Pathology 12% 8Q Flashcards

1
Q

epithelial lined lesion in the jaw appearing as a radiolucency in the alveolar process unassociated with a tooth - appears where a tooth should form but didn’t

A

primordial cyst

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2
Q

a true cyst inadvertently left behind during extraction. May be of apical (inflammatory) or dentigerous (developmental) origin. Surgical removal will resolve this lesion.

A

residual cyst

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3
Q

a common true epithelial lined jaw cyst appearing as a radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted or impacted tooth

A

dentigerous cyst

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4
Q

an uncommon benign jaw neoplasm of odontogenic epithelium appearing as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency - difficult to eradicate, with common recurrence

A

ameloblastoma

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5
Q

etiology of an ameloblastoma

A

odontogenic epithelium

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6
Q

most common location of an ameloblastoma is:

A

posterior mandible

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7
Q

Clinical and radiographic presentation of an ameloblastoma?

A

Clinical: large lesions may cause jaw expansion, otherwise none

Radiographic: multilocular radiolucency, small lesions may be unilocular

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8
Q

microscopic presentation of ameloblastoma lesion

A

proliferating epithelial structures resembling “enamel organs”

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9
Q

Due to the common recurrence of ameloblastomas, treatment prognosis is good with:

A

wide surgical excision

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10
Q

Ameloblastomas favor patients over ___y/o

Male ___ Female

White ___ Black

A

18

M > F

B > W

BM > FB > WM > WF

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11
Q

Cementoblastomas usually appear before age ___

A

25

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12
Q

where are cementoblastomas most common?

A

Mandibular first premolar region

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13
Q

T/F: Teeth involved with cementoblastomas retain pulp vitality

A

True

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14
Q

Cementoblastomas are associated with what clinical presentations? radiographic?

A

pain, swelling, and expansion of cortical plates

lesions are continuous with roots, which are resorbed

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15
Q

Excessive deposit of cementum on root surface

A

hypercementosis

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16
Q

diagnosis for a case scenario showing a patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar:

A

Hypercementosis

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17
Q

diagnosis for a case scenario showing a patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar:

A

Hypercementosis

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18
Q

another name for Paget’s Disease

A

Osteitis Deformans

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19
Q

An uncommon fibrous condition of unknown cause that produces enlargement of the skull and jaws. It has distinctive
radiographic cotton wool appearance

A

Paget’s disease

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20
Q

In Paget’s disease, patient presents with a high amount of ________ _____________ in the blood. It is difficult to treat, and ultimately
_______.

