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MODULE 1: BASIC AND APPLIED BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES. 65Q > Pathology 12% 8Q > Flashcards

Pathology 12% 8Q Flashcards

1
Q

epithelial lined lesion in the jaw appearing as a radiolucency in the alveolar process unassociated with a tooth - appears where a tooth should form but didn’t

A

primordial cyst

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2
Q

a true cyst inadvertently left behind during extraction. May be of apical (inflammatory) or dentigerous (developmental) origin. Surgical removal will resolve this lesion.

A

residual cyst

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3
Q

a common true epithelial lined jaw cyst appearing as a radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted or impacted tooth

A

dentigerous cyst

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4
Q

an uncommon benign jaw neoplasm of odontogenic epithelium appearing as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency - difficult to eradicate, with common recurrence

A

ameloblastoma

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5
Q

etiology of an ameloblastoma

A

odontogenic epithelium

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6
Q

most common location of an ameloblastoma is:

A

posterior mandible

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7
Q

Clinical and radiographic presentation of an ameloblastoma?

A

Clinical: large lesions may cause jaw expansion, otherwise none

Radiographic: multilocular radiolucency, small lesions may be unilocular

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8
Q

microscopic presentation of ameloblastoma lesion

A

proliferating epithelial structures resembling “enamel organs”

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9
Q

Due to the common recurrence of ameloblastomas, treatment prognosis is good with:

A

wide surgical excision

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10
Q

Ameloblastomas favor patients over ___y/o

Male ___ Female

White ___ Black

A

18

M > F

B > W

BM > FB > WM > WF

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11
Q

Cementoblastomas usually appear before age ___

A

25

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12
Q

where are cementoblastomas most common?

A

Mandibular first premolar region

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13
Q

T/F: Teeth involved with cementoblastomas retain pulp vitality

A

True

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14
Q

Cementoblastomas are associated with what clinical presentations? radiographic?

A

pain, swelling, and expansion of cortical plates

lesions are continuous with roots, which are resorbed

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15
Q

Excessive deposit of cementum on root surface

A

hypercementosis

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16
Q

diagnosis for a case scenario showing a patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar:

A

Hypercementosis

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17
Q

diagnosis for a case scenario showing a patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar:

A

Hypercementosis

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18
Q

another name for Paget’s Disease

A

Osteitis Deformans

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19
Q

An uncommon fibrous condition of unknown cause that produces enlargement of the skull and jaws. It has distinctive
radiographic cotton wool appearance

A

Paget’s disease

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20
Q

In Paget’s disease, patient presents with a high amount of ________ _____________ in the blood. It is difficult to treat, and ultimately
_______.

A

alkaline phosphatase

fatal

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21
Q

clinical presentations Paget’s disease

A

Enlargement of the maxilla

may have considerable bone pain

Paresthesia

dental problems common

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22
Q

T/F: etiology of Paget’s disease is unknown

A

True

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23
Q

radiographic appearance of Paget’s disease

A

Diffuse radiolucencies/opacities → Cotton Wool

hypercementosis

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24
Q

Paget’s disease histological appearance

A

proliferating fibrous CT stroma with bone resorption and deposition

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25
Q

The prognosis of paget’s disease is poor. The disease is ultimately fatal due to the continual enlargement and weakening of bones which have the potential of undergoing spontaneous malignant transformation to _________________.

A

osteosarcoma

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26
Q

asymptomatic, regional alteration of bone where architecture is replaced by fibrous tissue and nonfunctional trabeculae-like osseous structures; lesions (may be monostatic or polystatic, with or without associated
endocrine disturbances)

A

fibrous dysplasia

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27
Q

fibrous dysplasia most commonly affects what age group?

A

juveniles and young adults

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28
Q

Like Paget’s disease, ____________ ______________ presents with an increased level of serum alkaline phosphatase

A

fibrous dysplasia

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29
Q

The radiographic appearance for fibrous dysplasia is a diffuse increase in bone trabeculation, commonly called

A

“ground glass/orange peel”

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30
Q

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically affects (max/mand) (anterior/posterior) teeth

A

mandibular anterior

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31
Q

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically affects (white/black) (males/females) in their (20s/30s/40s/50s)

A

black females in their 40s

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32
Q

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia has ___ stages of radiolucency and radiopacity

A

3

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33
Q

T/F: Teeth affected by periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia remain vital

A

True

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34
Q

Albers-Schonberg or marble bone (highly radiopaque, very fragile) radiographic appearance describes patients affected by

A

Osteoporosis

35
Q

osteoporosis most commonly affects which populations? (3)

A

postmenopausal women

sedentary individuals

long term steroid therapy

36
Q

a fairly common condition usually without severe signs or
symptoms recognized by a well defined radiopacity at the apex of a non vital tooth

A

condensing osteitis

37
Q

Pathogenesis of condensing osteitis

A

stimulation of bone production by chronic inflammation

38
Q

Therapy for condensing osteitis requires

A

root canal or extraction

39
Q

Syndrome associated with elongation of the styloid process and stylohyoid ligament calcification

A

Eagle’s syndrome

40
Q

In patients with Eagle’ syndrome, the tissues in the throat rub on the styloid process during the act of swallowing with resulting pain along the ________________ nerve

