Patho minimals Flashcards by toki pham

Breast or nipple tissue present along the embryonic breast ridge superior or inferior to the main breast:
Question 1Select one:

a.
Multiple breast syndrome

b.
Accessory mammary gland/nipple

c.
Extra breast

d.
Embryonic breast

Accessory mammary gland/nipple

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Hormonally induced glandular breast swelling in young boys or girls:
Question 2Select one:

a.
Gynecohyperplasia

b.
Enlarged juvenile breast syndrome

c.
Gynecomastia

d.
Juvenile or pubertal hypertrophy

Juvenile or pubertal hypertrophy

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Enlargement of the adult male breast:
Question 3Select one:

a.
Gynecomastia

b.
Hypertrophic breast

c.
Gynecoplasia

d.
Mastitis

Gynecomastia

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Most common occurrence of acute mastitis:
Question 4Select one:

a.
Pubertal period

b.
Postpartum period or lactation

c.
Menopausal

d.
Post-menopausal

Postpartum period or lactation

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Dilated large and intermediate breast ducts containing inspissated material with accompanying periductal inflammation and fibrosis:
Question 5Select one:

a.
Duct stenosis

b.
Duct ectasia

c.
Fibrocystic breast disease

d.
Mastitis cystica

Duct ectasia

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Mass lesion of the breast usually induced by trauma:
Question 6Select one:

a.
Mastitis purulenta

b.
Abscedens mastitis

c.
Gynecomastia

d.
Fat necrosis

Fat necrosis

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Three major histologic features of fibrocystic disease of the breast:
Question 7Select one or more:

a.
Variable proliferation of terminal duct epithelial elements

b.
Relative increase in fibrous stroma,

c.
Cystic dilation of terminal ducts,

d.
Sclerosing adenosis

Cystic dilation of terminal ducts,,
Relative increase in fibrous stroma,,
Variable proliferation of terminal duct epithelial elements

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Type of fibrocystic change associated with a slightly increased risk for carcinoma:
Question 8Select one:

a.
Mastitis fibrosa

b.
Ductectasia

c.
Non-proliferative fibrocystic change

d.
Proliferative fibrocystic change

Proliferative fibrocystic change

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Proliferation of small breast ducts and myoepithelial cells with surrounding stromal fibrosis:
Question 9Select one:

a.
Paget-disease

b.
Non-proliferative fibrocystic change

c.
Sclerosing adenosis

d.
DCIS

Sclerosing adenosis

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Most common benign breast neoplasm:
Question 10Select one:

a.
Fibroadenoma

b.
Lipoma

c.
Sclerosing adenosis

d.
Phylloid tumor

Fibroadenoma

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Benign intraductal tumor that typically arises from the surface of large, subareolar lactiferous ducts of middle-aged and older women:
Question 11Select one:

a.
DCIS

b.
Paget-disease

c.
Intraductal papilloma

d.
Phylloid tumor

Intraductal papilloma

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Tumor suppressor genes often implicated in the pathogenesis of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer:
Select one or more:

a.
HER2

b.
BRCA1

c.
EGFR

d.
BRCA2

BRCA1, BRCA2

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Malignant epithelial cells within the breast duct that have not penetrated the basement membrane:
Question 13Select one or more:

a.
Paget-disease

b.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

c.
Fibroadenoma

d.
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS),
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

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High-grade in situ breast carcinoma containing necrotic material:
Question 14Select one:

a.
Phylloid tumor

b.
Ductal invasive carcinoma

c.
Necrotizing carcinoma

d.
Comedo carcinoma

Comedo carcinoma

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In situ breast carcinoma that arises in the terminal duct lobular unit:
Question 15Select one:

a.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

b.
Fibroadenoma

c.
Paget-disease

d.
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

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Truncated gene associated with lobular carcinoma:
Question 16Select one:

a.
BRCA2

b.
HER2

c.
BRCA1

d.
E-cadherin

E-cadherin

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Most common type of invasive breast carcinoma:
Question 17Select one:

a.
Medullary carcinoma

b.
Invasive lobular carcinoma

c.
Invasive ductal carcinoma

d.
Mucinous carcinoma

Invasive ductal carcinoma

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Ductal breast carcinoma that involves the epidermis at the nipple and areola:
Question 18Select one:

a.
Paget disease

b.
DCIS

c.
Inflammatory carcinoma

d.
Pylloid tumor

Paget disease

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Aggressive invasive lobular carcinoma with marked nuclear atypia:
Question 19Select one:

a.
Low grade lobular carcinoma

b.
Medullolobular carcinoma

c.
Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma

d.
Intermediate grade lobular carcinoma

Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma

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Invasive ductal breast carcinoma in which the malignant cells differentiate toward mesenchymal tissue:
Question 20Select one:

a.
Metaplastic carcinoma

b.
Metastatic carcinoma

c.
Paget-disease

d.
Carcinoma ducto-mesenchymale

Metaplastic carcinoma

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Swollen, erythematous breast with plugging of dermal lymphatic vessels by tumor cells:
Question 21Select one:

a.
Infiltratory carcinoma

b.
Inflammatory carcinoma

c.
Carcinolymphoma

d.
Lymphocarcinoma

Inflammatory carcinoma

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Most common site of breast carcinoma regional metastasis:
Question 22Select one:

a.
Mediastinal lymph nodes

b.
Axillary lymph nodes

c.
Cervical lymph nodes

d.
Supraclavicular lymph nodes

Axillary lymph nodes

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Breast tumor displaying proliferation of malignant stromal elements accompanied by ductal structures:
Question 24Select one:

a.
Phyllodes tumor

b.
Invasive ductal carcinoma

c.
DCIS

d.
Fibroadenoma

Phyllodes tumor

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Amplified gene that is responsible for increased c-erbB2 protein in up to 35% of breast carcinomas:
Question 23Select one:

a.
E-cadherin

b.
BRCA1

c.
BRCA2

d.
Her2/neu

Her2/neu

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Cardiac defects commonly associated with hypoplastic left ventricle? Question 1Select one: a. Tricuspidal stenosis b. Mitral stenosis c. Aortic transposition d. Aortic valvular stenosis or aortic atresia

Aortic valvular stenosis or aortic atresia

Cardiac complication of carcinoid syndrome? Question 2Select one: a. Mitral regurgitation and aortic stenosis b. Tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis c. Tricuspid regurgitation and aortic stenosis d. Mitral regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis

Tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis

Mutated gene associated with both Duchennne muscular dystrophy and dilated cardiomyopathy? Question 3Select one: a. Actin b. Myoglobin c. Myogenin d. Dystrophin

Dystrophin

Most common types of bacteria that cause endocarditis in adults? Question 4Select one: a. 1 Streptococcus mutans 2 staphylococcus pyogenes b. 1 Streptococcus viridans 2 staphylococcus epidermidis c. 1 Streptococcus agalactiae 2 staphylococcus mitis d. 1 Streptococcus salivaris 2 staphylococcus sanguinis

1 Streptococcus viridans 2 staphylococcus epidermidis

Onset of pericarditis 2 to 10 weeks after myocardial infarction? Question 5Select one: a. Dressler syndrome b. Budd-Chiari syndrome c. Raynaud syndrome d. Kaposi syndrome

Dressler syndrome

Reversal of blood flow (shunt) from the right to the left in ventricular septal defect? Question 6Select one: a. Eisenmenger complex b. Fallot complex c. Botalli complex d. Morgagni complex

Eisenmenger complex

Endocrine disturbance that causes high-output myocardial failure? Question 7Select one: a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypergonadism c. Hypopituitarism d. Hyporthyroidism

Hyperthyroidism

The four anatomic changes defining tetralogy of Fallot? Question 8Select one: a. Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Aortic stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy c. Pulmonary stenosis, Atrial septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy d. Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding pulmonary artery, Right ventricular hypertrophy

Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy

Most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in newborns? Question 9Select one: a. Situs inversus b. Spina bifida c. Congenital malformation of the heart d. Foramen ovale apertum

Congenital malformation of the heart

Verrucous vegetation on heart valves in systemic lupus erythematosus? Question 10Select one: a. Viral endocarditis b. Infective endocarditis c. Libman-Sacks endocarditis d. Bacterial endocarditis

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

Most common primary cardiac tumor in infants? Question 11Select one: a. Sarcoma b. Rhabdomyoma c. Leiomyoma d. Myxoma

Rhabdomyoma

Most common cause of toxic cardiomyopathy? Question 12Select one: a. Cholesterol b. Ethanol c. Drugs d. Methanol

Ethanol

Systemic arterial embolization originating from thrombi of the venous circulation? Question 13Select one: a. Forward emboli b. Retrograde emboli c. Parallel emboli d. Paradoxical emboli

Paradoxical emboli

Congenital malformation consisting of a common trunk for the origin of the aorta, pulmonary arteries, and coronary arteries? Question 14Select one: a. Persistent truncus arteriosus b. Persistent vessel truncus c. Persistent vascular truncus d. Persistent venous truncus

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Primary disease of the myocardium that excludes damage caused by extrinsic factors? Question 15Select one: a. Cardiomyopathy b. Ischemic heart disease c. Hypersensitive myocarditis d. Myocardial infarction

Cardiomyopathy

Sterile vegetation on apparently normal cardiac valves? Question 16Select one: a. Septic viral endocarditis b. Nonbacterial proliferative (mural) endocarditis c. Septic bacterial endocarditis d. Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis

Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis

Rapid accumulation of pericardial fluid restricting the filling of the heart? Question 17Select one: a. Hemothorax b. Hydrothorax c. Obstructive myocarditis d. Cardiac tamponade

Cardiac tamponade

Common cardiac complication caused by amyloidosis? Question 18Select one: a. Obstructive cardiomyopathy b. Dilated cardiomyopathy c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Right heart failure due to pulmonary hypertension, entailing right ventricular hypertrophy and dilation? Question 19Select one: a. Cor pulmonale acutum b. Cor pulmonale chronicum c. The common cause is portal hypertension d. The common cause is saddle embolism

Cor pulmonale chronicum

Chronic fibrosing disease of the pericardium with heart compression and restriction of cardiac inflow? Question 20Select one: a. Hypertrophic pericarditis b. Constrictive pericarditis c. Fibrinous pericarditis d. Pericardial tamponade

Constrictive pericarditis

Major risk factors for coronary artery atherosclerosis? Question 21Select one: a. 1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol b. 1 Hypotension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol c. 1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Decreased blood cholesterol d. 1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes insipidus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol

1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol

Most common condition responsible for cardiac failure? Question 22Select one: a. Aortic stenosis b. Myocarditis c. Endocarditis d. Ischemic heart disease

Ischemic heart disease

The pathoanatomic basis for paradoxical embolism? Question 23Select one: a. Down to up shunt b. Left to right shunt c. Up to down shunt d. Right to left shunt

Right to left shunt

Causative process usually preceding acute myocardial infarction? Question 24Select one: a. Coronary artery inflammation b. Coronary artery dilatation c. Coronary artery thrombosis d. Coronary artery malformation

Coronary artery thrombosis

Most common cardiac complication of intravenous drug abuse? Question 25Select one: a. Acute viral endocarditis b. Acute bacterial endocarditis c. Acute fungal endocarditis d. Liebman-Sacks endocarditis

Acute bacterial endocarditis

Organism that causes Chagas disease? Question 26Select one: a. Bartonella hensellae b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Trypanosoma cruzi

Most common early complication of acute myocardial infarction? Question 27Select one: a. Cardiac arrhythmias b. Mural thrombosis c. Cardiac disruption d. Pericardial tamponade

Cardiac arrhythmias

Type of Streptococcus that causes rheumatic fever? Question 28Select one: a. Streptococcus pyogenes (or group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus) b. Enterococcus fecalis (or group D Streptococcus) c. Streptococcus agalactiae (or group B Streptococcus) d. Streptococcus bovis (or group D Streptococcus)

Streptococcus pyogenes (or group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus)

Sudden event in the subacute phase of myocardial infarct leading to hemopericardium? Question 29Select one: a. Myocarditis b. Pericarditis c. Right ventricular rupture d. Left ventricular rupture

Left ventricular rupture

Area of ischemic cardiac muscle necrosis? Question 30Select one: a. Ischemic heart disease b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocardial infarct d. Myocarditis

Myocardial infarct

Congenital anomaly wherein the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle? Question 31Select one: a. Transposition of auricules b. Transposition of the great arteries c. Transposition of the chambers d. Situs inversus

Transposition of the great arteries

Condition wherein the mitral valve exhibits accumulation of myxomatous connective tissue? Question 32Select one: a. Mitral valve agenesia b. Mitral valve stenosis c. Mitral valve prolapse d. Mitral valve fusion

Mitral valve prolapse

Myocardial infarct that affects the inner layers of the left ventricle? Question 33Select one: a. Subendocardial myocardial infarct b. Subepicardial myocardial infarct c. Intramural myocardial infarct d. Transmural myocardial infarct

Subendocardial myocardial infarct

Most common finding in the coronary arteries in cases of sudden cardiac death? Question 34Select one: a. Coronary dissection b. Coronary inflammation c. Coronary aneurysm d. Coronary atherosclerosis

Coronary atherosclerosis

Most common infectious complication of chronic rheumatic heart disease? Question 35Select one: a. Pseudomembranous colitis b. Purulent pericarditis c. Bacterial endocarditis d. Bacterial pneumonia

Bacterial endocarditis

Most common cardiac lesion of systemic lupus erythematous? Question 36Select one: a. Purulent pericarditis b. Aortic stenosis c. Fibrinous pericarditis d. Rheumatic fever

Fibrinous pericarditis

Most common form of congenital aortic stenosis? Question 37Select one: a. Quadrospid aortic valve b. Total valvular agenesia c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Soliter aortic valve

Bicuspid aortic valve

Chemotherapeutic agent that most commonly causes dilated cardiomyopathy? Question 38Select one: a. 5-fluorouracil b. Doxorubicin c. Metothrexat d. Dexamethasone

Doxorubicin

Most common primary tumor of the heart? Question 39Select one: a. Cardiac carcinoma b. Cardiac leiomyoma c. Cardiac myxoma d. Cardiac sarcoma

Cardiac myxoma

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm? Question 40Select one: a. Prinzmetal variant angina b. Prinzhorn variant angina c. Heavymetal variant angina d. Prinzflex variant angina

Prinzmetal variant angina

Common anatomic change of the heart due to chronic arterial hypertension? Question 41Select one: a. Left ventricular hypotrophy b. Left ventricular hyperplasia c. Left ventricular hypertrophy d. Left ventricular aneurysm

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Most common atrial septal defect type? Question 42Select one: a. Ostium secundum type b. Ostium tercium type c. Ostium primum type d. There are no types

Ostium secundum type

Anatomical defect associated with truncus arteriosus? Question 43Select one: a. Ventricular septal defect b. Atrial septal defect c. Mitral prolapse d. Coarctation of the aorta

Ventricular septal defect

Persistent embryonic structure that may cause a left to right shunt in premature infants? Question 44Select one: a. Patent ductus arteriosus b. Aortic stenosis c. Coarctation of the aorta d. Aortic transposition

Patent ductus arteriosus

Multisystemic inflammatory/immune disease occuring after a streptococcal infection involving the heart, joints and central nervous sytem? Question 45Select one: a. Three day fever b. Valley fever c. Remittent fever d. Rheumatic fever

Rheumatic fever

Rightward orientation of the base-apex axis of the heart? Question 46Select one: a. Anterocardia b. Sinistrocardia c. Situs inversus d. Dextrocardia

Dextrocardia

Heart valve most commonly affected in chronic rheumatic cardiac disease? Question 47Select one: a. Aortic valve b. Tricuspidal valve c. Mitral valve d. Pulmonary valve

Mitral valve

Characteristic granulomatous lesion of rheumatic myocarditis? Question 48Select one: a. Aschoff body b. Asteroid body c. Pyogenic granuloma d. Caseous necrosis

Aschoff body

Common form of restrictive cardiomyopathy in equatorial Africa? Question 49Select one: a. Subendocardial infarction b. Endomyocardial fibrosis c. Transmural infartion d. Amyloidosis

Endomyocardial fibrosis

Congenital anomaly that results in obligate right-to-left shunt through a patent foramen ovale? Question 50Select one: a. Bicuspidal atresia b. Aortic aneurysm c. Tricuspid atresia d. Pulmonary stenosis

Tricuspid atresia

Most common gross morphologic feature of the heart in chronic heart failure? Question 51Select one: a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Aneurysm formation c. Ventricular wall thinning d. Ventricular hypertrophy

Ventricular hypertrophy

Chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia? Question 52Select one: a. Coronary angina b. Angina myocardii c. Myocardial infarction d. Angina pectoris

Angina pectoris

Vacuolization of chronically injured cardiac myocytes? Question 53Select one: a. Myocytolysis b. Rhabdomyolysis c. Fat necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis

Myocytolysis

Local constriction of the aorta that almost always occurs immediately below the origin of the left subclavian artery at the site of the ductus arteriosus? Question 54Select one: a. Aortic dissection b. Aortic transposition c. Coarctation of the aorta d. Aortic stenosis

Coarctation of the aorta

Most common causes of chronic cor pulmonale? Question 55Select one: a. 1 Left heart failure 2 Mitral insufficiency b. 1 Saddle embolism 2 Acute myocardial infarction c. 1 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 2 Pulmonary fibrosis d. 1 Left heart failure 2 Mitral prolapse

1 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 2 Pulmonary fibrosis

Transudate in the lungs due to left-sided ventricular failure? Question 56Select one: a. Pulmonary exudate b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Pulmonary emphysema d. Pulmonary edema

Pulmonary edema

Most common congenital heart failure? Question 57Select one: a. Ventricular septal defect b. Atrio-ventricular septal defect c. Atrial septal defect d. Aortic transposition

Ventricular septal defect

Sudden event following myocardial infarct that leads to acute mitral insufficiency? Question 58Select one: a. Rupture of the coronary arteries b. Rupture of the left ventricule c. Rupture of tricuspidal valve d. Rupture of papillary muscle

Rupture of papillary muscle

Cardiomyopathy in which there is limited diastolic filling, while the contractility remains normal? Question 59Select one: a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Obstructive cardiomyopathy

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Most common cause of hypersensitivity myocarditis? Question 60Select one: a. Drugs b. Bacterias c. Pollens d. Viruses

Drugs

Coronary artery that supplies the posterior wall of the left ventricle? Question 61Select one: a. Left coronary artery b. Right coronary artery c. Anterior descending coronary artery d. Left circumflex coronary artery

Right coronary artery

Irregular transverse eosinophilic bands in necrotic myocytes? Question 62Select one: a. Contraction band necrosis b. Extraction band necrosis c. Infarction band necrosis d. Insertion band necrosis

Contraction band necrosis

Cardiomyopathy that features myofiber disarray? Question 63Select one: a. Hypoplastic cardiomyopathy b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy d. Hypotrophic cardiomyopathy

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Repeating unit of contractile elements within myocytes? Question 64Select one: a. Dimere b. Sarcomere c. Heterotrimer d. Rhabdomere

Sarcomere

Bulging and thinning of the left ventricular wall as a late complication of myocardial infarction? Question 65Select one: a. Right ventricular aneurysm b. Left ventricular aneurysm c. Dressler syndrome d. Pericardial tamponade

