
Q

Of the list of infectious causes of diarrhea/colitis in weanlings and adult horses (listed below), which of them can be transmitted through direct horse-to-horse contact?
- Salmonella
- Potomac Horse Fever
- Clostridial colitis
- Corona viral infection
- GI parasitism

A

(Salmonella, Clostridial colitis, and Corona viral infection)

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20
Q

(T/F) Stomach ulcers cause diarrhea in adult horses only, not in foals.

A

(F, the other way around)

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21
Q

When should PTH vaccination boosters be administered during the year (season-wise)?

A

(Spring and late summer)

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22
Q

How should you prevent the introduction of Salmonella into a herd of horses?

A

(Isolate new horses for several weeks)

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23
Q

Is there a vaccination for the C. perfringens toxins?

A

(Yes)

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24
Q

What is a common complication of PTH infections?

A

(Laminitis)

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25
Q

What history often accompanies Clostridium infections?

A

(Hx of recent or concurrent tx with abx)

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26
Q

What is the most common presenting sign of horses infected with Coronavirus?

A

(Fever)

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27
Q

The colon depends on prostaglandins (PGE2) for what two physiological processes?

A

(Blood flow and restoration of the epithelium)

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28
Q

What is the causative agent of antibiotic-induced diarrhea and what is the treatment for it?

A

(Clostridia spp. and you tx with metronidazole)

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29
Q

What do blister beetles produce that is extremely irritating to the mucosa of horses?

A

(Cantharidin)

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30
Q

Blister beetles and their toxin are most commonly found in what type of hay and which cuttings?

A

(Alfalfa hay and 2nd or 3rd cutting)

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31
Q

Do horses with sand colic tend to have acute or chronic diarrhea?

A

(Chronic diarrhea)

32
Q

Where does sand accumulate in the colon?

A

(Sternal flexure)

33
Q

Does the absence of sand in your sleeve test rule out sand colic?

A

(No)

34
Q

How is sand colic treated?

A

(Feeding psyllium which traps sand and eliminates it)

35
Q

What are the two most common causes of parasitic-induced diarrhea in foals?

A

(Ascarids and small strongyles)

36
Q

Rotavirus has a high (morbidity/mortality) and a low (morbidity/mortality).

A

(High morbidity, low mortality)

37
Q

What type of cells is the peritoneum composed of?

A

(Squamous mesothelial cells)

38
Q

What are the two functions of the peritoneum?

A

(Decrease friction and facilitate free movement of the viscera)

39
Q

What antibiotic can be used to treat Actinobacillus equuli infections?

A

(Penicillin)

40
Q

What are the two typical sources of hemoabdomen in horses?

A

(Ruptured middle uterine artery or a traumatized spleen)

41
Q

What sex and age of a horse are more commonly affected by a uroabdomen?

A

(Colt foals)

42
Q

What do you expect to feel on rectal palpation in a horse with peritonitis?

A

(A rough or gritty feeling due to small fibrin deposits all over the serosal surface of the GIT)

43
Q

What antibiotic should be included in your treatment for peritonitis to cover anaerobic bacteria?

A

(Metronidazole)

44
Q

What is the purpose of administering flunixin meglumine as a part of your treatment for peritonitis? Two answers.

A

(Minimize inflammation and fibrin formation)

45
Q

Why do you need to use extreme caution when lavaging the abdomen of a horse with evidence of hemorrhage?

A

(It may disrupt any clots they formed)

46
Q

Are the large or small intestines more often the location of adhesion formation?

A

(Small intestines)

47
Q

What are two mechanical causes of chronic change in GI motility?

A

(Adhesions and strictures)

48
Q

(T/F) GI neoplasia is uncommon in horses.

A

(T)

49
Q

If you are presented with a horse with diffuse GIT neoplasia, it will most likely be what kind of neoplasm?

A

(Alimentary lymphosarcoma)

50
Q

If you are presented with a horse with discrete GIT neoplasia, it will most likely be what kind of neoplasm?

A

(SCC)

51
Q

What is the treatment for sand colic?

A

Psyllium

52
Q

How can you determine if a horse’s colic may be due to sand on your physical exam?

A

(Listen to sternal flexure for 2-3 minutes, can hear the sand movement)

53
Q

What imaging modality can be used to confirm a horse has intestinal sand?

A

(Radiographs)

54
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of encysted small Strongyles?

A

(Moxidectin)

55
Q

What would you expect to see on your CBC in a horse with an NSAID-induced colon ulcer?

A

(Hypoproteinemia)

56
Q

What are the two macrocyclic lactone drugs that are available for use in horses?

A

(Ivermectin and moxidectin)

57
Q

What are the two benzimidazole drugs that are available for use in horses?

A

(Fenbendazole and oxibendazole)

58
Q

What is the one nicotinic drug that is available for use in horses?

A

(Pyrantel)

59
Q

What is the one isoquinoline drug that is available for use in horses?

A

(Praziquantel)

60
Q

What parasite causes oral pain, difficulty eating, and anorexia following entry into the horse’s mouth and larvae spending a few weeks in the oral mucosa?

A

(Gasterophilus spp.)

61
Q

What drug class is used for the treatment of Gasterophilus spp.?

A

(Macrocyclic lactones)

62
Q

What is the infective stage of Cyathostomins spp.?

A

(L3)

63
Q

What is the most important risk factor for the development of acute larval cyathostomosis?

A

(Anthelmintic treatment)

64
Q

Which larval stage of Strongylus vulgaris migrates to the junction of the cranial mesenteric artery and aorta causing a reaction that can result in thromboembolic colic?

A

(L4)

65
Q

Where does the Anoplocephala perfoliata tapeworm like to cluster?

A

(Ileocecal junction → obstruction and colic)

66
Q

Are heavier infections of Anoplocephala perfoliata associated with younger or older animals?

A

(Younger)

67
Q

What is the treatment for Anoplocephala perfoliata? Two answers.

A

(Praziquantel or 2x normal pyrantel dose)

68
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a ‘wormy horse’? Five answers.

A

(Weight loss, dull haircoat, pot belly, colic, and loose feces)

69
Q

What two parasites cause a ‘wormy horse’ appearance?

A

(Chronic cyathostomosis and Parascaris)

70
Q

Is chronic or acute cyathostomosis associated with Cythastomins larvae going into hypobiosis?

A

(Acute cyathostomosis)

71
Q

Why do horses with high fecal egg counts of Cythastomins spp. get dewormed more?

A

(B/c they will contaminate pastures, not b/c they have a high worm burden)

72
Q

What class of drugs currently appears to be effective against adult Cyathostomins?

A

(Macrocyclic lactones)

73
Q

Why can respiratory signs be present in a young horse with a heavy infection of Parascaris spp.?

A

(Parascaris life cycle involves tracheal migration of larvae)

74
Q

Why are benzimidazoles preferred in the treatment of Parascaris spp. over the use of macrocyclic lactones or pyrantel?

A

(BZD target the parasite’s metabolic function instead of the neuromuscular system like MLs and pyrantel; if you paralyze them it could lead to obstruction)

75
Q

What test is used to diagnose Oxyuris equi?

A

(Scotch tape test)

76
Q

What two drug classes can be used to treat Oxyuris equi?

A

(MLs and BZDs)

E&E Exam 3 (8 decks)

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