A

alkaline phosphatase

fatal

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21
Q

clinical presentations Paget’s disease

A

Enlargement of the maxilla

may have considerable bone pain

Paresthesia

dental problems common

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22
Q

T/F: etiology of Paget’s disease is unknown

A

True

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23
Q

radiographic appearance of Paget’s disease

A

Diffuse radiolucencies/opacities → Cotton Wool

hypercementosis

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24
Q

Paget’s disease histological appearance

A

proliferating fibrous CT stroma with bone resorption and deposition

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25
The prognosis of paget's disease is poor. The disease is ultimately fatal due to the continual enlargement and weakening of bones which have the potential of undergoing spontaneous malignant transformation to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
osteosarcoma
26
**_asymptomatic_**, regional alteration of bone where architecture is replaced by fibrous tissue and nonfunctional trabeculae-like osseous structures; lesions (may be monostatic or polystatic, with or without associated endocrine disturbances)
fibrous dysplasia
27
fibrous dysplasia most commonly affects what age group?
juveniles and young adults
28
Like Paget's disease, ____________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ presents with an increased level of serum alkaline phosphatase
fibrous dysplasia
29
The radiographic appearance for fibrous dysplasia is a diffuse increase in bone trabeculation, commonly called
“ground glass/orange peel”
30
periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically affects (max/mand) (anterior/posterior) teeth
mandibular anterior
31
periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically affects (white/black) (males/females) in their (20s/30s/40s/50s)
black females in their 40s
32
periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia has ___ stages of radiolucency and radiopacity
3
33
T/F: Teeth affected by periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia remain vital
True
34
Albers-Schonberg or marble bone (highly radiopaque, very fragile) radiographic appearance describes patients affected by
Osteoporosis
35
osteoporosis most commonly affects which populations? (3)
postmenopausal women sedentary individuals long term steroid therapy
36
a fairly common condition usually without severe signs or symptoms recognized by a well defined radiopacity at the apex of a **non vital** tooth
condensing osteitis
37
Pathogenesis of condensing osteitis
stimulation of bone production by chronic inflammation
38
Therapy for condensing osteitis requires
root canal or extraction
39
Syndrome associated with elongation of the styloid process and stylohyoid ligament calcification
Eagle's syndrome
40
In patients with Eagle' syndrome, the tissues in the throat rub on the styloid process during the act of swallowing with resulting pain along the ________________ nerve
glossopharyngeal
41
Symptoms of Eagle's syndrome
1. pain upon swallowing 2. pain upon turning the head or extending the tongue 3. voice alteration 4. cough 5. dizziness 6. sinusitis 7. bloodshot eyes
42
Name the molecule that would be high in serum levels during acute or chronic hepatitis B infection, indicating the person is **infectious**
Hepatitis B Surface **Antigen** HBsAg
43
In response to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg), the body will produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hepatitis B Surface **Antibody** (anti-HBs)
44
Hepatitis B Surface Antibodies (anti-HBs) Indicates
recovery and immunity from HBV infection
45
T/F: A person vaccinated against Hepatitis B will develop Hepatitis B Surface Antibodies (anti-HBs)
True
46
What molecule indicates previous or ongoing infection with HBV in an undefined time frame?
total Hepatitis B Core Antibody anti-HBc
47
total Hepatitis B Core Antibody (anti-HBc) appears at what point in the cycle of HepB infection? How long does it persist?
onset of symptoms persists for life
48
the response molecule created in the presence of total Hepatitis B Core Antibody (anti-HBc) is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. It appears during acute or recent HBV infection and is present for ___ months
IgM Antibody to Hepatitis B Core Antigen IgM anti-HBc 6 months
49
symptoms of Hep B infection can persist how long?
4 weeks - 6 months after infection
50
it can be up to ___ months after Hep B infection for liver tests to show normal function
6 mo.
51
a positive result for a Tuberculosis test means:
the patient has been exposed
52
osteosarcoma radiographic appearance can be described as
sun burst appearance
53
osteosarcoma has similar symptoms to and can manifest as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
myositis
54
myositis has similar symptoms to and can manifest as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
osteosarcoma
55
muscle pain following injury or infection, limited ROM due to pain and swelling
myositis
56
Rheumatoid Arthritis is a systemic disease with diffuse inflammation of __________ lining
synovial
57
herpetic gingivostomatitis symptoms (4)
Low grade fever lymphadenopathy malaise multiple ulcer in oral cavity
58
consideration for patients with heart Valve problems:
infective endocarditis
59
consideration for patients with Cerebral Palsy:
muscular dysfunction
60
Most common location for a sialolith
submandibular gland
61
Most common malignant bone tumor
\*\*Osteosarcoma (Ewing's) or Multiple Myeloma
62
In a case report: *Case: Punched out RL in Mn of 43 yo man. Not associated with roots of teeth. Increase in serum Ca+. Normal Alkaline Phosphatase*
*Multiple Myeloma*
63
Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasia, increased infection, weight loss, ketone increase, blurred vision These symptoms describe which condition?
Diabetes mellitus
64
blood glucose \> 160 mg/dl indicates
diabetes mellitus
65
Rheumatic Fever is caused by
streptococcal bacteria
66
Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is caused by
Streptococcus viridans
67
The portal of entry for strep viridans to enter the bloodstream and cause Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is
1. Mucosal gingival bleeding 2. Salivary glands 3. Lymphatics
68
*Case: as a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This is an example of:*
*Bacteremia*
69
the most common oral manifestation of HIV is
Canididiasis
70
a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. The tumors/lesions) typically appear as painless purplish spots on the legs, feet or face. Lesions can also appear in the genital area, mouth or lymph nodes.
Kaposi's sarcoma
71
HIV related Kaposi's sarcoma is ___________ in origin
multifocal
72
*Case: a 5 yo child has symmetric bilateral enlargement in the posterior areas of the mandible. Radiographs reveal large, multilocular radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is:*
***Cherubism** (familial fibrous dysplasia)*
73
Radiation therapy for oral cancer may result in
**osteoradionecrosis**
74
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ __________ is a facultatively anaerobic, gram-positive coccus commonly found in the human oral cavity and is a significant contributor to tooth decay
Streptococcus mutans
75
inflammation or swelling that occurs in the bone
osteomyelitis
76
osteomyelitis is caused by
staph aureus
77
78
Name 4 diseases associated with supernumerary teeth
Crouzon's syndrome Down Syndrome Cleidocranial dysplasia Gardner's syndrome
79
\_\_\_% of odontogenic tumors are **odontomas** and ___ % are **ameloblastomas**. They are \_\_\_% of all oral tumors.
70% 10% 1%
80
lesion that is well defined margins and scalloped between teeth
Traumatic Bone Cyst
81
Most common odontogenic tumor
Odontoma
82
Most common salivary tumor
Pleiomorphic Adenoma
83
Most common malignant bone tumor
Osteosarcoma