Left ventricular aneurysm

Embryonic layer that forms vascular smooth muscle originates from? Question 1Select one: a. Mesothel b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Endothel

Mesoderm

Cellular layer of blood vessels forming a barrier for macromolecules? Question 2Select one: a. Adventitia b. Epithelium c. Endothelium d. Muscular layer

Endothelium

Common name for factor VIIIa? Question 3Select one: a. Von Willebrand factor b. Raynaud factor c. Barrett factor d. Paget factor

Von Willebrand factor

Endothel derived enzyme catalyzing the formation of the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II? Question 4Select one: a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme

Angiotensin-converting enzyme

The three layers of elastic arteries? Question 5Select one: a. 1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia b. 1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica intermedia 3 Tunica externa c. 1 Tunica interna 2 Tunica media Tunica externa d. 1 Tunica interna 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia

1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia

Anatomical malformation resulting from the local breakdown of the tunica media, leading to arterial dilatation? Question 6Select one: a. Aneurysm b. Dissection c. Diverticule d. Bursa

Aneurysm

Vasculature that provides nutrients to the layers of vascular smooth muscle? Question 7Select one: a. Vasa arteriarum b. Vasa recta c. Vasa vasorum d. Vasa nervorum

Vasa vasorum

Type of arteries that function as resistance vessels? Question 8Select one: a. Arteriole b. Capillary c. Veins d. Small muscular arteries

Small muscular arteries

Terminal elements of the arterial system? Question 9Select one: a. Arterioles b. Veins c. Aorta d. Capillary

Arterioles

Modified supporting smooth muscle cells that surround capillaries? Question 10Select one: a. Mesothel b. Epithelium c. Pericyte d. Endothelium

Pericyte

Cessation of hemorrhage? Question 11Select one: a. Hemostasis b. Hematoma c. Hemorrhage d. Hemorrhoids

Hemostasis

Aggregate of coagulated blood that contains platelets, fibrin, leukocytes and red blood cells? Question 12Select one: a. Hematoma b. Blood clot c. Emboli d. Thrombus

Thrombus

Enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin? Question 13Select one: a. Thrombin b. Plasmin c. Factor VIII d. Plasminogen

Thrombin

Thrombolytic enzyme converting fibrin to fibrin degradation products? Question 14Select one: a. Fibrin b. Thrombin c. Fibrinogen d. Plasmin

Plasmin

Accumulation of lipid, inflammatory cells and smooth muscle cells within the intima of large and medium sized elastic and muscular arteries? Question 15Select one: a. Arteriolosclerosis b. Arteriosclerosis c. Atherosclerosis d. Cholesterolosis

Atherosclerosis

Type of lipoprotein in plasma associated with accelerated atherosclerosis? Question 16Select one: a. Low-density lipoprotein or LDL b. Medium-density lipoprotein or MDL c. High-density lipoprotein or HDL d. Lipofuscin

Low-density lipoprotein or LDL

Early and focal accumulation of lipid in the intima at young age? Question 17Select one: a. Unstable plaque b. Fatty droplets c. Stable plaque d. Fatty streaks

Fatty streaks

Coverage of the fatty/necrotic core in advanced atherosclerotic plaques? Question 18Select one: a. Lipid cap b. Fatty streak c. Fibrinoid cap d. Fibrous cap

Fibrous cap

Type of atherosclerotic plaque featured by ulceration, hemorrhage, calcification and aneurysm formation? Question 19Select one: a. Fatty droplet b. Fatty streak c. Stable plaque d. Complicated plaque

Complicated plaque

Complications of atherosclerosis? Question 20Select one: a. 1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Emphysema b. 1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism c. 1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Diabetes 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism d. 1 Neoplasia 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism

1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism

Type of emboli featured with needle-shaped empty spaces in the histological section? Question 21Select one: a. Red thrombus embolus b. Catheter embolus c. Cholesterol crystal embolus d. Amniotic fluid embolus

Cholesterol crystal embolus

Major hemodynamic risk factor for atherosclerosis? Question 22Select one: a. Hypertension b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Hypotension d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance

Hypertension

Serum lipid level closely associated with coronary atherosclerosis? Question 23Select one: a. Serum lipoprotein level b. Serum cholesterol level c. Serum lipofuscin level d. Serum high-density lipoprotein level

Serum cholesterol level

Most common metabolic disorder predisposing atherosclerosis? Question 24Select one: a. Diabetes b. Hyperthyreosis c. Hypothyreosis d. BMI˂25

Diabetes

Endocrine regulatory system closely related to the development of hypertension? Question 25Select one: a. Hypothalamus-gonad sytem b. Thyrotropin-TSH system c. Renin-angiotensin system d. Corticotropin-cortisol system

Renin-angiotensin system

Factor released by the heart decreasing the peripheral resistance? Question 26Select one: a. Renin b. Atrial natriuretic factor c. Angiotensin d. Plasmin

Atrial natriuretic factor

Morphological change of arterioles in chronic hypertension? Question 27Select one: a. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis b. Mucoid intimal hyperplasia c. Fibrinoid necrosis d. Intimal fibroelastosis

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis

Renal parenchymal damage due to arteriosclerosis? Question 28Select one: a. Renal agenesia b. Diffuse cortical necrosis c. Renal infarction d. Benign nephrosclerosis

Benign nephrosclerosis

Type of necrosis of small muscular arteries caused by malignant hypertension? Question 29Select one: a. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis b. Fibrinoid necrosis c. Dissection necrosis d. Intimal fibroelastosis

Fibrinoid necrosis

Degenerative calcification of the media of large and medium-sized muscular arteries that occurs principally in older persons? Question 30Select one: a. Arteriolosclerosis b. Nephrosclerosis c. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis d. Atherosclerosis

Mönckeberg medial sclerosis

Intermittent bilateral episodes of ischemia of the distal fingers or toes precipitated by cold? Question 31Select one: a. Meniére disease b. Raynaud phenomenon c. Gardner syndrome d. Hageman syndrome

Raynaud phenomenon

Acute necrotizing vasculitis that affects medium-sized and smaller muscular arteries? Question 32Select one: a. Wegener granulomatosis b. Polyarteritis nodosa c. Microscopic polyangitis d. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis

Polyarteritis nodosa

Serum antibodies associated with microscopic polyarteritis? Question 33Select one: a. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) b. Anti-dsDNA antibody c. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) d. Anti-histone antibody

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)

Granulomatous inflammation of the temporal arteries? Question 34Select one: a. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis b. Wegener granulomatosis c. Microscopic polyangitis d. Giant cell arteritis

Giant cell arteritis

Necrotizing vasculitis characterized by granulomatous lesions of the sinuses, lungs and renal glomeruli? Question 35Select one: a. Microscopic polyangitis b. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis c. Giant cell arteritis d. Wegener granulomatosis

Wegener granulomatosis

Inflammatory and occlusive disease affecting the aorta and its major branches usually occurring in women? Question 36Select one: a. Takayasu arteritis b. Giant cell arteritis c. Wegener granulomatosis d. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis

Takayasu arteritis

Necrotizing vasculitis of infancy and early childhood characterized by high fever, rash, oral lesions and lymphadenitis? Question 37Select one: a. Kawasaki disease b. Wegener granulomatosis c. Giant cell arteritis d. Takayasu arteritis

Kawasaki disease

Occlusive inflammatory disease of medium and small arteries in the distal arms and legs associated with cigarette smoking? Question 38Select one: a. Thrombangitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease) b. Wegener granulomatosis c. Giant cell arteritis d. Takayasu arteritis

Thrombangitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease)

Systemic vasculitis that features oral aphthous ulcers and genital ulceration? Question 39Select one: a. Behçet disease b. Hippel-Lindau disease c. Thrombangitis obliterans or Buerger’s disease d. Sarcoidosis

Behçet disease

Obligate intracellular microorganisms producing a special form of vasculitis? Question 40Select one: a. Rickettsiae b. Mycobacterium c. Streptoccus d. Staphylococcus

Rickettsiae

Localized dilations of arteries caused by congenital or acquired weakness of the vessel media? Question 41Select one: a. Diverticule b. Cavity c. Bursa d. Aneurysm

Aneurysm

Type of aneurysm that features with longitudinal axial dilation of the vessel lumen? Question 42Select one: a. Berry aneurysm b. Saccular aneurysm c. Fusiform aneurysm d. Cavitary aneurysm

Fusiform aneurysm

Aneurysms that feature with bubble-like outpouching of the arterial wall? Question 43Select one: a. Cavitary aneurysm b. Bubble aneurysm c. Saccular aneurysm d. Fusiform aneurysm

Saccular aneurysm

Type of aneurysm formed by the separation of vascular wall (media) layers due to intimal rupture and hemorrhage? Question 44Select one: a. Saccular aneurysm b. Berry aneurysm c. Dissecting aneurysm d. Fusiform aneurysm

Dissecting aneurysm

Type of aneurysm featured by a direct communication between an artery and a vein? Question 45Select one: a. Communicating aneurysm b. Arteriovenous malformation c. Arterial-vein d. Arteriovenous aneurysm

Arteriovenous aneurysm

Most frequent site of aneurysm formation in the elderly? Question 46Select one: a. Coronary artery b. Femoral artery c. Carotid artery d. Abdominal aorta

Abdominal aorta

Common pathologic finding in the media of arteries with dissecting aneurysm? Question 47Select one: a. Cystic medial fibrosis b. Cystic medial necrosis c. Intimal fibroelastosis d. Mucoid intimal hyperplasia

Cystic medial necrosis

Common term for small aneurysms placed in the circle of Willis? Question 48Select one: a. Barrett aneurysm b. Berry aneurysm c. Budd-Chiari aneurysm d. Bowen aneurysm

Berry aneurysm

Cause of aortic aneurysm due to the inflammation of vasa vasorum? Question 49Select one: a. Wegener’s granulomatosis b. Syphilis c. Takayasu arteritis d. Kawasaki disease

Syphilis

Name of an enlarged and tortuous veins often occurring superficially in the legs? Question 50Select one: a. Phlebothrombosis b. Thrombophlebitis c. Varicose vein d. Varicocele

Varicose vein

Cutaneous complications due to severe varicosities of the leg? Question 51Select one: a. Café au lait spots b. Vitiligo c. Cellulitis d. Stasis dermatitis

Stasis dermatitis

Varicose veins of the anal region? Question 52Select one: a. Caput medusae b. Hemorrhoids c. Spider vein d. Varicocele

Hemorrhoids

Most common site of varicosity due to portal hypertension? Question 53Select one: a. Lower extremities deep vein b. Lower extremities superficial vein c. Distal half of the esophagus d. Testicular veins

Distal half of the esophagus

Venous thrombosis that occurs in the absence of infection/inflammation? Question 54Select one: a. Vasculitis b. Thrombophlebitis c. Phlebothrombosis d. Varicositas

Phlebothrombosis

Inflammation and secondary thrombosis of veins? Question 55Select one: a. Varicositas b. Varicocele c. Phlebothrombosis d. Thrombophlebitis

Thrombophlebitis

Progressive dilation of lymphatic vesssels? Question 56Select one: a. Aneurysm b. Varicositas c. Lymphangiectasia d. Edema

Lymphangiectasia

Tumorous vascular malformation predominantly consisting of enlarged vascular channels interspersed with small capillary-type vessels? Question 57Select one: a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Vascular recanalization c. Berry aneurysm d. Cavernous hemangioma

Cavernous hemangioma

Cell rich endothelial vascular tumor with intermediate behavior between benign hemangioma and malignant angiosarcoma? Question 58Select one: a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Capillary hemangioma c. Hemangioendothelioma d. Hemangiopericytoma

Hemangioendothelioma

Chemical used in the plastic industry that is associated with angiosarcoma development? Question 59Select one: a. Fenitoin b. Ammonia c. Acetone d. Vinyl chloride

Vinyl chloride

Human herpesvirus associated with Kaposi sarcoma? Question 60Select one: a. Herpesvirus 9 b. Herpesvirus 7 c. Herpesvirus 6 d. Herpesvirus 8

Herpesvirus 8

Rare malignant tumor associated with lymphedema of the arm after radical mastectomy? Question 61Select one: a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Lymphangiosarcoma d. Liposarcoma

Lymphangiosarcoma

Protein product of the ob gene that is mainly expressed by adipocytes: Question 1Select one: a. Somatostatin b. Insulin c. Leptin d. Glucagon

Leptin

Effect of leptin on food intake: Question 2Select one: a. Decreased food intake b. No effect c. Increased food intake d. Slow increase on food intake

Decreased food intake

Biliary complication of obesity: Question 3Select one: a. Acute cholecystitis b. Chronic cholecystitis c. Gallstones d. Decreased bile production

Gallstones

Cerebral complication of obesity: Question 4Select one: a. Decreased CSF b. Dementia c. Cerebral atherosclerosis and stroke d. Dilatation of the ventricular

Cerebral atherosclerosis and stroke

Joint complication of obesity: Question 5Select one: a. Dislocation b. Fracture c. Osteoarthrosis d. Acute arthritis

Osteoarthrosis

Major endocrine complication in obesity: Question 6Select one: a. Hypothyreodism b. Diabetes and dyslipidemia c. Hyperthyreodism d. Infertility

Diabetes and dyslipidemia

Cardiovascular complication in obesity: Question 7Select one: a. Right to left shunt b. Hypertension, coronary heart disease, congestive heart failure and thromboembolism c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Myocarditis, endocarditis

The correct answer is: Hypertension, coronary heart disease, congestive heart failure and thromboembolism

Hepatic complication of obesity: Question 8Select one: a. No bile production b. Cirrhosis c. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis and fatty liver d. Budd-Chiari syndrome

Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis and fatty liver

Fundamental defect in the pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes: Question 9Select one: a. Increased glucagon level b. Absolute lack of insulin c. Antibodies against islet cell or insulin d. Peripheral insulin resistance

Peripheral insulin resistance

Targets for autoimmune destruction in type 1 diabetes mellitus: Question 10Select one: a. Hepatocyte b. Pancreatic beta cell in the islet of Langerhans c. Pancreatic alpha cell in the islet of Langerhans d. Insulin receptors

The correct answer is: Pancreatic beta cell in the islet of Langerhans

Product of fat oxidation in type 1 diabetes mellitus: Question 11Select one: a. Schumann bodies b. Kation bodies c. Anion bodies d. Ketone bodies

Ketone bodies

Substance deposited in islets of Langerhans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus: Question 12Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Antibodies c. Amyloid d. Collagene

Amyloid

Major arterial complication of diabetes mellitus: Question 13Select one: a. Vasculitis b. Atherosclerosis c. Endarteritis d. Deep vein thrombosis

Atherosclerosis

Glycosylated hemoglobin in red blood cells in patients with diabetes mellitus: Question 14Select one: a. Spectrin b. Hemoglobin B c. Hemoglobin A1c d. Insulin receptor

Hemoglobin A1c

Effect of diabetes mellitus on the renal glomerulus: Question 15Select one: a. Podocyte foot process fusion b. Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease c. Atherosclerosis d. Sugar deposition in the mesangial matrix

Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease

Effect of diabetes mellitus on the lens: Question 16Select one: a. Cataract formation b. Capsule thickening c. Dislocation d. Rupture

Cataract formation

Effect of diabetes mellitus on the retina: Question 17Select one: a. Rupture b. Thinning c. Microaneurysms, hemorrhage and exudates leading to proliferative retinopathy d. Retinoblastoma

Microaneurysms, hemorrhage and exudates leading to proliferative retinopathy

Common effect of diabetes mellitus on the peripheral nervous system: Question 18Select one: a. Motoric nerve dysfunction b. Paralysis c. Lumbago d. Peripheral sensory impairment and autonomic nerve dysfunction

Peripheral sensory impairment and autonomic nerve dysfunction

Effect of poor control of gestational diabetes on fetal growth: Question 19Select one: a. Increased risk for perinatal infection b. Decreased fetal and neonatal size c. Immature central nervous system d. Increased fetal and neonatal size

Increased fetal and neonatal size

Developmental anlage (progenitor) of the fallopian tubes, the uterus and the vaginal wall: Question 1Select one: a. Wilms ducts b. Müllerian ducts c. Wolffian ducts d. Uterus primus

Müllerian ducts

Developmental anlage of the vas deferens, epididymis and seminal vesicle: Question 2Select one: a. Müllerian ducts b. Ewing ducts c. Wolffian ducts d. Wilms ducts

Wolffian ducts

Highly contagious skin lesion seen in secondary syphilis: Question 3Select one: a. Condyloma lata b. Condyloma acuminatum c. Ulcus molle d. Condyloma planum

Condyloma lata

Infectious agent of condyloma acuminatum: Question 4Select one: a. Herpes simplex 1 virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Human papilloma virus d. Herpes simplex 2 virus

Human papilloma virus

Cytopathic epithelial cell morphology appearing with a perinuclear halo and wrinkled nucleus typical for cervical condyloma: Question 5Select one: a. Papillocyte b. Koilocyte c. Shistiocyte d. Keratinocyte

Koilocyte

Pear-shaped, flagellated protozoon that commonly causes vaginitis: Question 6Select one: a. Ureaplasma urealyticum b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Clamydia trachomatis

Trichomonas vaginalis

Fallopian tube distended with pus: Question 7Select one: a. Pyotube b. Pyosalpinx c. Pussalpinx d. Fallopitis gangrenosa

Pyosalpinx

Most common etiologic agent of fungal vaginitis: Question 8Select one: a. Candida albicans b. Mycobacterium c. Aspergillosis d. Blastomycosis

Candida albicans

Causative infectious agent of toxic shock syndrome: Question 9Select one: a. Clamydia trachomatis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Escherichia coli d. Mycobacterium

Staphylococcus aureus

Glands posterolateral to the vaginal introitus that may become cystic and infected: Question 10Select one: a. Bartholin glands b. External vaginal glands c. Sweat glands d. Internal vaginal glands

Bartholin glands

Benign vaginal tumor of apocrine sweat gland origin: Question 11Select one: a. Condyloma b. Hidradenoma c. Folliculoma d. Paget-disease

Hidradenoma

Histologic precursor of invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva: Question 12Select one: a. Lichen sclerosus vulvae b. Vulvoma c. Vulvar carcinoma in situ or VCIS d. Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia or VIN

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia or VIN

Most common site for lymph node metastases from vulvar squamous cell carcinoma: Question 13Select one: a. Axillary lymph nodes b. Inguinal lymph nodes c. Paraaortic lymph nodes d. Parailiacal lymph nodes

Inguinal lymph nodes

Pruritic vulvar disease characterized by abundant pale malignant cells within the epithelium: Question 14Select one: a. Contact dermatitis b. Lichen atrophicus c. Extramammary Paget’s disease d. Lichen sclerosus

Extramammary Paget’s disease

Thinning and atrophy of the vaginal epithelium in postmenopausal women: Question 15Select one: a. Condyloma vaginalis b. Atrophic vaginitis c. Contact vaginitis d. Lichen simplex chronicus

Atrophic vaginitis

Most common type of vaginal cancer: Question 16Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Clear cell carcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Vaginal tumor in girls under 4 years of age that appears as a confluent polypoid mass resembling a bunch of grapes: Question 17Select one: a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Clear cell carcinoma d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma or sarcoma botryoides