A

glossopharyngeal

41
Q

Symptoms of Eagle’s syndrome

A
  1. pain upon swallowing
  2. pain upon turning the head or extending the tongue
  3. voice alteration
  4. cough
  5. dizziness
  6. sinusitis
  7. bloodshot eyes
42
Q

Name the molecule that would be high in serum levels during acute or chronic hepatitis B infection, indicating the person is infectious

A

Hepatitis B Surface Antigen

HBsAg

43
Q

In response to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg), the body will produce ____________

A

Hepatitis B Surface Antibody

(anti-HBs)

44
Q

Hepatitis B Surface Antibodies (anti-HBs) Indicates

A

recovery and immunity from HBV infection

45
Q

T/F: A person vaccinated against Hepatitis B will develop Hepatitis B Surface Antibodies (anti-HBs)

A

True

46
Q

What molecule indicates previous or ongoing infection with HBV in an undefined time frame?

A

total Hepatitis B Core Antibody

anti-HBc

47
Q

total Hepatitis B Core Antibody (anti-HBc) appears at what point in the cycle of HepB infection? How long does it persist?

A

onset of symptoms

persists for life

48
Q

the response molecule created in the presence of total Hepatitis B Core Antibody (anti-HBc) is ________________. It appears during acute or recent HBV infection and is present for ___ months

A

IgM Antibody to Hepatitis B Core Antigen

IgM anti-HBc

6 months

49
Q

symptoms of Hep B infection can persist how long?

A

4 weeks - 6 months after infection

50
Q

it can be up to ___ months after Hep B infection for liver tests to show normal function

A

6 mo.

51
Q

a positive result for a Tuberculosis test means:

A

the patient has been exposed

52
Q

osteosarcoma radiographic appearance can be described as

A

sun burst appearance

53
Q

osteosarcoma has similar symptoms to and can manifest as _______

A

myositis

54
Q

myositis has similar symptoms to and can manifest as _____________

A

osteosarcoma

55
Q

muscle pain following injury or infection, limited ROM due to pain and swelling

A

myositis

56
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis is a systemic disease with diffuse inflammation of __________ lining

A

synovial

57
Q

herpetic gingivostomatitis symptoms (4)

A

Low grade fever

lymphadenopathy

malaise

multiple ulcer in oral cavity

58
Q

consideration for patients with heart Valve problems:

A

infective endocarditis

59
Q

consideration for patients with Cerebral Palsy:

A

muscular dysfunction

60
Q

Most common location for a sialolith

A

submandibular gland

61
Q

Most common malignant bone tumor

A

**Osteosarcoma (Ewing’s)

or Multiple Myeloma

62
Q

In a case report: Case: Punched out RL in Mn of 43 yo man. Not associated with roots of teeth. Increase in serum Ca+. Normal Alkaline Phosphatase

A

Multiple Myeloma

63
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasia, increased infection, weight loss, ketone increase, blurred vision

These symptoms describe which condition?

A

Diabetes mellitus

64
Q

blood glucose > 160 mg/dl indicates

A

diabetes mellitus

65
Q

Rheumatic Fever is caused by

A

streptococcal bacteria

66
Q

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is caused by

A

Streptococcus viridans

67
Q

The portal of entry for strep viridans to enter the bloodstream and cause Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is

A
  1. Mucosal gingival bleeding
  2. Salivary glands
  3. Lymphatics
68
Q

Case: as a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This is an example of:

A

Bacteremia

69
Q

the most common oral manifestation of HIV is

A

Canididiasis

70
Q

a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. The tumors/lesions) typically appear as painless purplish spots on the legs, feet or face. Lesions can also appear in the genital area, mouth or lymph nodes.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

71
Q

HIV related Kaposi’s sarcoma is ___________ in origin

A

multifocal

72
Q

Case: a 5 yo child has symmetric bilateral enlargement in the posterior areas of the mandible. Radiographs reveal large, multilocular radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Cherubism (familial fibrous dysplasia)

73
Q

Radiation therapy for oral cancer may result in

A

osteoradionecrosis

74
Q

__________ __________ is a facultatively anaerobic, gram-positive coccus commonly found in the human oral cavity and is a significant contributor to tooth decay

A

Streptococcus mutans

75
Q

inflammation or swelling that occurs in the bone

A

osteomyelitis

76
Q

osteomyelitis is caused by

A

staph aureus

77
Q
A
78
Q

Name 4 diseases associated with supernumerary teeth

A

Crouzon’s syndrome

Down Syndrome

Cleidocranial dysplasia

Gardner’s syndrome

79
Q

___% of odontogenic tumors are odontomas and ___ % are ameloblastomas. They are ___% of all oral tumors.

A

70%

10%

1%

80
Q

lesion that is well defined margins and scalloped between teeth

A

Traumatic Bone Cyst

81
Q

Most common odontogenic tumor

A

Odontoma

82
Q

Most common salivary tumor

A

Pleiomorphic Adenoma

83
Q

Most common malignant bone tumor

A

Osteosarcoma

MODULE 1: BASIC AND APPLIED BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES. 65Q (6 decks)

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