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Patho-Pharm Year 1 > Patho-Pharm Week 5 - Respiratory > Flashcards

Patho-Pharm Week 5 - Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What bacteria causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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2
Q

How is tuberculosis transmitted?

A

Airborne droplets

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3
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Infection of the lower respiratory tract cause by mycobacterium tuberculosis

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4
Q

What is meant by “lower respiratory tract”?

A

Far out from the center of the airway, not deep

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5
Q

What kind of bacteria is mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Acid-fast bacillus

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6
Q

What does acid-fast bacillus mean?

A

They are resistant to dyes, making them hard to see under a microscope

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7
Q

How to mycobacterium tuberculosis affect the lungs?

A

Forms tubercle which form cheese like substances which breaks down the lung tissue

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8
Q

Is tuberculosis asymptomatic at the beginning?

A

Yes

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9
Q

What are 4 manifestations of tuberculosis?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Productive cough
  • Hemoptysis
  • Night sweats
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10
Q

How do you know if someone is really having night sweats?

A

If it’s so bad they have t change their sheets and/or clothes

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11
Q

What does a positive Tb test mean?

A

They have been in contact with the bacteria at some point, not necessarily have the disease

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12
Q

What are the 3 following tests if someone has a positive Tb test?

A
  • Sputum
  • Chest Xray
  • Urine for acid-fast bacillus
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13
Q

What is Croup?

A

Subglottic edema from an infection (narrow airway)

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14
Q

What is the main mark of croup?

A

Barking cough

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15
Q

What are 3 signs + symptoms of croup?

A
  • Sore throat
  • Low grade fever
  • Seal-like barking cough
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16
Q

What aspect of croup determines the severity of treatment?

A

If stridor is present (if so, more treatment)

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17
Q

What type of drug is croup typically treated with?

A

Steroid

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18
Q

What steroid is croup typically treated with?

A

Dexamethasone

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19
Q

What population typically gets croup?

A

Children

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20
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Infection of the lower respiratory tract in the alveoli

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21
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A

When stomach contents are breathed into the lungs instead of swallowed into the stomach

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22
Q

What is the most common pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

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23
Q

What are the two types of acquired pneumonias?

A
  • Community
  • Nosocomial
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24
Q

What does nosocomial mean?

A

Hospital acquired

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25
Q

Why are nosocomial acquired infections more serious?

A

There are more resistent pathogens in healthcare setting than

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26
Q

What are MRSA bacteria?

A

Bacteria that causes difficult to treat infection and are resistant to antibiotics

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27
Q

What is happening in the lungs during strep pneumonia?

A

Inflammatory response and fluid exudate in the alveoli

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28
Q

Is strep pneumonia viral or bacterial?

A

Bacterial

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29
Q

What is lobar pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia is aggressive in only 1-2 lobes

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30
Q

What do the black and white represent on an Air Bronchogram?

A

White - Infected
Black - Clear

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31
Q

What is the main problem with viral pneumonia?

A

It provides the perfect environment for more pathogens to grow

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32
Q

What are 4 signs and symptoms of pneumonia?

A
  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Fever + chills
  • Pleuritic chest pain (pleurisy near the pneumonia)
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33
Q

What are two characteristics are gram-positive bacteria?

A
  • Thick cell wall
  • Appear purple under microscope
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34
Q

What are two characteristics of gram-negative bacteria?

A
  • Thinn cell wall
  • Appear red under a microscope
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35
Q

Is streptococcus bacteria gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-positive

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36
Q

What are the three diagnostic tools for pneumonia?

A
  • Chest X ray
  • Blood test (elevated wbc)
  • sputum gram stain
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37
Q

Gram stain vs Culture sensitivity

A

Gram stain
- determine if the bacteria is gram-positive or gram-negative
Culture sensitivity
- determine susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics
- growing a culture of the bacteria and dotting it with antibiotics to see if it does anything

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38
Q

What do gram stains let us know about the bacteria?

A

Type of cell wall

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39
Q

Number 1 cause of lung cancer?

A

Smoke

40
Q

What are the four types of cells in the lungs that cause lung cancer?

A
  • Squamous cells
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Large cell
  • Small cell
41
Q

Give a description for each type of cell in the lungs that cause lung cancer?

A
  • Squamous cell (Holding it together)
  • Adenocarcinoma (Secreting columnar cells)
  • Large cell (stem cell)
  • Small cell (endocrine)
42
Q

Which type of lung cancer has a 5 year survival rate?

A

Small cell (endocrine)

43
Q

Do we operate on small cell lung cancer?

A

No

44
Q

Which type of lung cancer has the highest potential for metastasis?

A

Small cell

45
Q

What are 3 manifestations of lung cancer?

A
  • Coughing
  • Hemoptysis
  • Pleural effusion
46
Q

What are the three treatments for lung cancer?