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma or sarcoma botryoides

The squamocolumnar junction of the cervical orifice: Question 18Select one: a. Demarcation zone b. Border zone c. Transformational zone d. Sphincter zone

Transformational zone

Most common benign cervical growth: Question 19Select one: a. Endocervical polyp b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Leiomyoma d. Condyloma

Endocervical polyp

Histologic precursor of squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix: Question 20Select one: a. Condyloma b. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or CIN c. Cervical polyp d. Bowen disease

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or CIN

Human papilloma virus serotypes most often associated with cervical carcinoma: Question 21Select one: a. Types 11, 36 b. Types 16, 18 c. Types 9, 23 d. Types 5, 6

Types 16, 18

Usual location for CIN: Question 22Select one: a. Endometrium b. Cervix-corpus junction c. Upper part of the vagina d. The transformation zone

The transformation zone

Grade of CIN corresponding to carcinoma in situ: Question 23Select one: a. CIN-4 b. CIN-1 c. CIN-3 d. CIN-2

CIN-3

Common renal complication of cervical squamous cell carcinoma: Question 24Select one: a. Hydronephrosis secondary to ureteral compression b. Papillary necrosis c. Renal infarction d. Nephrolithiasis

Hydronephrosis secondary to ureteral compression

Most common type of endocervical carcinoma: Question 25Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Squamous carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Physiologic endometrial phase after ovulation: Question 26Select one: a. Secretory phase b. Proliferative phase c. Menstruation d. Implantation

Secretory phase

Physiologic endometrial phase before ovulation: Question 27Select one: a. Proliferative phase b. Menstruation c. Implantation d. Secretory phase

Proliferative phase

Inflammatory disorder of endometrium characterized microscopically by plasma cell infiltration: Question 28Select one: a. Chronic endometritis b. Purulent endometritis c. Gangrenous endometritis d. Acute endometritis

Chronic endometritis

Lack of hormonal effect resulting in luteal phase defect: Question 29Select one: a. Estrogen b. LH c. Progesterone d. FSH

Progesterone

Most common benign stromal neoplasm in the endometrial cavity: Question 30Select one: a. Endometrial polyp b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Leiomyoma d. Endocervical adenoma

Endometrial polyp

Physiologic cause of benign endometrial hyperplasia: Question 31Select one: a. Decreased progesterone b. Excess of estrogenic stimulation c. Excess progesterone stimulation d. Decreased estrogen level

Excess of estrogenic stimulation

Risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma: Question 32Select one: a. Obesity, diabetes b. Multiparity c. Nulliparity d. Early menarche and late menopause

Multiparity

Most common type of endometrial carcinoma: Question 33Select one: a. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma b. Papillary adenocarcinoma c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Clear cell carcinoma

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

Aggressive nonendometrioid endometrial carcinoma that resembles an ovarian carcinoma: Question 34Select one: a. Transitional cell carcinoma b. Squamous carcinoma c. Serous adenocarcinoma d. Clear cell carcinoma

Serous adenocarcinoma

Highly malignant endometrial tumor that shows both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation: Question 35Select one: a. Mesenchymal carcinoma b. Carcinosarcoma c. Stromal sarcoma d. Carcinoid

Carcinosarcoma

Malignant tumor of endometrial stroma: Question 36Select one: a. GIST b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Leiomyosarcoma

Endometrial stromal sarcoma

Most common tumor of the uterine myometrium: Question 37Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Fibroma d. Leiomyoma

Leiomyoma

Malignant smooth muscle tumor of the uterus: Question 38Select one: a. Myofibrosarcoma b. Botryoid sarcoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Leiomyosarcoma

Leiomyosarcoma

Implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the endometrium: Question 39Select one: a. Abortion b. Adenomyosis c. Endometriosis d. Ectopic pregnancy

Ectopic pregnancy

Most common site of ectopic pregnancy: Question 40Select one: a. Wall of the sigmoid colon b. Ovary c. Abdominal cavity d. Fallopian tube

Fallopian tube

Life-threatening complication of ectopic pregnancy: Question 41Select one: a. Peritoneal adhesions b. Pyosalpinx c. Tubal rupture d. Septicemia

Tubal rupture

Common complication of corpus luteum cyst: Question 42Select one: a. Bleeding b. PCO c. Tubal sclerosis d. Purulent peritonitis

Bleeding

Syndrome characterized by persistent anovulation and numerous subcapsular ovarian cysts: Question 43Select one: a. Endometriosis ovarii b. Adenomyosis cysticum ovarii c. Ovarian compression atrophy d. Polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

Polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

Focal luteinization of ovarian stromal cells associated with virilization: Question 44Select one: a. Decreased level of LH b. Stromal hyperthecosis c. Stromal fibrosis d. Stromal hypothecosis

Stromal hyperthecosis

Benign cystic ovarian tumor lined by epithelium that resembles the fallopian tubes: Question 45Select one: a. Fallopioid carcinoma b. Serous cystadenoma c. Mucinous cystadenoma d. Endometrioid carcinoma

Serous cystadenoma

Ovarian tumor showing solid nests of urothelium-like cells encased in a dense stroma: Question 46Select one: a. Brunn tumor b. Urothelioma c. Brenner tumor d. Urothelosarcoma

Brenner tumor

Common malignant ovarian epithelial tumor that often shows psammoma bodies: Question 47Select one: a. Brenner tumor b. Endometrioid carcinoma c. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d. Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Serum antigen elevatedin about half of the malignant ovarian tumors of epithelial origin: Question 48Select one: a. CA-125 b. CA19-9 c. AFP d. HCG

CA-125

Malignant ovarian tumor often associated with endometrial carcinoma: Question 49Select one: a. Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma b. Krukenberg tumor c. Dysgerminoma d. Ovarian mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma

Primary ovarian tumor composed of neoplastic germ cells resembling oogonia of the fetal ovary: Question 50Select one: a. Dysgerminoma b. Embrional carcinoma c. Yolk-sac tumor d. Choriocarcinoma

Dysgerminoma

Malignant ovarian tumor that resembles the composition of the primitive yolk sac: Question 51Select one: a. Yolk sac tumor b. Dysgerminoma c. Mola hydatiosa d. Choriocarcinoma

Yolk sac tumor

Malignant ovarian tumor with placental villus differentiation (cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast): Question 52Select one: a. Choriocarcinoma b. Yolk sac tumor c. Embrional carcinoma d. Teratoma

Choriocarcinoma

Ovarian germ cell tumor that differentiates toward somatic structures of different germ layers: Question 53Select one: a. Krukenberg tumor b. Yolk sac tumor c. Teratoma d. Brenner tumor

Teratoma

Ovarian teratoma composed predominantly of thyroid-like tissue: Question 54Select one: a. Thyroidoma ovarii b. Struma ovarii c. Ovarium folliculare colloides d. Thyreoovarial syndrome

Struma ovarii

Ovarian teratoma consisted of embryonal tissue: Question 55Select one: a. Adult teratoma b. Mature teratoma c. Hamartoma d. Immature teratoma

Immature teratoma

Ovarian tumor that secretes alpha-fetoprotein: Question 56Select one: a. Choriocarcinoma b. Embryonal teratoma c. Yolk sac tumor d. Dysgerminoma

Yolk sac tumor

Ovarian tumor that secretes human chorionic gonadotropin: Question 57Select one: a. Seminoma b. Teratoma c. Yolk sac tumor d. Choriocarcinoma

Choriocarcinoma

Most common ovarian stromal tumor: Question 58Select one: a. Thecoma b. Lipoma c. Fibroma d. Leiomyoma

Fibroma

Functional ovarian tumor in postmenopausal women that secretes estrogen and features lipid-laden theca cells: Question 59Select one: a. Fibroma b. Lipoma c. Granulosa cell tumor d. Thecoma

Thecoma

Non-epithelial functional tumor of ovary that secretes estrogen and inhibin: Question 60Select one: a. Thecoma b. Lipoma c. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor d. Granulosa cell tumor

Granulosa cell tumor

Mesenchymal ovarian tumor of low malignant potential that resembles the embryonal testis and secretes androgens: Question 61Select one: a. Dysgerminoma b. Teratoma c. Seminoma d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

Metastatic tumor within the ovary typically consisted of mucin-filled signet ring cells: Question 62Select one: a. Brenner tumor b. Mola hydatiosa c. Krukenberg tumor d. Partial mola

Krukenberg tumor

Primary site of origin of most Krukenberg tumors: Question 63Select one or more: a. Spleen b. Stomach c. Lung d. Breast

Stomach, Breast

Benign propagation of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus: Question 64Select one: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Endometritis externa c. Adenomyosis d. Endometriosis

Endometriosis

Primary peritoneal tumor that resembles ovarian serous carcinoma: Question 65Select one: a. Malignant mesothelioma b. Malignus peritoneoma c. Peritoneal carcinosis d. Peritoneal malignoma

Malignant mesothelioma

Accumulation of jellylike mucus in the pelvic or peritoneal cavity associated with mucinous ovarian tumors: Question 66Select one: a. Pseudomyxoma peritonei b. Mucinoma peritonei c. Adenoma mucinosum peritonei d. Myxoma peritonei

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

Multinucleated trophoblastic cell that secretes human chorionic gonadotropin and human placental lactogen: Question 67Select one: a. Yolk sacblast b. Teratoblast c. Syncytiotrophoblast d. Cytothrophoblast

Syncytiotrophoblast

Acute inflammation of the amnion and chorion and the extraplacental membranes: Question 68Select one: a. Acute eclampsia b. Acute chorioamnionitis c. Uteritis acuta d. Acute placentitis

Acute chorioamnionitis

Syndrome in pregnancy featuring hypertension, proteinuria, edema and convulsions: Question 69Select one: a. Eclampsia b. Endometriosis c. Chorioamnionitis d. Icterus

Eclampsia

Type of hydatidiform mole that penetrates the underlying myometrium: Question 70Select one: a. Partial mole b. Choriocarcinoma c. Complete mole d. Invasive hydatidiform mole

Invasive hydatidiform mole

Tumor composed predominantly of intermediate trophoblastic cells: Question 71Select one: a. Placental site trophoblast tumor b. Choriocarcinoma c. Trophoblastoma d. Intermediate trophoblastoma

Placental site trophoblast tumor

Most common esophageal anomaly: Question 1Select one: a. Tracheoesophageal fistula b. Achalasia c. Zenker's diverticulum d. Esophagitis

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Most common complication of tracheoesophageal fistula: Question 2Select one: a. Regurgitation b. Aspiration pneumonia c. Interstitial pneumonia d. Mediastinitis

Aspiration pneumonia

Esophageal diverticulum that occurs in the proxymal (subpharyngeal) section of the oesophagus: Question 3Select one: a. Meckel's diverticulum b. Johnson's diverticulum c. Duke's diverticulum d. Zenker's diverticulum

Zenker's diverticulum

Esophageal diverticulum attached to adjacent mediastinal lymph nodes, usually associated with tuberculous lymphadenitis: Question 4Select one: a. Meckel's diverticulum b. Pulsion diverticulum c. Zenker's diverticulum d. Traction diverticulum

Traction diverticulum

Absence of esophageal peristalsis and relaxation failure of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing: Question 5Select one: a. Traction diverticulum b. Achalasia c. Esophagitis d. Barrett oesophagus

Achalasia

Most common type of esophagitis: Question 6Select one: a. Fungal esophagitis b. Granulomatous esophagitis c. Esophagitis tuberculosa d. Reflux esophagitis

Reflux esophagitis

Most common protozoal cause of achalasia: Question 7Select one: a. Barett disease b. Chagas disease c. Zenker$s disease d. Candidal infection

Chagas disease

Systemic disease that causes fibrosis of the esophageal wall: Question 8Select one: a. Diabetes mellitus b. SLE c. Dermatomyositis d. Scleroderma

Scleroderma

Type of hiatal hernia caused by enlargement of the diaphragmatic hiatus and laxity of the circumferential connective tissue: Question 9Select one: a. Bridging hiatal hernia b. Sliding hiatal hernia c. Pulsion hiatal hernia d. Traction hiatal hernia

Sliding hiatal hernia

Replacement of squamous epithelium in the distal esophagus by columnar epithelium: Question 10Select one: a. Barrett$s esophagus b. Chagas disease c. Achalasia d. Hyperplasia

Barrett$s esophagus

Cause of Barrett$s esophagus: Question 11Select one: a. Fungal infection b. Protozoal infection c. Irradiation d. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux

Chronic gastroesophageal reflux

Malignant neoplasm arising from Barrett$s esophagus: Question 12Select one: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Lymphoma d. Squamous carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Common cause of fungal esophagitis associated with immunosuppression: Question 13Select one: a. Actinomyces b. Candida albicans c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Tripanosoma cruzi

Candida albicans

Dilated vascular channels immediately beneath the esophageal mucosa: Question 14Select one: a. Arterio-venosous malformation b. Teleangiectasia c. Esophageal varices d. Hemorrhoids

Esophageal varices

Feared complication of esophageal varices: Question 15Select one: a. Rupture b. Vasculitis c. Dissection d. Hemorrhage

Hemorrhage

Most common cause of esophageal varices: Question 16Select one: a. Acute hepatitis b. Barett$s oesophagus c. Boerhave syndrome d. Portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis

Portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis

Occurrence of mucosal laceration in the upper stomach and lower esophagus following severe vomiting: Question 17Select one: a. Mallory-Weiss tear b. Peptic ulcer c. Boerhave syndrome d. Gastritis acuta

Mallory-Weiss tear

Most common histologic type of esophageal carcinoma in the United States: Question 18Select one: a. Squamous carcinoma b. MALT lymphoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Liposarcoma

Adenocarcinoma

Second most common histologic type of esophageal carcinoma in the United States: Question 19Select one: a. Fibrosarcoma b. Rhabdomyosarcoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Congenital concentric enlargement of the pyloric sphincter with narrowing of the gastric outlet: Question 20Select one: a. Congenital pyloric atresia b. Congenital pyloric aplasia c. Congenital pyloric hypoplasia d. Congenital pyloric stenosis

Congenital pyloric stenosis

Type of gastritis encountered in severely burned individuals: Question 21Select one: a. Peptic ulcer b. Cushing’s ulcer c. Acute hemorrhagic erosive gastritis (Curling’s ulcer) d. Mallory- Weis syndrome

Acute hemorrhagic erosive gastritis (Curling’s ulcer)

Type of acute erosive gastritis in patients with central nervous system trauma: Question 22Select one: a. Cushing’s ulcer b. Peptic ulcer c. Curling’s ulcer d. Linitis plastica

Cushing’s ulcer

Type of gastritis associated with pernicious anemia: Question 23Select one: a. Hyperplastic gastritis b. Fungal gastritis c. Autoimmune atrophic gastritis d. Acute gastritis

Autoimmune atrophic gastritis

Major circulating antibodies associated with autoimmune atrophic gastritis: Question 24Select one: a. Autoantibodies against pepsin b. Autoantibodies against insulin and beta cells c. Autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor d. Autoantibodies against islet cells

Autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor

Major preneoplastic lesion in atrophic gastritis: Question 25Select one: a. Linitis plastica b. Intestinal metaplasia c. Barett’s oesophagus d. Hyperplastic polyp

Intestinal metaplasia

Most common infectious cause of chronic gastritis: Question 26Select one: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Helicobacter pylori c. E. coli d. Tripanosoma cruzi

Helicobacter pylori

Type of lymphoma associated with Helicobacter pylori caused gastritis: Question 27Select one: a. Marginal zone lymphoma b. DLBCL c. Follicular lymphoma d. Acute myeloid leukaemia

Marginal zone lymphoma

Type of gastritis most commonly seen in association with chronic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use: Question 28Select one: a. Reactive or chemical gastropathy b. Cushing’s ulcer c. Acute gastritis d. Curling’s ulcer

Reactive or chemical gastropathy

Gastric disorder characterized by enlarged rugae and protein loss: Question 29Select one: a. Atrophic gastropathy b. Anaemia perniciosa c. Crohn disease d. Ménétrier’s disease or hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy

Ménétrier’s disease or hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy

Common etiologic requirement for stomach and duodenal peptic ulcers: Question 30Select one: a. Lack of pepsin b. Hyperplasia c. Hyperacidity d. Fungal infection

Hyperacidity

Most common portion of duodenum affected by peptic ulcer disease: Question 31Select one: a. Pars recta b. Ascending duodenum c. Proximal duodenum d. Distal duodenum

Proximal duodenum

Most common infectious agent associated with duodenal ulcers: Question 32Select one: a. Tripanosoma cruzi b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Helicobacter pylori d. Candida

Helicobacter pylori

Multiple peptic ulcer syndrome associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia,type I: Question 33Select one: a. Somatostatinoma b. Insulinoma c. Mallory-Weiss syndrome d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Type of drug most often etiologically associated with gastric ulcer: Question 34Select one: a. Proton-pump inhibitors b. Antihistamine c. Antibiotics d. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Featured acute complications of duodenal ulcers: Question 35Select one: a. Sepsis b. Reflux c. Inflammation d. Hemorrhage or perforation

Hemorrhage or perforation

Most common molecular abnormality associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST): Question 36Select one: a. P53 b. BRCA1 & BRCA2 c. HER2 d. Mutation of c-kit oncogene

Mutation of c-kit oncogene

Most common type of gastric polyp: Question 37Select one: a. Hyperplastic polyp b. Cardial polyp c. Inflammatory polyp d. Hamartomatous polyp

Hyperplastic polyp

Infectious agent associated with gastric carcinogenesis: Question 38Select one: a. Herpes simplex b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Candida d. Helicobacter pylori

Helicobacter pylori

Most common histologic type of gastric carcinoma: Question 39Select one: a. Squamous carcinoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. MALT- lymphoma d. Adenocarcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Infiltrating diffuse adenocarcinoma that involves the entire stomach wall: Question 40Select one: a. Fibroma b. Linitis plastica c. GIST d. Cystadenocarcinoma

Linitis plastica

Supraclavicular lymph node enlargement due to gastric carcinoma metastasis: Question 41Select one: a. Virchow’s nodule b. Celsius nodule c. Barrett nodule d. Zenker nodule

Virchow’s nodule

Gastric carcinoma metastatic to the ovaries: Question 42Select one: a. Verrocay tumor b. Brenner tumor c. Zuckerberg tumor d. Krukenberg tumor

Krukenberg tumor

Low-grade malignancy of endocrine cells within the gastric mucosa: Question 43Select one: a. Carcinoid tumor or gastric neuroendocrine tumor b. GIST c. Leiomyoma d. Adenocarcinoma

Carcinoid tumor or gastric neuroendocrine tumor

Gastric intraluminal mass consisted of undigestible foreign material (food, hair, etc.): Question 44Select one: a. Trezoar b. Bezoar c. Sezoar d. Dezoar

Bezoar

Developmental remain of the vitelline duct: Question 45Select one: a. Zenker’s diverticulum b. Traction diverticulum c. Pulsion diverticulum d. Meckel’s diverticulum

Meckel’s diverticulum

Common cause of bleeding from Meckel’s diverticulum: Question 46Select one: a. Malrotation b. Strangulation c. Ectopic gastric mucosa with peptic ulceration d. Hyperplasia

Ectopic gastric mucosa with peptic ulceration

Genetic disease associated with meconium ileus and neonatal intestinal obstruction: Question 47Select one: a. Marfan syndrome b. Ileitis terminalis c. Down syndrome d. Cystic fibrosis

Cystic fibrosis

Bacterium responsible for typhoid fever: Question 48Select one: a. Salmonella b. E. coli c. Shigella d. Yersinia

Salmonella

Feared gastrointestinal complication of typhoid fever: Question 49Select one: a. Hemorrhoids b. Diarrhea c. Intestinal hemorrhage and perforation d. Exsiccosis

Intestinal hemorrhage and perforation

Gram positive bacterium most commonly associated with food poisoning: Question 50Select one: a. Mycobacterium b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. E. coli

Staphylococcus aureus

Bacterium associated with enterocolitis and acute mesenteric lymphadenitis, often transmitted by pets: Question 51Select one: a. Campylobacter jejuni b. E. coli c. Shigella d. Yersinia enterocolitica

Yersinia enterocolitica

Most common viral causes of gastroenteritis: Question 52Select one: a. Herpes simplex b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Rotavirus and Norwalk virus

Rotavirus and Norwalk virus

Most common causative agent of intestinal tuberculosis: Question 53Select one: a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium leprae c. Actinomyces d. Mycobacterium bovis

Mycobacterium bovis

Most common cause of acute intestinal ischemia: Question 54Select one: a. Vasculitis b. Superior mesenteric artery occlusion c. Crohn disease d. Coeliac trunk occlusion

Superior mesenteric artery occlusion

Most common cause of chronic intestinal ischemia: Question 55Select one: a. Embolism b. Colitis ulcerosa c. Vasculitis d. Atherosclerosis

Atherosclerosis

Intestinal disorder associated with milk product intolerance: Question 56Select one: a. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome b. Milk allergy c. Lactase deficiency d. Lactate allergy

Lactase deficiency

Food component causative of celiac disease: Question 57Select one: a. Valin b. Carbohydrates c. Aspartate d. Gluten

Gluten

Skin disorder associated with celiac disease: Question 58Select one: a. Ulcus durum b. Dermatitis herpetiformis c. Kaposi sarcoma d. Ulcus molle

Dermatitis herpetiformis

Circulating antibodies associated with celiac disease: Question 59Select one or more: a. Anti-endomysial antibodies b. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies c. Anti-nuclear antibodies d. Anti-perimysial antibodies

Anti-endomysial antibodies, Anti-transglutaminase antibodies

Intestinal malabsorption syndrome featuring infiltration of the small bowel mucosa by macrophages filled with rod-shaped bacilli: Question 60Select one: a. Whipple’s disease b. Celiac disease c. Hirschprung disease d. Crohn disease

Whipple’s disease

Small bowel obstruction wherein a segment of bowel protrudes distally into the surrounding outer portion: Question 61Select one: a. Volvulus b. Adhesion c. Incarceration d. Intussusception

Intussusception

Segmental gut twisting around its own mesentery: Question 62Select one: a. Volvulus b. Adhesion c. Intussusception d. Stenosis

Volvulus

Fibrous scars caused by previous surgery that lead to small bowel obstruction: Question 63Select one: a. Intussusception b. Adhesions c. Volvulus d. Retro peritoneal fibrosis

Adhesions

Autosomal dominant hereditary disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation: Question 64Select one: a. FAP syndrome b. Cowden syndrome c. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome d. Gardener syndrome

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Most common risk factor for small bowel adenocarcinoma: Question 65Select one: a. Hirshprung disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Crohn’s disease d. Celiac disease

Crohn’s disease

Systemic syndrome commonly associated with small bowel neuroendocrine tumors: Question 66Select one: a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Preneoplastic syndrome c. Neurodegenerative syndrome d. Chromogranin syndrome

Carcinoid syndrome

Congenital megacolon associated with absence of ganglion cells: Question 67Select one: a. Colitis ulcerosa b. Diverticulosis c. Toxic megacolon d. Hirschsprung’s disease

Hirschsprung’s disease

Bacterial infection usually associated with pseudomembranous colitis: Question 68Select one: a. Klebsiella b. Clostridium difficile c. Pseudomonas d. E. coli

Clostridium difficile

Type of medication most often associated with development of pseudomembranous colitis: Question 69Select one: a. Antiviral drugs b. Antifungal drug c. Antibiotics d. NSAID

Antibiotics

Common condition associated with neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis: Question 70Select one: a. Obesity b. E. coli gastroenteritis c. Atherosclerosis d. Premature birth

Premature birth

Acquired herniation of the colonic mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layers of the colon: Question 71Select one: a. Zenker’s diverticulum b. Barrett disease c. Diverticulosis d. Sliding hiatal hernia

Diverticulosis

Chronic segmental transmural inflammation of small bowel, often involving the terminal ileum: Question 72Select one: a. Meckel diverticulum b. Ulcerative colitis c. Hirschprung disease d. Crohn’s disease

Crohn’s disease

Chronic superficial inflammation of the colon that usually extends proximally from the rectum: Question 73Select one: a. Crohn’s disease b. Acute bacterial colitis c. Ulcerative colitis d. Aspecific colitis

Ulcerative colitis

Intraluminal mucosal processes seen in ulcerative colitis: Question 74Select one: a. Neoplastic polyps b. Hyperplastic polyp c. Inflammatory polyps d. Hamartomatous polyps

Inflammatory polyps

Acute extreme dilation of the colon in ulcerative colitis: Question 75Select one: a. Hirschprung disease b. Diverticulosis c. Hypotonic colon d. Toxic megacolon

Toxic megacolon

Ocular complication of ulcerative colitis: Question 76Select one: a. Uveitis b. Retinitis c. Conjuctivitis d. Retinoblastoma

Uveitis

Hepatic disease associated with ulcerative colitis: Question 77Select one: a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Hepatitis chronica c. Steatohepatitis d. Fibrosis hepatis

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Precursor histological lesion of adenocarcinoma arising from ulcerative colitis: Question 78Select one: a. Epithelial hyperplasia b. Glandular hypoplasia c. Epithelial dysplasia d. Epithelial hypertrophy

Epithelial dysplasia

Inflammatory disorder of the colon characterized by chronic watery diarrhea and histologically by a thickened subepithelial collagen band: Question 79Select one: a. Intestinal fibrosis b. Collagen colitis c. Aspecific colitis d. Ileitis terminalis

Collagen colitis

Anatomic regions of the colon particularly vulnerable to ischemia: Question 80Select one: a. Watershed areas (splenic flexure, rectosigmoid) b. Colon ascendens c. Tunica muscularis propria d. Mesocolon

Watershed areas (splenic flexure, rectosigmoid)

Localized arteriovenous malformations arising most often in the cecum and descending colon complicated by lower intestinal bleeding: Question 81Select one: a. Shunt b. Varix c. Angiodysplasia d. Teleangiectesia

Angiodysplasia

Common cause of colonic bleeding during pregnancy: Question 82Select one: a. Vasculitis b. Hemorrhoids c. Cardia varix d. Caput Medusae

Hemorrhoids

Most common benign mucosal tumor of the colon: Question 83Select one: a. Leiomyoma b. Fibroma c. Adenomatous polyp d. Lipoma

Adenomatous polyp

Type of adenomatous polyp of the colon with the highest risk for development of adenocarcinoma: Question 84Select one: a. Hyperplastic polyp b. Hamartomatous polyp c. Tubular adenoma d. Villous adenoma

Villous adenoma

Small sessile mucosal proliferation of the colon with exaggerated crypt architecture: Question 85Select one: a. Sessile polyp b. Hyperplastic polyp c. Adenomatous polyp d. Inflammatory polyp

Hyperplastic polyp

Hyperplastic polyp with nuclear features of adenoma: Question 86Select one: a. Serrated adenoma b. Tubular adenoma c. Polypus pendulans d. Villous adenoma

Serrated adenoma

Mutated gene in familial adenomatous polyposis: Question 88Select one: a. P63 b. Adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) c. P53 d. Mismatch repair

Adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)

Autosomal dominant disorder associated with colonic adenomas and high risk for adenocarcinoma: Question 87Select one: a. Cowden syndrome b. Familial adenomatous polyposis c. Gardener syndrome d. Peutz-Jeghers syndroma

Familial adenomatous polyposis

Hamartomatous proliferation of colonic mucosa often found in children under 10 years of age: Question 89Select one: a. Juvenile polyps b. Tubular adenoma c. Inflammatory polyps d. Infantile polyps

Juvenile polyps

Most common type of lymphoma within the colon: Question 92Select one: a. Mycosis fungioides b. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma c. Acute myeloid leukaemia d. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Familial syndrome associated with impaired DNA mismatch repair and colorectal carcinoma: Question 90Select one: a. Cowden syndrome b. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome) c. FAP d. Gardener syndrome

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)

Common hematologic complication of colorectal carcinoma: Question 91Select one: a. Polycytaemia vera b. AML c. Aplastic anaemia d. Iron deficiency anaemia

Iron deficiency anaemia

Dilated mucus-filled appendix: Question 93Select one: a. Mucoappendix b. Mucoappendicitis c. Micoappendicitis d. Mucocele

Mucocele

Peritoneal seeding of mucus-secreting tumor cells: Question 94Select one: a. Carcinosis peritonei b. Myxoma peritonei c. Pseudomyxoma peritonei d. Malignant mesothelioma

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

Most common casue of bacterial peritonitis: Question 95Select one: a. Secondary following bacterial pleuritis b. Post endocarditis c. Post surgical intervention d. Abdominal viscus perforation

Abdominal viscus perforation

Type of peritonitis most commonly associated with cirrhosis: Question 96Select one: a. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis b. Fungal peritonitis c. Peritonitis hepatica d. Viral peritonitis

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Which are the three components of the nephron? Question 1Select one: a. Renal artery, cortex and medulla b. Peripelvic fat tissue, parenchyma and the vessels c. Glomerulus, tubule and the collecting system d. Glomerulus, collecting system and afferent arterioli

Glomerulus, tubule and the collecting system

Most common primary peritoneal neoplasia: Question 97Select one: a. Tumor peritonei b. Visceroma c. Malignant mesothelioma d. Seroma

Malignant mesothelioma

Endothelial cells and podocytes in glomerular capillaries are separated by? Question 2Select one: a. Mesangial cells b. Juxtaglomerular apparatus c. Glomerular basement membrane d. Mesangium

Glomerular basement membrane

Hormone secreting structure adjecent to the nephron? Question 3Select one: a. Mesangium b. GBM c. Podocytes d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

Cytoplasmatic projections of podocytes? Question 4Select one: a. Foot processes b. Microwilli on the GBM c. Decapitation vacuoles d. Usual cytoplasmatic bodies

Foot processes

Complete developmental absence of renal tissue? Question 5Select one: a. Renal agenesia b. Renal dysplasia c. Renal ectopia d. Renal hypoplasia

Renal agenesia

Most common site for ectopic kidney? Question 6Select one: a. Intraabdominal b. Chest cavity c. Pelvis d. Mediastinum

Pelvis

Decreased renal mass of developmental origin? Question 7Select one: a. Renal hypoplasia b. Renal hyperplasia c. Renal dysplasia d. Renal agenesia

Renal hypoplasia

One large mal-developed kidney situated in the midline? Question 8Select one or more: a. Ectopic kidney b. Horseshoe kidney c. T-shape kidney d. Pancake kidney ???

Horseshoe kidney, Pancake kidney ???

The cellular and matrix network supporting the glomerulus? Question 10Select one: a. Elastic fibres b. Mesangium c. GBM d. Granulation tissue

Mesangium

Location of cyst development in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease? Question 11Select one: a. Ureters b. Kidney pyelon c. Collecting ducts d. Glomeruli

Collecting ducts

Most common congenital cystic diesease of the kidney? Question 9Select one: a. Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal recessive inheritance b. Multicystic kidney c. Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal dominant inheritance d. Medullary sponge kidney

Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal dominant inheritance

Effect of nephrotic syndrome on serum lipids? Question 13Select one: a. Increase of HDLs b. Decrease (hypolipidemia) c. Increase (hyperlipidemia) d. Normal level

Increase (hyperlipidemia)

Congenital renal disease characterized by small cysts in the kidney papillae? Question 12Select one: a. Multicystic kidney b. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease c. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease d. Medullary sponge kidney

Medullary sponge kidney

Glomerular consolidation that affects some glomeruli and initially involves only a part of a glomerular tuft? Question 18Select one: a. Mesagioproliferative glomerulosclerosis b. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis c. Anti GBM disease d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Urine protein levels in nephrotic syndrome? Question 14Select one: a. Less than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours b. No change in urine protein levels c. Greater than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours d. 1-1.5 g protein per 24 hours

Greater than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children? Question 16Select one: a. FSGS b. Membranous nephropathy c. Diabetes mellitus d. Minimal change disease

Minimal change disease

General syndrome of hematuria, variable degrees of proteinuria, and decreased glomerular filtration rate? Question 15Select one: a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Nephritic syndrome c. Asymptomatic hematuria d. RPGN

Nephritic syndrome

Pathologic feature of minimal change disease? Question 17Select one: a. Subendothelial immune deposits b. Effacement of podocyte foot processes c. Subepithelial immune deposits d. Mesangial immune deposits

Effacement of podocyte foot processes

Severe, rapidly progressive collapsing form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis associated with viral infection? Question 19Select one: a. Cytomegalo virus associated nephropathy b. Hepatitis C virus associated nephropathy c. HIV-associated nephropathy d. Hepatitis B virus associated nephropathy

HIV-associated nephropathy

Nodular sclerotic glomerular lesions associated with diabetes? Question 21Select one: a. Glomerulitis b. FSGS c. Tip lesion d. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

Most common causes of nephrotic syndrome in adults? Question 20Select one or more: a. Minimal change nephropathy b. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis c. Membranous glomerulopathy d. Dense deposition disease

Membranous glomerulopathy, Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Characteristic ultrastructural features in acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis? Question 26Select one: a. Spike formation b. GBM duplication c. Full house pattern d. Subepithelial dense deposits (humps)

Subepithelial dense deposits (humps)

Eosinophilic, amorphous material that deposits within glomeruli and has Congo-red positivity with apple-geen birefringence? Question 22Select one: a. Immuncomplexes b. Sugar c. Fibrin d. Amyloid

Amyloid

Type of lymphoid neoplasias leading to light chain and/or heavy chain deposition glomerular disease? Question 23Select one: a. Thymoma b. NK cell neoplasia c. B-cell neoplasia d. T-cell neoplasia

B-cell neoplasia

Hereditary nephritic syndrome due to abnormal type IV collagen in the glomerular basement membranes? Question 24Select one: a. Nail-patella syndrome b. Down syndrome c. DiGeorge syndroma d. Alport’s syndrome

Alport’s syndrome

Common glomerulopathy caused by deposition of immune complexes in the mesangium and the subendothelial zone of capillary walls? Question 27Select one: a. Mesangioproliferative GN b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type III

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I

Glomerular disease that may follow infection with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus? Question 25Select one: a. Acute poststreptococcal gloemrulonephritis b. Anti GBM disease c. IgA nephropathy d. FSGS

Acute poststreptococcal gloemrulonephritis

Type of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis characterized by electron-dense transformation of glomerular basement membranes and extensive complement (C3c) deposition? Question 28Select one: a. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type III b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II c. Mesangioploliferative GN d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II

Type of immunoglobulin deposited in the glomerular mesangium in Berger’s disease? Question 29Select one: a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE

IgA

Immunologic basis for Goodpasture’s syndrome? Question 30Select one: a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody c. ANCA vasculitis d. Anti PLA-R2 antibody

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody

Distinctive glomerular lesion associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome? Question 31Select one: a. Tip lesion b. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules c. FSGS d. Crescents

Crescents

Aggressive, neutrophil-mediated disease characterized by glomerular necrosis and crescent formation, also known as idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis? Question 32Select one: a. Anti GBM glomerulonehphritis b. Immune complex mediated crescentic glomerulonephritis c. IgA nephropathy d. ANCA glomerulonephritis

ANCA glomerulonephritis

ANCA vasculitis associated with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of the respiratory tract? Question 33Select one: a. Wegener’s granulomatosis b. Berger’s disease c. Churg-Strauss syndroma d. Anti GBM glomerulonephritis

Wegener’s granulomatosis

ANCA vasculitis associated with eosinophilia and asthma? Question 34Select one: a. Churg-Strauss syndrome b. Berger’s disease c. Anti GBM glomerulonephritis d. Wegener’s granulomatosis

Churg-Strauss syndrome

Common childhood vasculitis associated with IgA nephropathy? Question 35Select one: a. ANCA glomerulonephritis b. Churg-Strauss syndrome c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Henoch-Scönlein purpura

Henoch-Scönlein purpura

ANCA vasculitis without asthma or granulomatous inflammation? Question 36Select one: a. Churg-Strauss syndrome b. Wegener’s granulomatosis c. Henoch-Scönlein purpura d. Microscopic polyarteritis

Microscopic polyarteritis

Renal arteriolar change associated with hypertensive nephrosclerosis? Question 37Select one: a. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis b. Atherosclerosis c. Onion skin change d. Fibrinoid necrosis

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis

Common cause of renovascular hypertension? Question 38Select one: a. Interstitial fibrosis b. Hydronephrosis c. Narrowing of the renal artery d. Nephrotic syndrome

Narrowing of the renal artery

Most common cause of renal infarcts? Question 39Select one: a. Traumatic injury b. Renal artery thrombosis c. Thromboembolization d. Postinfectious glomerulonephritis

Thromboembolization

Type of renal embolus presenting with with cholesterol clefts? Question 40Select one: a. Atheroemboli b. Bone marrow emboli c. Foreign body emboli d. Fat embolization

Atheroemboli

Most common cause of acute renal failure in children associated with Shiga toxin-producing strains of Escherichia coli? Question 41Select one: a. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome b. Dense Deposition Dissease (DDD) c. Postinfectious GN d. IgA nephropathy

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

Most common cause of acute renal failure? Question 42Select one: a. Bilateral hydronephrosis b. Acute tubular necrosis c. Unilateral hydronephrosis d. Acute pyelonephritis

Acute tubular necrosis

Cause of hypertension, proteinuria and edema in the third trimester of pregnancy? Question 43Select one: a. Preeclampsia b. Membranous glomerulopathy c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Hyperthyreosis

Preeclampsia

Chemotherapeutic heavy metal compound causing acute tubular necrosis? Question 44Select one: a. Vinca alkaloid b. NSAID c. Cisplatin d. Cyclophosphamide

Cisplatin

Most common type of bacteria that causes acute pyelonephritis? Question 45Select one: a. E. coli b. Candida albicans c. Staphilococcus d. Streptococcus

E. coli

Distinctive microscopic feature in the urine of patiens with acute tubular necrosis? Question 46Select one: a. Nephrotic proteinuria b. Tamm-Horsfall protein cast c. Leukocyte casts d. RBC cast

Leukocyte casts

Recurrent and persistent bacterial infection secondary to urinary tract obstruction, ureteral reflux or both? Question 47Select one: a. Chronic pyelonephritis b. Glomerulonephritis c. Acute pylonephritis d. Intertitial nephritis