A
  • Surgery
  • Chemo
  • Radiation
47
Q

What type of disease is Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Autosomal Recessive Inherited Disease

48
Q

What does Cystic Fibrosis result in?

A

Abnormal tenacious mucous secretions that obstruct tracts in
- Respiratory system
- Digestive system

49
Q

What is the usual cause of death in cystic fibrosis?

A

Respiratory failure

50
Q

What happens to males with cystic fibrosis?

A

They are infertile

51
Q

When is diagnosis of cystic fibrosis done?

A

Early

52
Q

What test is used for cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat test

53
Q

What does the sweat test measure?

A

Levels of electrolytes

54
Q

Do CF patients have high or low levels of electrolytes?

A

High levels of electrolytes

55
Q

What does pseudomonas bacteria cause in CF patient’s?

A

More rapid decline in lung function

56
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Air in the pleural space, resulting in the lung collapsing

57
Q

What are the 4 kinds of pneumothorax?

A
  • Spontaneous
  • Tension
  • Open
  • Secondary
58
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

When air escapes from the lung into the pleural space, with every breathe, more air enters the pleural space but cannot get back to the lung, resulting in high pressure

59
Q

What is the treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

A

Pressure relief

60
Q

How many lungs are affected in an open pneumothorax?

A

One

61
Q

What is an open pneumothorax?

A

A large wound in the chest wall allows air into the pleural space, and each breathe lets more air in, preventing the lung from fully expanding

62
Q

What is the treatment for an open pneumothorax?

A

3 sided dressing dressing, letting air escape but not back in. Then chest tube

63
Q

What is a flail chest?

A

Three or more adjacent ribs fracture in two or more places

64
Q

What is the movement of a flail chest?

A

Paradoxical movement, fractured parts move in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest while breathing

65
Q

What happens to the lung underneath the flail chest fractures?

A

It will not be ventilated, leading to a ventilation-perfusion mismatch

66
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity

67
Q

What are the two types of pleural effusions?

A
  • Exudative
  • Transudative
68
Q

What is an exudative pleural effusion?

A

When bad fluid is being pushing into the pleural space

69
Q

What is a transudative pleural effusion?

A

When fluid is going into the pleural space faster than it can get out

70
Q

What is a hemothorax?

A

Pleural effusion with blood

71
Q

What is an empyema?

A

Pleural effusion with pus

72
Q

What is pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Excess scar tissue in the lung preventing someone from taking a deep breath in

73
Q

What is the opposite of pulmonary fibrosis?

A

COPD

74
Q

What are three causes of pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • Scarring after a disease
  • Chemical scarring
  • Idiopathic
75
Q

What do antihistamines do at a cellular level?

A

Stabilize the cell membrane so they don’t release histamine

76
Q

What response is histamine apart of?

A

Inflammatory response

77
Q

What effect does histamine cause?

A

Bronchoconstriction

78
Q

What are uses for antihistamine?

A
  • Allergies
  • Blood transfusions
  • Dermatologic conditions
79
Q

When should antihistamines be given?

A

Before the treatment/trigger, before histamine has a chance to bind to the receptors

80
Q

What are the two main side effects of antihistamines?

A
  • Drying effects (dry mouth)
  • Drowsiness
81
Q

What is the most common sedative antihistamine?

A

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

82
Q

What are three non-sedating antihistamines?

A
  • Reactine
  • Allegra
  • Claritin
83
Q

What must nurses always tell patient’s going on antihistamines?

A

Do not drive until you get a sense of your medication dose

84
Q

What are the three types of decongestants?

A
  • Adrenergics
  • Anticholinergics
  • Corticosteroids
85
Q

What is the main adrenergic?

A

Pseudoephedrine

86
Q

What is the main drug used for nasal congestion?

A

Pseudoephedrine

87
Q

What is the most common intranasal steroid (topical decongestant)?

A

Flonase

88
Q

What are two effects of nasal steroids?

A
  • Anti-inflammatory effect
  • Decreases amount of secretions
89
Q

What are three indication of use for decongestants?

A
  • Rhinitis
  • Common cold
  • Sinusitis
90
Q

If someone has ___, they cannot take decongestants

A

Hypertension

91
Q

What are antitussives used for?

A

Stop/reduce coughing

92
Q

What are the two types of antitussives?

A
  • Opioid
  • Non-opioid
93
Q

What is a non-opioid antitussives?

A

Dextromethorphan

94
Q

Expectorants vs. Decongestants

A

Expectorants - help you get rid of mucus you already have
Decongestants - prevent you from forming mucus

95
Q

What is a common expectorant?

A

Guaifenesin

96
Q

How does guaifenesin work?

A

Makes you produce more mucus

97
Q
A

Patho-Pharm Year 1 (5 decks)

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