Chronic pyelonephritis

Pathologic feature characterized by sudden renal colic associated with analgesic nephropathy? Question 48Select one: a. Acute pylonephritis b. Papillary necrosis c. Interstitial nephritis d. Glomerulonephritis

Papillary necrosis

Type of immune response in drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis? Question 49Select one or more: a. Type II hypersensitive reaction b. Type I hypersensitive reaction c. Type IV hypersensitive reaction d. Type III hypersensitive reaction

Type I hypersensitive reaction, Type IV hypersensitive reaction

Stones within the urinary system? Question 50Select one or more: a. Urolithiasis b. Cholelithiasis c. Nephrocalcinosis d. Nephrolithiasis

Urolithiasis, Nephrolithiasis

Most common composition of renal stones? Question 51Select one: a. Urate b. Cystin c. Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate d. Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate

Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate

Type of nephropathy that follows chemotherapy for leukemia? Question 52Select one: a. Acute urate nephropathy b. Nephrocalcinosis c. Chronic reflux nephropathy d. Acute pyelonephritis

Acute urate nephropathy

Kidney stones that fills the pelvis and calyces to form a cast of the spaces (staghorn stones)? Question 53Select one: a. Urate stones b. Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate stones c. Cystin stones d. Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones

Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate stones

Renal stones developing in gout? Question 54Select one: a. Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate stones b. Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones c. Urate stones d. Cystine stones

Urate stones

Dilatation of the renal collecting system? Question 55Select one: a. Hydronephrosis b. Hydrocephalus c. Urocystitis d. Policystic kidney disease

Hydronephrosis

Immune basis for hyperacute graft rejection? Question 56Select one: a. IgA nephropathy b. Cell mediated vascular rejection c. Cell mediated tubulointerstitial rejection d. Preformed antibodies against allograft antigenes (DSA)

Preformed antibodies against allograft antigenes (DSA)

Type of renal graft rejection associated with infiltration of T-lymphocytes and macrophages? Question 57Select one: a. Acute humoral rejection b. Acute cellular rejection c. Glomerulitis d. Peritubular capillaritis

Acute cellular rejection

Renal tumor exhibiting well differentiated adipose tissue, smoth muscle and thick walled blood vessels? Question 58Select one: a. Angiomyolipoma b. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma c. Oncocytoma d. Chromophobe cell carcinoma

Angiomyolipoma

Least oxygenated zone of the liver acinus: Question 1Select one: a. Zone 2 or the intermedier region b. Zone 4 or the centriportal region c. Zone 1 or the periportal region d. Zone 3 or the centrilobular region

Zone 3 or the centrilobular region

Phagocytic cells of the liver within the sinusoids: Question 2Select one: a. Hepatocytes b. Ito cells c. Purkinje cell d. Kupffer cells

Kupffer cells

Major source of bilirubin: Question 3Select one: a. Thrombocytes b. White blood cells c. Macrophages d. Erythrocyte lysis

Erythrocyte lysis

Irreversible brain injury secondary to high concentration of free bilirubin: Question 4Select one: a. Stroke icterus b. Sclerosis multiplex c. Axonal icterus d. Kernicterus

Kernicterus

Plugs of inspissated bile in dilated bile canaliculi and bile pigment accumulation in hepatocytes: Question 5Select one: a. Choleplug b. Cholestasis c. Cholecongestion d. Cholangitis

Cholestasis

Type of hyperbilirubinemia caused by overproduction of bilirubin: Question 6Select one: a. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia b. Anemia c. Direct hyperbilirubinemia d. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Type of hyperbilirubinemia commonly encountered in premature newborns: Question 7Select one: a. Mixed hyperbilirubinemia b. Juvenile hyperbilirubinemia c. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia d. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

End stage of chronic liver disease characterized by destruction of the normal liver architecture by fibrous septa that encompass regenerative nodules of hepatocytes: Question 8Select one: a. Fatty change b. Cirrhosis c. Nutmeg liver d. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Cirrhosis

Morphologic type of cirrhosis typically associated with alcoholism: Question 9Select one: a. Micronodular cirrhosis b. Majornodular cirrhosis c. Mininodular cirrhosis d. Macronodular cirrhosis

Micronodular cirrhosis

Flapping tremor of the hands associated with hepatic encephalopathy: Question 10Select one: a. Asterixis b. Extention tremor c. Obelixis d. Intention tremor

Asterixis

General effect of hepatic failure on hemostasis: Question 11Select one: a. Hemophilia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Coagulopathy d. Thrombocytemia

Coagulopathy

Consequence of chronic liver failure on testicles: Question 12Select one: a. Involution b. Hyperplasia c. Hyperthropy d. Atrophy

Atrophy

Major central nervous system complication of acute hepatic failure: Question 13Select one: a. Axonal damage b. Stroke c. Cerebral edema d. Myelosis

Cerebral edema

Major effect of hepatic failure on platelets: Question 14Select one: a. Thrombosis b. Thrombocytosis c. Thrombocytaemia d. Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia

Cutaneous vascular manifestation of hyperestrogenism associated with chronic liver disease: Question 15Select one: a. Spider naevus b. Poliarteritis nodosa c. Icterus d. Raynaud syndrome

Spider naevus

Increased portal venous pressure due to obstruction of blood flow anywhere in the portal circuit: Question 16Select one: a. Central hypertension b. Liver hypertension c. Portal hypertension d. Bile hypertension

Portal hypertension

Major cause of intrahepatic portal hypertension: Question 17Select one: a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Acute hepatitis c. Bile congestion d. Cirrhosis

Cirrhosis

Major helminthic infection that causes intrahepatic portal hypertension: Question 18Select one: a. Ascariosis b. Helicobacter pylori c. Aspergillosis d. Schistosomiasis

Schistosomiasis

Acute thrombotic occlusion of the hepatic veins: Question 19Select one: a. Budd-Chiari syndrome b. Budd-Vein syndrome c. Budd-Weisel syndrome d. Budd-Weiser syndrome

Budd-Chiari syndrome

Common upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding associated with portal hypertension: Question 20Select one: a. Peptic ulcer b. Stomach veins c. Mallory- Weis syndrome d. Esophageal varix rupture

Esophageal varix rupture

Accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity: Question 21Select one: a. Hydroabdomen b. Hydronephrosis c. Peritonitis d. Ascites

Ascites

Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis: Question 22Select one: a. Hepatitis D virus b. Hepatitis B virus c. Hepatitis A virus d. Hepatitis C virus

Hepatitis A virus

Transmission route of hepatitis A virus: Question 23Select one: a. Fecal-oral route b. Parenteral route c. Through the airways d. Transplacental route

Fecal-oral route

Antigen comprising the protein coat of the hepatitis B core antigen: Question 24Select one: a. Hepatitis B pre-core antigen b. Hepatitis B membrane antigen c. Hepatitis B surface antigen d. Hepatitis B core antigen

Hepatitis B surface antigen

Persistent or progressive inflammation and necrosis in the liver for more than 6 months: Question 25Select one: a. Subacute hepatitis b. Chronic hepatitis c. Acute hepatitis d. Abscedens hepatitis

Chronic hepatitis

Antibody that heralds complete recovery from acute hepatitis B infection: Question 26Select one: a. Anti-hepatitis B flagellum antigen antibody b. Anti-hepatitis B core antigen antibody c. Anti-hepatitis B cytoplasma antigen antibody d. Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen antibody

Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen antibody

Systemic vascular complication of chronic hepatitis B infection: Question 27Select one: a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. Churg-Strauss syndrome c. Wegener disease d. Takayasu arteritis

Polyarteritis nodosa

Hepatotropic defective RNA virus requiring hepatitis B surface antigen for its replication: Question 28Select one: a. Hepatitis D virus b. Hepatitis X virus c. Hepatitic C virus d. Hepatatis A virus

Hepatitis D virus

Neoplasia associated with hepatitis B and C viral infections: Question 29Select one: a. Hepatoblastoma b. Focal nodular hyperplasia c. Haemangioma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Most common indication for liver transplantation in the United States: Question 30Select one: a. Hepatitis C virus infection b. Hepatitis B virus infection c. Hepatitis A virus infection d. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Hepatitis C virus infection

Usual transmission route for hepatitis B and C viruses: Question 31Select one: a. Fecal-oral route b. Parenteral route c. Through the airways d. Nosocomial infection

Parenteral route

Approximate percentage of hepatitis C infection that lead to chronic hepatitis: Question 32Select one: a. 50% b. 100% c. 30% d. 80%

80%

Chronic hepatitis associated with circulating autoantibodies and high levels of serum immunoglobulins: Question 33Select one: a. Chronic viral hepatitis b. Eosinophilic hepatitis c. Autoimmune hepatitis d. Acute viral hepatitis

Autoimmune hepatitis

Virus associated with “ground glass” hepatocytes: Question 34Select one: a. Hepatitis E virus b. Hepatitis D virus c. Hepatitis C virus d. Hepatitis B virus

Hepatitis B virus

Most common histologic finding in livers of alcoholics: Question 35Select one: a. Steatosis b. Cirrhosis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Cholangiocarcinoma

Steatosis

Cytoplasmic inclusions within swollen hepatocytes associated with alcoholic liver disease that are comprised of aggregated intermediate filaments: Question 36Select one: a. Councilman bodies b. Virchow bodies c. Kimmelstiel- Wilson nodules d. Mallory bodies

Mallory bodies

Inflammatory liver disease associated with obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia: Question 37Select one: a. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis b. Alcoholic steatohepatitis c. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis d. Diabetic hepatitis

Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

Zonal location of hyaline sclerosis associated with alcoholic liver disease: Question 38Select one: a. Perilobular sclerosis or perilobular hyaline sclerosis b. Centrilobular sclerosis or central hyaline sclerosis c. Centriportal sclerosis or centiportal hyaline sclerosis d. Periferolobular sclerosis or periferolobular hyaline sclerosis

Centrilobular sclerosis or central hyaline sclerosis

Chronic progressive cholestatic liver disease characterized by destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts and associated with anti-mitochondrial antibodies: Question 39Select one: a. Autoimmune hepatitis b. Primary sclerosing cholangitis c. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. Ulcerative colitis

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Stage I lesion of primary biliary cirrhosis: Question 40Select one: a. Steatohepatitis b. Acute suppurative cholangitis c. Pericentral sclerosis d. Florid duct lesion or chronic destructive cholangitis

Florid duct lesion or chronic destructive cholangitis

Demographic age group affected by primary biliary cirrhosis: Question 41Select one: a. Young males b. Young women c. Middle-aged males d. Middle-aged women

Middle-aged women

Demographic age group affected by primary biliary cirrhosis: Question 41Select one: a. Young males b. Young women c. Middle-aged males d. Middle-aged women

Middle-aged women

Chronic cholestatic liver disease in which an inflammatory and fibrosing process narrows and eventually obstruct the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts: Question 42Select one: a. Autoimmune hepatitis b. Primary sclerosing cholangitis c. Crohn’s disease d. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Gastrointestinal disease associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis: Question 43Select one: a. Hemorrhoids b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Polyposis

Ulcerative colitis

Malignancy associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis: Question 44Select one: a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Hepatosarcoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Cholangiocarcinoma

Cholangiocarcinoma

Primary iron storage protein in the cytoplasm of all cells: Question 45Select one: a. Hemoferritin b. Ferritin c. Ferroglobin d. Hemosiderin

Ferritin

Degradation product of ferritin that appears as golden-yellow granules: Question 46Select one: a. Hemosiderin b. Ferritin c. Bilirubin d. Lipofuscin

Hemosiderin

Autosomal recessive disorder characterized by excessive iron absorption and toxic accumulation in parenchymal cells, particularly the liver, heart and pancreas: Question 47Select one: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hemochromatosis c. Wilson’s disease d. Hemosiderosis

Hemochromatosis

Skin manifestation of hemochromatosis: Question 48Select one: a. Hypopigmentation b. Vitiligo c. Café au lait spots d. Hyperpigmentation

Hyperpigmentation

Clinical manifestation of pancreatic involvement in hemochromatosis: Question 49Select one: a. Thrombophlebitis migrans b. Acute pancreatitis c. Chronic pancreatitis d. Diabetes mellitus

Diabetes mellitus

Liver malignancy associated with hemochromatosis: Question 50Select one: a. Klatskin tumor b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Cholangiocarcinoma

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Autosomal recessive disease in which excess copper is deposited in the liver, eyes and brain: Question 51Select one: a. Hemosiderosis b. Wilson’s disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Morrow’s disease

Wilson’s disease

Ophthalmic manifestation of Wilson’s disease: Question 52Select one: a. Retinoblastoma b. Kayser-Fleischer rings c. Glaucoma d. Hordeolum

Kayser-Fleischer rings

Late hepatic complication of Wilson’s disease: Question 53Select one: a. Cirrhosis b. Acute hepatitis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Bile congestion

Cirrhosis

Hematologic complication of Wilson’s disease: Question 54Select one: a. Policytaemia vera b. Leukocytosis c. Acute hemolytic anemia d. Thrombocytaemia

Acute hemolytic anemia

Autosomal recessive disease causing cirrhosis and emphysema: Question 55Select one: a. Hemochromatosis b. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency c. Marfan syndrome d. Wilson’s disease

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Alpha-1 antitrypsin isoform most commonly associated with cirrhosis: Question 56Select one: a. PiCC genotype b. PiDD genotype c. PiMM genotype d. PiZZ genotype

PiZZ genotype

Common over-the-counter analgesic that in overdose cause hepatic centrilobular necrosis: Question 57Select one: a. Isoniazid b. Penicillin c. Erythromycin d. Acetaminophen

Acetaminophen

Most common type of mushroom that causes predictable hepatotoxicity: Question 58Select one: a. Amanita amanites b. Amanita phalloides c. Amanita pectoides d. Manamita phalloides

Amanita phalloides

Most common cause of liver failure directly associated with pregnancy: Question 59Select one: a. Liver infarction of pregnancy b. Fatty liver of pregnancy c. Cholangitis of pregnancy d. Liver cirrhosis of pregnancy

Fatty liver of pregnancy

Hepatic tumor associated with oral contraceptives: Question 60Select one: a. Focal nodular hyperplasia b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hepatic adenoma d. Hepatoblastoma

Hepatic adenoma

Hemodynamic condition associated with an accentuated lobular pattern or “nutmeg” liver: Question 61Select one: a. Chronic passive congestion b. Acute congestion c. Acute hyperaemia d. Chronic active congestion

Chronic passive congestion

Organism responsible for amoebic abscess of liver: Question 62Select one: a. Tripanosoma cruzii b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Escherichia coli d. Trichomonas

Entamoeba histolytica

Tapeworm commonly associated with hepatic cysts: Question 63Select one: a. Cystococcus hepatis b. Echinococcus c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Entamoeba histolytica

Echinococcus

Neonatal cholestatic liver disease characterized by obliteration of the lumen of all parts of the liver not associated with calculi or neoplasm: Question 64Select one: a. Intrahepatic biliary atresia b. Extrahepatic liver failure c. Gallblader atresia d. Extrahepatic biliary atresia

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

Congenital paucity of bile ducts within the liver: Question 65Select one: a. Extrahepatic biliary atresia b. Gallblader atresia c. Intrahepatic biliary atresia d. Extrahepatic liver failure

Intrahepatic biliary atresia

Life–threatening complication of hepatic adenoma: Question 66Select one: a. Hepatoencephalopathy b. Acute hepatitis c. Rupture and bleeding d. Hypoglycaemic coma

Rupture and bleeding

Hyperplastic liver nodule that resembles cirrhosis: Question 67Select one: a. Mutiplex nodular hyperplasia b. Hepatocellular adenoma c. Hepatoma d. Focal nodular hyperplasia

Focal nodular hyperplasia

Fungal product that may contaminate some foods and may be associated with hepatocellular carcinoma: Question 68Select one: a. Aflatoxin b. Hepatoxin c. Betatoxin d. Gammatoxin

Aflatoxin

Malignant hepatic tumor associated with exposure to thorium dioxide or vinyl chloride: Question 69Select one: a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Cholangiocellular carcinoma c. Angiosarcoma d. Malignant hepatoblastoma

Angiosarcoma

Most common malignant tumor in the liver: Question 70Select one: a. Liver adenocarcinoma b. Cholangiocellular carcinoma c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Metastatic carcinoma

Most common congenital form of dilation of the bile duct: Question 71Select one: a. Bile cyst b. Cystitis cystica c. Choledochal cyst d. Canalicular cyst

Choledochal cyst

Most common type of gallstone: Question 72Select one: a. Biliverdin gallstone b. Hemosiderin gallstone c. Cholesterol gallstone d. Bilirubin gallstones

Cholesterol gallstone

Cholesterol gallstones most often form in: Question 73Select one: a. Childs b. Young adults c. Males d. Females

Females

Presence of gallstones within the common bile duct: Question 74Select one: a. Choledocholithiasis b. Cholelithiasis c. Nephrolithiasis d. Hepatolithiasis

Choledocholithiasis

Most common cause of acute cholecystitis: Question 75Select one: a. Pancreas tumor b. Alcoholism c. Gallstones d. Pancreatitis

Gallstones

Accumulation of cholesterol-laden macrophages within the submucosa of the gallbladder: Question 76Select one: a. Choledocholosis b. Cholesteritis c. Cholecystitis d. Cholesterolosis

Cholesterolosis

Most common malignant tumor of the gallbladder: Question 77Select one: a. Haemangiosarcoma b. Leiomyoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Adenoma

Adenocarcinoma

Type of epithelium that lines the ureters, bladder and posterior urethra: Question 1Select one: a. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium b. Cuboidal epithelium c. Transitional cell epithelium d. Stratified squamous epithelium

Transitional cell epithelium

Embryonic structure from which most of the lower urinary tract derives: Question 2Select one: a. Allantois b. Urachus c. Cloaca d. Mullerian duct

Cloaca

Most common tumor of the renal pelvis: Question 3Select one: a. Lipoma b. Hydronephroma c. Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma d. Renal cell carcinoma

Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

Prostatic disease most commonly associated with urethral obstruction: Question 4Select one: a. Acute prostatitis b. Prostate adenocarcinoma c. Chronic prostatitis d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Congenital blind outpouchings of bladder wall: Question 5Select one: a. Urodiverticulum b. Vesico diverticulum c. Bladder diverticuli d. Urachus

Bladder diverticuli

Type of bladder cancer that arises from urachal remnants: Question 6Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Squamous carcinoma c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Adenocarcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Functional consequence of congenital incompetence of the vesicoureteral valve: Question 7Select one: a. Dysuria b. Vesicoureteral reflux c. Urine congestion in the urinary bladder d. Bladder diverticuli

Vesicoureteral reflux

Gender predilection in acute urocystitis: Question 8Select one: a. Females b. Male

Females

Common trematode cause of cystitis in North Africa and the Middle East: Question 9Select one: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Gastrodiscoides hominis c. Schistosoma hematobium d. Fasciola hepatica

Schistosoma hematobium

Type of cystitis associated with tuberculosis: Question 10Select one: a. Hemorrhagic cystitis b. Acute cystitis c. Granulomatous cystitis d. Subacute cystitis

Granulomatous cystitis

Type of acute cystitis usually associated with leukemia or treatment with cytotoxic drugs: Question 11Select one: a. Fibrinous cystitis b. Purulent cystitis c. Gangrenous cystitis d. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Hemorrhagic cystitis

Type of cystitis characterized by accumulation of macrophages with Michaelis-Guttman bodies: Question 12Select one: a. Granulomatous cystitis b. Subacute cystitis c. Malakoplakia d. Purulent cystitis

Malakoplakia

Type of chronic cystitis featuring glandular structures lined by mucin-secreting columnar epithelial cells: Question 13Select one: a. Cystitis glandularis b. Malakoplakia c. Metaplastic cystitis d. Cystitis mucinosa

Cystitis glandularis

Most common site for tumors in the urinary tract: Question 14Select one: a. Urinary bladder b. Ureter c. Renal pelvis d. Urethra

Urinary bladder

Gender predilection for bladder cancer: Question 15Select one: a. Males b. Females

Males

Most common type of bladder cancer: Question 16Select one: a. Transitional cell carcinoma b. Squamous carcinoma c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Adenocacinoma

Transitional cell carcinoma

Most common environmental risk factor for bladder carcinoma: Question 17Select one: a. Cigarette smoking b. Chronic inflammation c. Alcohol d. Western diet

Cigarette smoking

Most common initial sign of urothelial carcinoma of the bladder: Question 18Select one: a. Pyuria b. Dysuria c. Hematuria d. Proteinuria

Hematuria

Type of bladder carcinoma associated with schistosomiasis: Question 19Select one: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Urothelial carcinoma d. Melanoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Congenital anomaly in which the urethra opens on the underside of the penis: Question 20Select one: a. Paraspadiasis b. Epispadiasis c. Hypospadiasis d. Orthospadiasis

Hypospadiasis

Congenital anomaly wherein the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis: Question 21Select one: a. Epispadiasis b. Orthospadiasis c. Hypospadiasis d. Paraspadiasis

Epispadiasis

Condition wherein narrowing of the prepuce blocks retraction over the glans penis: Question 22Select one: a. Preputium stenotisans b. Bowen’s disease c. Phimosis d. Balanitis

Phimosis

Collection of serous fluid in the scrotal sack between the two layers of the tunica vaginalis: Question 23Select one: a. Hydrocele b. Seroucele c. Hydrohernia d. Hydroscrotum

Hydrocele

Accumulation of blood between the layers of the tunica vaginalis: Question 24Select one: a. Scrotal hemorrhage b. Hematocele c. Hematoscrotum d. Hydrocele

Hematocele

Cyst formed from protrusion of widened efferent ducts of the rete testis or epididymis: Question 25Select one: a. Cystocele b. Ductocele c. Varicocele d. Spermatocele

Spermatocele

Dilation of testicular veins that appear as a nodularity on the lateral side of the scrotum: Question 26Select one: a. Varicocele b. Aneurysma scrotalis c. Varix scrotalis d. Varix testicularis

Varicocele

Protrusion of intestines into the scrotum through the inguinal canal: Question 27Select one: a. Scrotal inguinal hernia b. Testicular hernia c. Abdominal hernia d. Intestinocele

Scrotal inguinal hernia

Painful continuous penile erection unrelated to sexual excitement: Question 28Select one: a. Phimosis b. Spermatocele c. Balanitis d. Priapism

Priapism

Most common sexually transmitted disease affecting the glans penis: Question 29Select one: a. Human immunodeficiency virus infection b. Herpes simplex virus-2 infection c. Herpes simplex virus-1 infection d. Human papilloma virus infection

Herpes simplex virus-2 infection

Characteristic penile lesion of primary syphilis: Question 30Select one: a. Ulcus rodens b. Chancre c. Ulcus molle d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Chancre

Causative agent of chancroid: Question 31Select one: a. Neisseria gonorrheae b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Treponema pallidum d. Hemophilus ducreyi

Hemophilus ducreyi

Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum: Question 32Select one: a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Neisseria gonorrheae c. Treponema pallidum d. Hemophilus ducreyi

Chlamydia trachomatis

Clinical triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis of weight-bearing joints: Question 33Select one: a. Bud-Chiari syndrome b. Korsakoff syndrome c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Edwards syndrome

Reiter’s syndrome

Most common clinical manifestation of sexually transmitted disease in men: Question 34Select one: a. Cystitis b. Prostatitis c. Balanitis d. Urethritis

Urethritis

Causative agent of condyloma acuminata: Question 35Select one: a. Herpes simplex virus-2 b. Treponema pallidum c. Human papilloma virus d. Human immunodeficiency virus

Human papilloma virus

Most common tumor of the penis, usually in uncircumcized men: Question 36Select one: a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Fibroma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Leiomyoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Congenital abnormality in which one or both testes are not found in their normal position in the scrotum: Question 37Select one: a. Testicular agenesia b. Lack of testis c. Cryptorchidism d. Ectopia testis

Cryptorchidism

Late complication of cryptorchidism: Question 38Select one: a. Germ cell tumors b. Acute inflammation c. Squamous cell tumors d. Stromal tumors

Germ cell tumors

Developing disorder characterized by ambiguous genitalia in a person who has both male and female gonads: Question 39Select one: a. Hermaphroditism b. Gardner’s syndrome c. Turner’s syndrome d. Pseudohermaphroditism

Hermaphroditism

Most common cause of male pseudohermaphroditism: Question 40Select one: a. Estrogen overproduction b. Androgen insensitivity c. Progesteron overproduction d. Lack of androgen

Androgen insensitivity

Most common bacterium responsible for acute epididymitis in older men: Question 41Select one: a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Treponema pallidum d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Escherichia coli

Viral infection that commonly causes orchitis: Question 42Select one: a. Herpes simplex virus-1 b. Rubeola c. Mumps d. Morbilli

Mumps

Most common type of testicular tumor: Question 43Select one: a. Germ cell tumor b. Leydig cell tumor c. Sertoli cell turmor d. Fibrosarcoma

Germ cell tumor

Type of germ cell tumor that retains the features of spermatogonia: Question 44Select one: a. Yolk-sac tumor b. Classic seminoma c. Spermatocytic seminoma d. Embryonal carcinoma

Classic seminoma

Germ cell tumor that contains both seminoma and nonseminomatous components: Question 45Select one: a. Mixed germ cell tumor b. Complicated germ cell tumor c. Pure germ cell tumor d. Generalisated germ cell tumor

Mixed germ cell tumor

Ovarian equivalent of seminoma: Question 46Select one: a. Krukenberg tumor b. Thecoma c. Granulosa cell tumor d. Dysgerminoma

Dysgerminoma

Germ cell tumor composed exclusively of malignant chorionic epithelium: Question 47Select one: a. Embryonal carcinoma b. Teratoma c. Yolk-sac tumor d. Choriocarcinoma

Choriocarcinoma

Malignant germ cell tumor that secretes alpha-fetoprotein: Question 48Select one: a. Teratoma b. Embryonal carcinoma c. Choricarcinoma d. Yolk sac carcinoma

Yolk sac carcinoma

Most common neoplasm of testis after age 60: Question 49Select one: a. Teratoma embryonale b. Yolk-sac tumor c. Lymphoma d. Choriocarcinoma

Lymphoma

Benign enlargement of the prostate featuring proliferation of glands and stroma: Question 50Select one: a. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia c. Prostate adenoma d. Benign prostatic hyperthropy

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Region of the prostate most often affected by benign prostatic hyperplasia: Question 51Select one: a. Periurethral region b. Apical region c. Periphery region d. Transitional region

Periurethral region

Premalignant change in prostatic ducts: Question 52Select one: a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia b. Prostate specific antigen c. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia d. Prostate nodular hypertrophy

Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia

Most common malignant tumor of prostate: Question 53Select one: a. Squamous carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Leiomyosarcoma

Adenocarcinoma

Commonly used serum marker for prostatic adenocarcinoma: Question 54Select one: a. Anti-prostate antibody or APA b. Prostate-specific antigen or PSA c. Alpha-fetoprotein or AFP d. Human choriogonadotropin or HcG

Prostate-specific antigen or PSA

Non-ciliated columnar cells that detoxify many inhaled toxic agents within the tracheobronchial tree: Question 1Select one: a. Fibroblasts b. Kulchitsky cells c. Plasma cells d. Clara cells

Clara cells

Neuroendocrine cells within the tracheobronchial mucosa: Question 2Select one: a. Merkel cells b. Ganglion cells c. Clara cells d. Kulchitsky cells

Kulchitsky cells

Type of pulmonary alveolar cells that produce surfactant: Question 3Select one: a. Type 2 pneumocytes b. Type 3 pneumocytes c. Type 4 pneumocytes d. Type 1 pneumocytes

Type 2 pneumocytes

Alveolar cells that cover 95% of the alveolar surface: Question 4Select one: a. Type 1 pneumocytes b. Type 4 pneumocytes c. Type 3 pneumocytes d. Type 2 pneumocytes

Type 1 pneumocytes

Mass of lung tissue that is not connected to the bronchial tree and is located outside the visceral pleura: Question 5Select one: a. Extralobar sequestration b. Intralobar fenestration c. Extralobar fenestratio d. Intralobar sequestration

Extralobar sequestration

Mass of lung tissue within the visceral pleura, isolated from the tracheobronchial tree and supplied by a systemic artery: Question 6Select one: a. Extralobar fenestratio b. Extralobar sequestration c. Intralobar sequestration d. Intralobar fenestration

Intralobar sequestration

Common anomaly that consists of abnormal bronchiolar structures of varying sizes or distribution, usually seen in the first 2 years of life: Question 7Select one: a. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation b. Juvenile emphisema c. Cystic fibrosis d. Juvenile adenocarcinoma

Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

Occlusion of bronchioles by loose fibrous tissue secondary to adenovirus infection: Question 8Select one: a. Bronchopneumonia b. Lobar pneumonia c. Obliterative or constrictive bronchiolitis d. Atypical pneumonia

Obliterative or constrictive bronchiolitis

Causative agent for whooping cough: Question 9Select one: a. Hemophilus influenzae B b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Bordetella pertussis d. Streptococcus pyogenes

Bordetella pertussis

Inhaled gas that causes silo-filler’s disease: Question 10Select one: a. Carbon dioxid b. Carbon monoxid c. Ozon d. Nitrogen dioxide

Nitrogen dioxide

Fungal organism associated with bronchocentric granulomatosis in asthmatic patients: Question 11Select one: a. Candida albicans b. E.coli c. Actinomyces d. Aspergillus

Aspergillus

Collapse of expanded lung tissue: Question 12Select one: a. Atelectasia b. Dystelectasia c. Honey comb lung d. Emphysema

Atelectasia

Irreversible dilation of bronchi caused by destruction of bronchial wall muscle and elastic elements: Question 13Select one: a. Bronchomaceration b. Bronchiolitis c. Asthma bronchiale d. Bronchiectasia

Bronchiectasia

Syndrome of bronchiectasia associated with dextrocardia and sinusitis: Question 14Select one: a. Kartagener syndrome b. Budd-Chiari syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Gardner syndrome

Kartagener syndrome

Bacterial pneumonia that consolidates an entire lung lobe: Question 15Select one: a. Interstitial pneumonia b. Lobar pneumonia c. Circumscribed pneumonia d. Bronchopneumonia

Lobar pneumonia

Scattered solid foci of bacterial infection in the same or several lung lobes: Question 16Select one: a. Global pneumonia b. Bronchopneumonia c. Lobar pneumonia d. Interstitial pneumonia

Bronchopneumonia

Pneumonia with intraalveolar exudate that forms intraalveolar plugs of granulation tissue: Question 17Select one: a. Gangrenous pneumonia b. Organizing pneumonia c. Incipiens pneumonia d. Abscedent pneumonia

Organizing pneumonia

Most common bacterial cause of lobar pneumonia in young adults: Question 18Select one: a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Hemophilus Influenzae B c. Mycoplasma pneumonie d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Pulmonary infection with this bacterium has a characteristic mucoid appearance of the cut surface of the lung: Question 19Select one: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycoplasma pneumonie d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Most common type of Streptococcus that causes pneumonia in the newborn: Question 20Select one: a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Group C streptococcus d. Group S streptococcus

Group B streptococcus

Organism that causes severe bronchopneumonia that is associated with air conditioning water cooling towers: Question 21Select one: a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Mycoplasma pneumonie c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Legionella pneumophila

Legionella pneumophila

Pulmonary infection that results from inhalation of dust from parrot excreta: Question 22Select one: a. Berylliosis b. Psittacosis c. Silicosis d. Parrotosis

Psittacosis

Causative agent of pneumonic plague: Question 23Select one: a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Yersinia pestis d. Legionella pneumophila

Yersinia pestis

Most common cause of atypical pneumonia: Question 24Select one: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Legionella pneumophila

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

First pulmonary lesion of primary tuberculosis consisting of a peripheral parenchymal granuloma, often in the upper lobes: Question 25Select one: a. Ghon focus b. Ghon nodule c. Chon complex d. Ghon complex

Ghon focus

Type of necrosis encountered in the granulomas of tuberculosis: Question 26Select one: a. Caseous necrosis b. Fat necrosis c. Fibrinoid necrosis d. Coagulative necrosis

Caseous necrosis

Multiple, small and disseminated foci of tuberculous granulomas? Question 27Select one: a. Disseminated tuberculosis b. Miliary tuberculosis c. Granulomatous tuberculosis d. Multiple granulomatosis

Miliary tuberculosis

Subpleural tuberculous cavity that ruptures into the pleural space: Question 28Select one: a. Bronchopneumonia b. Bronchopleural fistula c. Bronchiectasia d. Thoracopleural fistula

Bronchopleural fistula

Gram-positive filamentous bacteria that cause chronic pneumonia, often in immunocompromised persons: Question 29Select one: a. Nocardia b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Mycoplasma pneumonie

Nocardia

Pulmonary fungal pathogen prevalent in the Midwestern and Southeastern States of the US, commonly inhaled from bird droppings: Question 30Select one: a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Mycoplasma pneumonie c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Nocardia

Histoplasma capsulatum

Pulmonary fungal pathogen that exhibits narrow-based budding and a thick mucoid capsule: Question 31Select one: a. Nocardia b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Cryptococcus neoformans

Cryptococcus neoformans

Fungal pathogen that exhibits extensive blood vessel invasion: Question 32Select one: a. Actinomyces b. Nocardia c. Aspergillus d. Candida albicans

Aspergillus

Fungal pathogen often associated with AIDS, and characterized by intraalveolar foamy exudate: Question 33Select one: a. Pneumocystis jiroveci b. Aspergillus c. Nocardia d. Candida albicans

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Virus that causes interstitial pneumonia with characteristic basophilic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions and enlargement of infected alveolar cells: Question 34Select one: a. Cytomegalovirus b. Influenza virus c. Herpes virus 2 d. Herpes virus 1

Cytomegalovirus

Most common process leading to lung abscesses: Question 35Select one: a. Tonsilitis b. Open thoracic injury c. Aspiration d. Intubation

Aspiration

Viral pneumonia exhibiting smudgy basophilic nuclear inclusion: Question 36Select one: a. Adenovirus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Influenza virus d. Herpes virus 1

Adenovirus

Viral pneumonia exhibiting smudgy basophilic nuclear inclusion: Question 36Select one: a. Adenovirus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Influenza virus d. Herpes virus 1

Adenovirus

Pathologic counterpart of respiratory distress syndrome: Question 37Select one: a. Diffuse alveolar damage b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Abscedens pneumonia d. Interstitial pneumonia

Diffuse alveolar damage

End result of diffuse alveolar damage that exhibits multiple cyst-like spaces throughout the lung: Question 38Select one: a. Cystic fibrosis b. Honeycomb lung c. Multicystic lung disease d. Polycystic lung disease

Honeycomb lung

Intraalveolar precipitated proteins and debris from sloughed epithelial cells encountered in the exudative phase of diffuse alveolar damage: Question 39Select one: a. Surfactant membranes b. Paraprotein membranes c. Hyaline membranes d. Necrotic epithelial membranes

Hyaline membranes

Second phase of diffuse alveolar damage that begins about a week after the initial injury: Question 40Select one: a. Collagenic phase of diffuse alveolar damage b. Restition ad integrum phase of diffuse alveolar damage c. Organizing phase of diffuse alveolar damage d. Initial phase of diffuse alveolar damage

Organizing phase of diffuse alveolar damage

Prolonged exposure to high concentration of this gas is the most common cause of diffuse alveolar damage: Question 41Select one: a. Carbon dioxide b. Nitrogen c. Carbon monoxide d. Oxygen

Oxygen

Common pulmonary consequence of prolonged neonatal respiratory distress syndrome of premature infants: Question 42Select one: a. Bronchopulmonary dystelectasia b. Bronchopulmonary dysection c. Bronchopulmonary atrophy d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Rare condition in which the alveoli are filled with granular eosinophilic material, which has very high surfactant content: Question 43Select one: a. Interstitial pneumonia b. Purulent bronchopneumonia c. Hyalin membrane disease d. Alveolar proteinosis

Alveolar proteinosis

Pulmonary hemorrhage syndrome featuring glomerulonephritis and circulating, cytotoxic anti-basement membrane antibody: Question 44Select one: a. Goodpasture’s syndrome b. Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion c. Berger’s disease d. Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Goodpasture’s syndrome

Rare cause of pulmonary hemorrhage similar to Goodpasture’s syndrome but lacking renal involvement or anti-basement membrane antibodies: Question 45Select one: a. Idiopathic pulmonary hemorrhage b. Hemothorax c. Interstitial hemorrhagic pneumonia d. Hemorrhagic infarction

Idiopathic pulmonary hemorrhage

Localized form of pneumonia distal to an obstructed airway, characterized by lipid-laden macrophages in the alveolar space: Question 46Select one: a. Aspiration pneumonia b. Granulomatous pneumonia c. Xanthogranulomatous pneumonia d. Endogenous lipid pneumonia

Endogenous lipid pneumonia

Most common cause of chronic bronchitis: Question 47Select one: a. Cigarette smoking b. Seasonal viral infection c. Pollens d. Air polution

Cigarette smoking

Pulmonary condition clinically characterized by chronic productive cough and hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the mucous cells and an increased ratio of mucous to serous cells: Question 48Select one: a. Tracheitis b. Acute bronchiolitis c. Acute bronchitis d. Chronic bronchitis

Chronic bronchitis

Chronic lung disease characterized by enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, with destruction of their walls but without fibrosis: Question 49Select one: a. Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Lung overinflation d. Emphysema

Emphysema

The major cause of emphysema: Question 50Select one: a. Chronic pneumonia b. Cigarette smoking c. Acute pneumonia d. War gas inhalation

Cigarette smoking

Hereditary disease associated with panacinar emphysema in young persons: Question 51Select one: a. Alpha-1 antichimotrypsin deficiency b. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency c. Alpha-2 antitrypsin deficiency d. Alpha-2 antichimotrypsin deficiency

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Localized emphysema with a large area of pulmonary destruction: Question 52Select one: a. Nodule b. Bulla c. Cavity d. Bag

Bulla

Most frequent morphologic subtype of emphysema: Question 53Select one: a. Centroacinar emphysema b. Panacinar emphysema c. Centrilobular emphysema d. Distal acinar emphysema

Centrilobular emphysema

Episodic air-flow obstruction in response to allergic and idiosyncratic inciting factors: Question 54Select one: a. Foreign body inhalation b. Edema c. Asthma d. Emphysema

Asthma

Severe asthmatic bronchoconstriction that does not respond to drugs that usually abort the acute attack: Question 55Select one: a. Status asthmaticus b. Permanent asthma c. Unusual asthama d. Asthmatic shock

Status asthmaticus

Pulmonary disease caused by dust inhalation: Question 56Select one: a. Emphysema b. Asthma c. Psittacosis d. Pneumoconioses

Pneumoconioses

Type of occupational pneumoconiosis affecting sandblaster: Question 57Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Anthracosis c. Berilliosis d. Silicosis

Silicosis

Infectious disease more common in patients with silicosis than in the general population: Question 58Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Asthma c. Pleuritis d. Anthracosis

Tuberculosis

Asbestos-related pleural malignancy: Question 59Select one: a. Angiosarcoma b. Soliter fibrous tumor c. Pleuritis d. Mesothelioma

Mesothelioma

Non-neoplastic lung disease caused by asbestos: Question 60Select one: a. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis b. Diffuse alveolar damage c. Focal intertitial edema d. Focal interstitial fibrosis

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis

Type of pneumonitis reflecting a response to inhaled allergens (e.g. fungi and spores in certain occupational settings): Question 61Select one: a. Hypersensitive pneumonitis b. Granulomatous pneumonitis c. Usual interstitial pneumonitis d. Diffuse alveolar pneumonitis

Hypersensitive pneumonitis

Non-caseating granulomatous pulmonary disease most often seen in Afro- Americans: Question 62Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Sarcoidosis c. Berilliosis d. Wegener’s granulomatosis

Sarcoidosis

Star-shaped crystaline intracellular inclusion within sarcoid granulomas: Question 63Select one: a. Crystal bodies b. Asteroid bodies c. Hyaline bodies d. Star bodies

Asteroid bodies

Site of ocular involvement by sarcoidosis: Question 64Select one: a. Conjunctiva b. Uveal tract c. Cornea d. Lens

Uveal tract

Idiopathic fibrosing pulmonary disease that features temporal heterogenity, a subpleural predilection, and the formation of cystic spaces: Question 65Select one: a. Usual interstitial pneumonia b. Pulmonary emphysema c. Bronchopneumonia d. Cystic fibrosis

Usual interstitial pneumonia

Diffuse lung disease characterized by marked accumulation of intraalveolar macrophages and seen exclusively in cigarette smokers: Question 66Select one: a. Hyalin membrane disease b. Alveolar proteinosis c. Diffuse alveolar damage d. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

Pneumonitis characterized by lymphoid infiltrates that are distributed diffusely in the interstitial spaces: Question 67Select one: a. Pulmonary lymphedema b. Pulmonary lymphoma c. Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia d. Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP)

Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia

Syndrome associated with lymphoid interstitial pneumonia in children: Question 68Select one: a. IRDS b. AIDS c. Potter’s syndrome d. Pneumococcal infection

AIDS

Disease characterized by aseptic necrotizing granulomatous inflammation and vasculitis that affects the respiratory tract and kidney: Question 69Select one: a. Miliary tuberculosis b. Granulomatosis with polyangitis (formerly Wegener’s granulomatosis) c. Xanthogranulomatosis d. Sarcoidosis

Granulomatosis with polyangitis (formerly Wegener’s granulomatosis)

Serum marker of Wegener’s granulomatosis: Question 70Select one: a. C-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) b. N-ANCA (nuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) c. M-ANCA (mitochondrial anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) d. P-ANCA (perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

C-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

Syndrome featuring asthma, eosinophilia and vasculitis: Question 71Select one: a. Henoch-Schönlein purpura b. Churg-Strauss syndrome c. Berger’s disease d. Goopasture’s syndrome

Churg-Strauss syndrome

Serum marker associated with Churg-Strauss syndrome: Question 72Select one: a. P-ANCA (anti- neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) b. C-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) c. N-ANCA (nuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) d. M-ANCA (mitochondrial anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

P-ANCA (anti- neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

Syndrome of pulmonary hypertension related to extreme obesity: Question 73Select one: a. ARDS b. Pickwick syndrome c. Kartagener syndrome d. IRDS

Pickwick syndrome

Benign pulmonary mass consisting of cartilage, fibromyxoid connective tissue, fat and bone: Question 74Select one: a. Pulmonary myxoma b. Pulmonary chondrosarcoma c. Pulmonary chondroma d. Pulmonary hamartoma

Pulmonary hamartoma

Mutated oncogene encountered in 25% of lung adenocarcinomas and 20% of large cell carcinomas: Question 75Select one: a. BRCA1 b. K-ras c. p53 d. B-raf

K-ras

Lung carcinoma in the apex that may extend to eighth cervical and first and second thoracic nerves: Question 76Select one: a. Clavicular tumor b. Costo-clavicular tumor c. Pancoast tumor d. Apical tumor

Pancoast tumor

Paraneoplastic complication of lung cancer featuring hyperpigmentation of skin: Question 77Select one: a. Melanosis nigricans b. Acantholysis nigricans c. Acanthosis nigricans d. Bronz diabetes

Acanthosis nigricans

Type of lung adenocarcinoma that grows along preexisting alveolar walls: Question 78Select one: a. Typical carcinoid tumor b. Squamous carcinoma c. Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma d. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

Highly aggressive malignant tumor of the lung that occasionally exhibits neuroendocrine features: Question 79Select one: a. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma c. Squamous carcinoma d. Typical carcinoid tumor

Small cell carcinoma

Most common poorly differentiated lung tumor that does not show features of squamous or glandular differentiation and is not a small cell carcinoma: Question 80Select one: a. Adenosquamous carcinoma b. Large cell carcinoma c. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma d. Typical carcinoid tumor

Large cell carcinoma

Carcinoid tumor with increased mitoses, tumor necrosis, increased cellularity and nuclear pleomorphism: Question 81Select one: a. Atypical carcinoid tumor b. Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma c. Bronchoalveolar carcinoid tumor d. Typical carcinoid tumor

Atypical carcinoid tumor

Most common lung tumor: Question 82Select one: a. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma b. Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma c. Metastatic tumor d. Squamous carcinoma

Metastatic tumor

Benign pleural tumor that is immunopositive for CD34 and bcl-2: Question 83Select one: a. Angiosarcoma b. Mesothelioma c. Solitary fibrous tumor d. Adenocarcinoma

Solitary fibrous tumor

Functional unit of the myofibril that extends from one Z band to next: Question 1Select one: a. Myomere b. Rhabdomere c. Fibromere d. Sarcomere

Sarcomere

Widespread acute necrosis of skeletal muscle fibers: Question 2Select one: a. Rhabdomyolisis b. Leiomyolisis c. Polimyositis d. Rhabdomyositis

Rhabdomyolisis

Mutated gene in Duchenne muscular dystrophy: Question 3Select one: a. Dystrophin b. OB c. BRCA1 d. Atrophin

Dystrophin

Inheritance pattern of Duchenne muscular dystrophy: Question 4Select one: a. Autosomal recessive b. Codominant c. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked inheritance

X-linked inheritance

Sites of primary muscle involvement in Duchenne muscular dystrophy: Question 5Select one: a. Proximal muscle groups, mainly around pelvic and shoulder girdles b. Distal muscles (hands, feet) c. Smooth muscles d. Myocardium

Proximal muscle groups, mainly around pelvic and shoulder girdles

Inflammatory myopathy featured by myocyte destruction due CD8-positive cytotoxic T cells: Question 6Select one: a. Polymyositis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. SLE d. Poliomyelitis

Polymyositis

Inflammatory myopathy and dermatitis caused by an immune-mediated microangiopathy: Question 7Select one: a. SLE b. Dermatomyositis c. Dermatitis herpetiformis d. Systemic sclerosis

Dermatomyositis

Autoantibody target in myasthenia gravis: Question 8Select one: a. Noradrenalin receptor b. Acetylcholine receptor at the myoneural junction c. Magnesium channel on the muscle cell membrane d. Calcium channel on the muscle cell membrane

Acetylcholine receptor at the myoneural junction

Tumor associated with myasthenia gravis: Question 9Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Leiomyoma c. Leukemia d. Thymoma

Thymoma

Paraneoplastic disorder that manifests as muscle weakness, wasting, and fatigability of proximal limbs and trunk: Question 10Select one: a. Dermatomyositis syndrome b. Lambert-Eaton syndrome c. Duchenne syndrome d. Polymyositis syndrome

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

Viral infection occasionally associated with rhabdomyolysis: Question 11Select one: a. Hepatitis virus b. Influenza virus c. Herpes simplex virus d. Mumps virus

Influenza virus

Superficial cells of the epidermis: Question 1Select one: a. Melanocytes b. Basal cells c. Glandular cells d. Keratinocytes

Keratinocytes

Termination site of tonofibrils at the iner cell membrane of keratinocytes: Question 2Select one: a. Endosomes b. Desmosomes c. Peroxisomas d. Chromosomes

Desmosomes

Specialized dendritic cells of the epidermis that contain Birbeck granules and express major histocompatibility complexes: Question 3Select one: a. Merkel cells b. Langerhans cells c. Langhans cells d. Eosinophil cells

Langerhans cells

Specialized neurosecretory cell within the basal layer of epidermis: Question 4Select one: a. Merkel cell b. Langerhans cells c. Langhans cells d. Eosinophil cells

Merkel cell

Major type of collagen within the epidermal basement membrane that binds laminin: Question 5Select one: a. Collagen type I b. Collagen type II c. Collagen type III d. Collagen type IV

Collagen type IV

Connective tissue deep to the epidermal basement membrane zone: Question 6Select one: a. Endodermis b. Fat tissue c. Dermis d. Epidermis

Dermis

Cells surrounding dermal venules that release vasoactive and chemotactic substances: Question 7Select one: a. Merkel cells b. Langhans cells c. Langerhans cells d. Mast cells

Mast cells

Term for baldness: Question 8Select one: a. Apolecia b. Alocepia c. Acolepia d. Alopecia

Alopecia

Circumscribed area of hair loss Question 9Select one: a. Alopecia localis b. Alopecia circumscripta c. Alopecia areata d. Alopecia focalis

Alopecia areata

Dermatoses characterized by striking thickening of the stratum corneum resulting in epidermal thickening and scales: Question 10Select one: a. Parakeratosis b. Dyskeratosis c. Sarcoidosis d. Ichtyoses

Ichtyoses

Most common form of ichthyosis, featuring autosomal dominant inheritance and absent synthesis of profilaggrin: Question 11Select one: a. Ichthyosis cornealis b. Ichthyosis vulneris c. Ichthyosis vulgaris d. Ichthyosis bulgaris

Ichthyosis vulgaris

Autosomal dominant disorder of keratinization characterized by multifocal keratoses, also known as keratosis follicularis: Question 12Select one: a. Bullous pemphigoid b. Pemphigus vulgaris c. Erythema multiforme d. Darier disease

Darier disease

Common proliferative skin disease characterized clinically by large, erythematous, scaly plaques commonly on extensor cutaneous surfaces, and microscopically by hyperkeratosis and striking parakeratosis: Question 13Select one: a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Darier disease c. Bullous pemphigoid d. Psoriasis

Psoriasis

Joint complication of psoriasis linked often to HLA-B27 haplotype: Question 14Select one: a. Gonarthrosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Coxarthrosis d. Psoriatic arthritis

Psoriatic arthritis

Blistering skin disorder caused by IgG antibodies to desmosomal protein desmoglein 3 within keratinocytes: Question 15Select one: a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Erythema multiforme c. Darier disease d. Bullous pemphigoid

Pemphigus vulgaris

Blistering skin disorder featuring blister formation in the basement membrane zone: Question 16Select one: a. Darier disease b. Pemphigus vulgaris c. Bullous pemphigoid d. Epidermolysis bullosa

Epidermolysis bullosa

Usual age of recognition of epidermolysis bullosa: Question 17Select one: a. Young adults b. Erderly c. Middle age d. Birth or short thereafter

Birth or short thereafter

Blistering disease caused by autoantibodies against basement membrane proteins: Question 18Select one: a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Bullous pemphigoid c. Darier disease d. Epidermolysis bullosa

Bullous pemphigoid

Pruritic cutaneous eruption over the extensor surfaces of the body, linked to gluten sensitivity: Question 19Select one: a. Dermatitis herpetiformis b. Pemphigus vulgaris c. Darier disease d. Epidermolysis bullosa

Dermatitis herpetiformis

Type of antibody within immune complexes deposited at the dermal-epidermal junction in dermatitis herpetiformis: Question 20Select one: a. IgG b. IgE c. IgA d. IgM

IgA

Self-limited skin disorder that varies from a few erythematous macules and blister to life-threatening skin ulceration of, also known as Stevens-Johnson syndrome: Question 21Select one: a. Erythema multiforme b. Epidermolysis bullosa c. Darier disease d. Dermatitis herpetiformis

Erythema multiforme

Distribution of immune deposits in skin in systemic lupus erythematosus: Question 22Select one: a. Epidermis b. Subcutan fat tissue c. Dermis d. Epidermal basement membrane zone

Epidermal basement membrane zone

Chronic cutaneous manifestation of lupus erythematosus, generally above the neck: Question 23Select one: a. Epidermolysis bullosa b. Discoid lupus erythematosus c. Erythema multiforme d. Dermatitis herpetiformis

Discoid lupus erythematosus

Usually transient facial skin manifestation of acute systemic lupus erythematosus: Question 24Select one: a. Caput medusae b. Erythema multiforme c. Butterfly rash d. Discoid lupus erythematosus

Butterfly rash

Skin hypersensitivity reaction that features dense lymphocytic infiltrates at the dermal-epidermal junction and clinically appearing as scaly growth: Question 25Select one: a. Lichen foliosa (leafy) b. Lichen planus c. Lichen fructicosa (shrubby) d. Lichen crustosa (crusty)

Lichen planus

Raised, pale, well-demarcated pruritic skin papules and plaques that disappear within a few hours: Question 26Select one: a. Dermatitis herpetiformis b. Erythema multiforme c. Epidermolysis bullosa d. Urticaria or hives

Urticaria or hives

Urticarial edema involving the deeper dermis or subcutis: Question 27Select one: a. Capillary thrombosis b. Neurogenic edema c. Vein congestion d. Angioedema

Angioedema

Synonyms for palpable purpura often associated with specific infectious agents such as hepatitis B and C, caused by circulating immune complexes deposited in vascular walls: Question 28Select one or more: a. Cutaneous necrotizing vasculitis b. Granulomatosis with polyangitis c. Hypersensitivity angiitis d. Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

Cutaneous necrotizing vasculitis, Hypersensitivity angiitis, Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

Rash elicited by poison ivy: Question 29Select one: a. Atopic dermatitis b. Stasis dermatitis c. Neurodermatitis d. Allergic contact dermatitis

Allergic contact dermatitis

Effector cell of allergic contact dermatitis: Question 30Select one: a. CD20+ lymphocytes b. CD30+ lymphocytes c. CD4+ lymphocytes d. CD8+ lymphocytes

CD4+ lymphocytes

Systemic disease that causes marked skin thickening and accumulation of large, reticular collagen bundles oriented parallel to the epidermis: Question 31Select one: a. Dermal collagenosis b. Skin fibrosis c. Keloid d. Scleroderma

Scleroderma

Cutaneous disorder that manifests as self-limited, non-suppurative, tender nodules over the extensor surfaces of the lower extremities, triggered by environmental agents including drugs and microorganisms: Question 32Select one: a. Erythema nodosum b. Erythema multiforme c. Erythema contagiosum d. Erythema planum

Erythema nodosum

Self-limited, inflammatory disorder of sebaceous follicles that typically affects adolescents: Question 33Select one: a. Acne vulgaris b. Acne mechanica c. Acne rosacea d. Acne conglobata

Acne vulgaris

Distended, plugged follicles of acne vulgaris: Question 34Select one: a. Comedone b. Comedo necrosis c. Cyst d. Nodules

Comedone

Superficial infection of the skin with staphylococci or streptococci: Question 35Select one: a. Impetigo b. Comedone c. Mole d. Verruca

Impetigo

Infectious skin lesion featuring firm, dome-shaped, smooth-surfaced papules with a charcteristic central umbilication: Question 36Select one: a. Comedone b. Impetigo c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Verruca vulgaris

Molluscum contagiosum

Benign localized proliferation of melanocytes within the epidermis or dermis: Question 37Select one: a. Melanosis b. Naevus or mole c. Pigmentosis d. Melanoma

Naevus or mole

Type of nevus wherein nests of melanocytes are seen in the epidermis and some of the cells have migrated into the dermis: Question 38Select one: a. Dermal nevus b. Compound nevus c. Blue nevus d. Epidermal nevus

Compound nevus

Malignant skin melanoma in the radial growth phase: Question 39Select one: a. Deeply invasive melanoma b. Flat spreading melanoma c. Superficial spreading melanoma d. Vertical spreading melanoma

Superficial spreading melanoma

Major risk factor for malignant melanoma: Question 40Select one: a. Skin injury b. Sun exposure and sunburn c. Azbest d. Alcohol

Sun exposure and sunburn

Growth phase of malignant melanoma that is perpendicular to the radial growth phase. Question 41Select one: a. Pararadial growth phase b. Pagetoid growth phase c. Vertical growth phase d. Superficial growth phase

Vertical growth phase

Strongest prognostic factor for melanoma: Question 42Select one: a. The presence of melanin pigment b. Tumor diameter c. The presence of necrosis d. Tumor thickness

Tumor thickness

Skin lesion caused by human papillomavirus: Question 43Select one: a. Verruca b. Pustula c. Acne d. Impetigo

Verruca

Sexually transmitted wart, caused by HPV serotypes 6 and 11, occurring around the genitalia: Question 44Select one: a. Ulcus durum b. Condyloma latum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Seborrheic keratosis

Condyloma acuminatum

Common benign horny epidermal growth composed of keratinocytes that are easily rubbed off: Question 45Select one: a. Seborrheic keratosis b. Condyloma latum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Ulcus durum

Seborrheic keratosis

The most common malignant tumor in persons with pale skin: Question 46Select one: a. Malignant melanoma b. Squamous carcinoma c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Sebaceous carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Highly aggressive tumor of epidermal neurosecretory cells: Question 47Select one: a. Malignant melanoma b. Merkel-cell carcinoma c. Squamous carcinoma d. Sebaceous carcinoma

Merkel-cell carcinoma

Skin neoplasm that differentiates toward hair structures: Question 48Select one: a. Trichoepithelioma b. Malignant melanoma c. Sebaceous carcinoma d. Squamous carcinoma

Trichoepithelioma

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma composed of helper T cells: Question 49Select one: a. Large B-cell lymphoma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Mycosis fungoides d. MALT lymphoma

Mycosis fungoides

Skin sarcoma caused by human herpesvirus 8, often seen in patients with AIDS: Question 50Select one: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Fibrosarcoma c. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma d. Kaposi sarcoma

Kaposi sarcoma

Inflammation of the eyelids: Question 1Select one: a. Chalazion b. Keratitis c. Hordeolum d. Blepharitis

Blepharitis

Granulomatous inflammation centered around the Meibomian glands: Question 2Select one: a. Conjuctivitis b. Blepharitis c. Hordeolum d. Chalazion

Chalazion

Yellow plaques of lipid-containing macrophages, usually involving the nasal aspect of the eyelids: Question 3Select one: a. Xanthelasma b. Chalazion c. Cholesterolosis d. Hordeolum

Xanthelasma

Bilateral, abnormal bulging (protrusion) of the eyeballs: Question 4Select one: a. Proptosis b. Exophthalmus c. Hordeolum d. Pinguecula

Exophthalmus

Unilateral protrusion of an eye: Question 5Select one: a. Chalazion b. Exophthalmus c. Proptosis d. Ptosis

Proptosis

Autoimmune disease of the thyroid that causes bilateral eye bulging (exophthalmus): Question 6Select one: a. Hashimoto thyreoiditis b. Hypothyreoidism c. Graves’ disease d. Riedel struma

Graves’ disease

Chronic, contagious conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis: Question 7Select one: a. Conjuctivitis sicca b. Amoebasis c. Chalazion d. Trachoma

Trachoma

Severe, acute conjunctivitis with purulent discharge, especially in the newborn, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Question 8Select one: a. Keratitis neonatorum b. Keratoconjuctivitis c. Balanitis purulenta d. Ophthalmia neonatorum

Ophthalmia neonatorum

Yellowish conjunctival lump usually located nasal to the corneoscleral limbus: Question 9Select one: a. Chalazion b. Pinguecula c. Trachoma d. Hordeolum

Pinguecula

Fold of vascularized conjunctiva that grows horizontally onto the cornea in the shape of an insect wing: Question 10Select one: a. Hordeolum b. Ptosis c. Pterygium d. Chalazion

Pterygium

Type of herpesvirus that has a predilection for corneal epithelium in contagious conjunctivitis: Question 11Select one: a. Herpesvirus type 2 b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-Zoster virus d. Herpesvirus type 1

Herpesvirus type 1

Nematode responsible for corneal opacification and visual impairment in river blindness: Question 12Select one: a. Trichinella spiralis b. Dirofilaria immitis c. Onchocerca volvulus d. Ascaris lumbricoides

Onchocerca volvulus

Opacification in the crystalline lens: Question 13Select one: a. Cataract b. Glaucoma c. Hordeolum d. Chalazion

Cataract

Secondary complication of cataract degeneration: Question 14Select one: a. Ptosis b. Hordeolum c. Glaucoma d. Ophthalmitis

Glaucoma

Development of bilateral granulomatous inflammation of the uvea after a latent period in response to an injury in the eye: Question 15Select one: a. Contralateral ophthalmitis b. Parasympathetic ophthalmitis c. Idiopathic ophthalmitis d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

Sympathetic ophthalmitis

Which ophthalmic manifestation is NOT associated with retinal hemorrhage: Question 16Select one: a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Hypertension c. Neuritis retrobulbaris d. Diabetes mellitus

Neuritis retrobulbaris

Which feature is NOT part of hypertensive retinopathy: Question 17Select one: a. Arteriolar narrowing b. Varices, retinitis pigmentosa c. Cotton-wool spots, microaneurysm d. Flame-shaped hemorrhages, exudates

Varices, retinitis pigmentosa

Major regions of the eye affected by diabetes mellitus: Question 18Select one: a. Retina, Cornea, Conjunctiva, Lens b. Retina, Cornea, Iris, Lens c. Retina, Cornea, Iris, Conjucntiva d. Retina, Conjuctiva, Iris, Lens

Retina, Cornea, Iris, Lens

Major phases of progression in diabetic retinopathy: Question 19Select one: a. Nonhypertophic and hypertrophic retinopathy b. Acute diabetic and chronic diabetic retinopathy c. Nonproliferative and proliferative retinopathy d. Nonhyperplastic and hyperplastic retinopathy

Nonproliferative and proliferative retinopathy

Separation of the sensory retina from the pigment epithelium: Question 20Select one: a. Macula edema b. Macular degeneration c. Retinal detachment d. Retinal rupture

Retinal detachment

Bilateral, progressive, degenerative retinopathy characterized clinically by night blindness and constriction of peripheral visual fields, pathologically by loss of retinal photoreceptors and pigment accumulation within the retina: Question 21Select one: a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Uveitis pigmentosa c. Macular degeneration d. Neuritis pigmentosa

Retinitis pigmentosa

Most common age-related cause of blindness among individuals of European descent older than age 65: Question 22Select one: a. Hypertension b. Cataracta c. Macular degeneration d. Diabetes mellitus

Macular degeneration

Iatrogenic cause of retinopathy of premature babies: Question 23Select one: a. CO2 toxicity b. O2 toxicity c. CO toxicity d. N2 toxicity

O2 toxicity

Obvious sign of optic nerve swelling often due to increased intracranial pressure: Question 24Select one: a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Optic nerve head edema or papilledema c. Glaucoma d. Macula edema

Optic nerve head edema or papilledema

Collection of progressive visual disorders due to increase of the intraocular pressure partially caused by the demage of the optic innervation: Question 25Select one: a. Glaucoma b. Hordeolum c. Ptosis d. Cataracta

Glaucoma

Common cause of glaucoma: Question 26Select one: a. Obstruction of aqueous drainage b. Hypothyreoidism c. Hyperthyreoidism d. Conjunctivitis

Obstruction of aqueous drainage

Most common form of glaucoma: Question 27Select one: a. Secondary open-angle glaucoma b. Primary open-angle glaucoma c. Secondary closed-angle glaucoma d. Primary closed-angle glaucoma

Primary open-angle glaucoma

Type of glaucoma that features acute, emergent ocular hypertension: Question 28Select one: a. Primary open-angle glaucoma b. Secondary open-angle glaucoma c. Primary closed-angle glaucoma d. Secondary closed-angle glaucoma

Primary closed-angle glaucoma

Most common primary intraocular malignancy, with the choroid being the most common site: Question 29Select one: a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Malignant melanoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Retinoblastoma

Malignant melanoma

Intraocular pediatric malignancy due to mutation in a tumor-suppressor gene located on the long arm of chromosome 13: Question 30Select one: a. Neuroblastoma b. Kaposi sarcoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Malignant melanoma

Retinoblastoma

Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas that involves failure of the two pancre-atic rudiments to fuse: Question 1Select one: a. Annular pancreas b. Cuboid pancreas c. Pancreas fishmonger d. Pancreas divisum

Pancreas divisum

Pancreatic anomaly wherein the pancreatic head surrounds the descendent portion of the duodenum: Question 2Select one: a. Superpancreas b. Cuboid pancreas c. Annular pancreas d. Extra pancreas

Annular pancreas

Pancreatic disease characterized by acinar cell necrosis, intense acute inflammation and foci of necrotic fat cells: Question 3Select one: a. Chronic pancreatitis b. Fibrosis pancreatic c. Acute pancreatitis d. Bronz diabetes

Acute pancreatitis

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis: Question 4Select one: a. Gallstones b. Bacterial infection c. Alcoholism d. Viral infection

Gallstones

Second most common cause of acute pancreatitis: Question 5Select one: a. Hepatitis b. Viral infection c. Alcohol abuse d. Gallstones

Alcohol abuse

Serum enzyme elevation characteristic for acute pancreatitis: Question 6Select one: a. Amylase and lipase b. Tripsin c. Kemotripsin d. Pepsin

Amylase and lipase

Progressive destruction of the pancreatic parenchyma featured with irregular fibrosis and chronic inflammation: Question 7Select one: a. Necrotizing pancreatitis b. Acute pancreatitis c. Chronic pancreatitis d. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

Chronic pancreatitis

Common cystic complication of acute pancreatitis: Question 8Select one: a. Pancreatitis cystica b. Pancreatic pseudocyst c. Cystic fibrosis d. Cysta pancreatica

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis: Question 9Select one: a. Chronic alcoholism b. Kidney stones c. Gallstones d. Hepatitis

Chronic alcoholism

Inherited disease that causes chronic pancreatitis associated with obstruction of ducts by inspissated mucus: Question 10Select one: a. Bronze diabetes b. Diabetes mellitus c. Atrophic pancreatitis d. Cystic fibrosis

Cystic fibrosis

Type of chronic pancreatitis associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, primary biliary cirrhosis or inflammatory bowel disease: Question 11Select one: a. Autoimmune chronic pancreatitis b. Autoimmune hepatitis c. Cushing syndrome d. SLE

Autoimmune chronic pancreatitis

Benign pancreatic neoplasm composed of cyst uniformly lined by cuboidal epithelium: Question 12Select one: a. Cystadenocarcinoma b. Serous cystadenoma c. Mucinous cystadenoma d. Papillary carcinoma

Serous cystadenoma

The major environmental risk factor for pancreatic carcinoma: Question 13Select one: a. Irradiation b. Alcoholism c. Hypertonia d. Cigarette smoking

Cigarette smoking

Clinical presentation seen in about half of all patients with pancreatic head carcinoma: Question 14Select one: a. Headache b. Paleness c. Jaundice d. Abdominal pain

Jaundice

Most common histological type of pancreatic cancer: Question 15Select one: a. Lymphoma b. Adenoma c. Ductal adenocarcinoma d. Lobular adenocarcinoma

Ductal adenocarcinoma

Acute, painless enlargement of gallbladder accompanied by jaundice in patients with pan-creatic head carcinoma: Question 16Select one: a. Trousseau’s sign b. Caput medusae c. Courvoisier’s sign d. Thrombophlebitis migrans

Courvoisier’s sign

Most common pancreatic tumor of childhood: Question 17Select one: a. Pancreatoadenoblastoma b. Lipoblastoma c. Pancreatoadenoma d. Pancreatoblastoma

Pancreatoblastoma

Hypercoagulable complication of pancreatic adenocarcinoma: Question 18Select one: a. Courvoisier’s sign b. Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome) c. TTP d. DIC

Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome)

Pancreatic endocrine cell type that produce insulin: Question 19Select one: a. Beta cell b. Alpha cell c. Delta cell d. Gamma cell

Beta cell

Pancreatic endocrine cell type that produce glucagon: Question 20Select one: a. Gamma cell b. Delta cell c. Beta cell d. Alpha cell

Alpha cell

Pancreatic endocrine tumor associated with hypoglycemia, confusion, sweating and palpi-tation: Question 21Select one: a. Glucagonoma b. VIPoma c. Somatostatinoma d. Insulinoma

Insulinoma

Syndrome of intractable gastric hyperacidity caused by islet cell tumor of G cells: Question 22Select one: a. MEN-1 syndrome b. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome c. MEN-2 syndrome d. Verner-Morrison syndrome

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Syndrome caused by endocrine tumor associated with elevated levels of VIP and charac-terized by explosive diarrhea with hypokalemia and hypochlorhydria: Question 23Select one: a. Virchow syndrome b. Steven syndrome c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome d. Verner-Morrison syndrome

Verner-Morrison syndrome

Genetic syndrome that features adenomas of the pituitary, parathyroid and endocrine pan-creas: Question 24Select one: a. Zollinger- Ellison syndrome b. Multiple endocrine neoplasia, type II (MEN-2) c. FAP syndrome d. Multiple endocrine neoplasia, type I (MEN-1)

Multiple endocrine neoplasia, type I (MEN-1)

Myelin-producing cells of the central nervous system: Question 1Select one: a. Oligodendroglia b. Neuron c. Astrocyte d. Purkinje- cells

Oligodendroglia

Cells that line the ventricular chambers of the brain: Question 2Select one: a. Pyramidal cells b. Ependymal cells c. Astrocyte d. Oligodendroglia

Ependymal cells

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by: Question 3Select one: a. Oligodenroglia b. Cauda equina c. Choroid plexus d. Astrocytes

Choroid plexus

Phagocytic macrophage-derived cells of the central nervous system: Question 4Select one: a. Microglia b. Ependymal cells c. Astrocyte d. Macroglia

Microglia

Congenital absence of all or part of the brain: Question 5Select one: a. Hypoencephaly b. Aplasia cerebri c. Anencephaly d. Hypoplasia cerebri

Anencephaly

Defects due to impaired closure of the dorsal aspect of the vertebral column: Question 6Select one: a. Anencephalia b. Neural tube defect or dysraphic states c. Hydrocephalus d. Cauda equine

Neural tube defect or dysraphic states

Dysraphic abnormality localized to the lumbosacral region: Question 7Select one: a. Ependymoma b. Spina bifida c. Compression fracture of the vertebra d. Discus hernia

Spina bifida

Dysraphic defect that permits protrusion of the meninges has a fluid-filled sac, usually within the lumbosacral region: Question 8Select one: a. Meningomyelocele b. Myeloschisis c. Spina aperta d. Meningocele

Meningocele

Lumbosacral neural tube defect that exposes the spinal canal and causes nerve roots to be entrapped in subcutaneous scar tissue: Question 9Select one: a. Meningomyelocele b. Spina occulta c. Spina aperta d. Myelocele

Meningomyelocele

Vitamin deficiency associated with spina bifida: Question 10Select one: a. C vitamin deficiency b. Folic acid deficiency c. B12 vitamin deficiency d. A vitamin deficiency

Folic acid deficiency

Most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus: Question 11Select one: a. Congenital atresia of the aperture of the lateral ventricle IV. b. Congenital atresia of the spinal central canal c. Congenital atresia of the aperture median ventricle IV. d. Congenital atresia of the cerebral aqueduct

Congenital atresia of the cerebral aqueduct

Brain malformation featuring small and excessive gyri, often associated with mental retardation: Question 12Select one: a. Microgyria b. Polymicrogyria c. Hydrocephalus d. Anencephaly

Polymicrogyria

Focal disturbances in the neuronal migration that lead to nodules of ectopic neurons and glia: Question 13Select one: a. Ectopia b. Atresia c. Aganglia d. Heterotopia

Heterotopia

Chromosomal abnormality in Down syndrome: Question 14Select one: a. Trisomy 20 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 21

Trisomy 21

Accumulation of blood between the calvaria and the dura: Question 15Select one: a. Subarachnoideal hematoma b. Periosteal hematoma c. Subdural hematoma d. Epidural hematoma

Epidural hematoma

Arteries often disrupted in temporal bone fractures: Question 16Select one: a. Internal cerebral artery b. Anterior meningeal arteries c. Posterior meningeal arteries d. Middle meningeal arteries

Middle meningeal arteries

Hematoma due to torn bridging veins in the subdural space: Question 17Select one: a. Subarachnoid hematoma b. Intraventricular bleeding c. Subdural hematoma d. Epidural hematoma

Subdural hematoma

Most frequent cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage: Question 18Select one: a. Arterial thrombosis b. Berry aneurysm rupture c. Arterial embolism d. Rupture of bridging veins

Berry aneurysm rupture

Brain contusions occurring at the point of traumatic impact and the contralateral site: Question 19Select one: a. Point and antipoint lesions b. Lateral and contralateral lesions c. Traumatic and countertraumatic lesions d. Coup and countercoup lesions

Coup and countercoup lesions

Most common congenital vascular malformation in the brain: Question 20Select one: a. Cavernosus hemangioma b. Arteriovenous fistule c. Bridging vein varices d. Arteriovenous malformation

Arteriovenous malformation

Type of aneurysm most commonly occurring at branching points of the intracranial arteries: Question 21Select one: a. Apple aneurysm b. Saccular or berry aneurysm c. Strawberry aneurysm d. Fusiform aneurysm

Saccular or berry aneurysm

Most common sites of hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage: Question 22Select one: a. Basal ganglia-thalamus b. Corpus callosum c. Hippocampus d. Cortex

Basal ganglia-thalamus

Infarcts occurring in overlapping territories of the cerebral arteries: Question 23Select one: a. Watershed infarcts b. Seashore infarcts c. Communicating infarcts d. Anastomosing infarcts

Watershed infarcts

Usual cause of cerebrovascular occlusive disease: Question 24Select one: a. Varices b. Atherosclerosis c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Gaucher disease

Atherosclerosis

Dilation of cerebral ventricles by accumulated cerebrospinal fluid: Question 25Select one: a. Ventricular herniation b. Hemocephalus c. Hydrocephalus d. Ventriculocele

Hydrocephalus

Type of hydrocephalus resulting from obstruction to the flow of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain: Question 26Select one: a. Non-communicating hydrocephalus b. Hydrocephalus ex vacuo c. Non-proliferative hydrocephalus d. Communicating hydrocephalus

Non-communicating hydrocephalus

Gram-negative bacteria usually responsible for meningitis in newborn: Question 27Select one: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Neisseria meningitides d. Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli

Syndrome of adrenal hemorrhage with meningeal infection with Neisseria meningitidis: Question 28Select one: a. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome b. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome c. Berger disease d. Henoch- Schönlein purpura

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Posterior spinal column degeneration seen in tertiary syphilis: Question 29Select one: a. Chancre b. Amyothrophic lateral sclerosis c. Sclerosis multiplex d. Tabes dorsalis

Tabes dorsalis

Intracellular, eosinophilic, neuronal cytoplasmic inclusion in rabies: Question 30Select one: a. Rabies bodies b. Sushi bodies c. Mallory bodies d. Negri bodies

Negri bodies

Virus responsible for shingles: Question 31Select one: a. Herpes simplex virus b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Varicella-zoster virus

Varicella-zoster virus

Virus that causes subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: Question 32Select one: a. Rubella virus b. Measles virus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Mumps virus

Measles virus

Virus that causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy: Question 33Select one: a. Measles virus b. Mumps virus c. Morbilli virus d. JC virus

JC virus

Common histologic changes in prion diseases: Question 34Select one: a. Cytotoxic edema b. Hemorrhagic degeneration c. Mucoid degeneration d. Degeneration of neurons and vacuolization, or spongiform degeneration

Degeneration of neurons and vacuolization, or spongiform degeneration

Mechanism of expansion of pathogenic prion pools: Question 35Select one: a. Necroptosis b. Necrosis c. Autocatalytic expansion d. Apoptosis

Autocatalytic expansion

Most common form of prion disease: Question 36Select one: a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. Hurler syndrome c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Tay-Sachs disease

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Most common chronic demyelinating disease of young adults: Question 37Select one: a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson’s disease d. Central pontine myelinolysis

Multiple sclerosis

Demyelinating disorder that affects the pons, usually in alcoholics: Question 38Select one: a. Subdural hematoma b. Central pontine myelinolysis c. Guillain- Barre syndrome d. Multiple sclerosis

Central pontine myelinolysis

Lethal autosomal recessive disorder featuring accumulation of ganglioside in CNS neurons caused by deficiency of hexosaminidase A: Question 39Select one: a. Niemann-Pick disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Hurler syndrome d. Alzheimer’s disease

Tay-Sachs disease

Autosomal recessive disturbance of glycosaminoglycan metabolism that results in intraneuronal accumulation of mucopolysaccharides: Question 40Select one: a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Hurler syndrome d. Hungtinton disease

Hurler syndrome

Autosomal recessive disorder featuring intraneuronal storage of sphingomyelin: Question 41Select one: a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Wernicke syndrome c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Tay-Sachs disease

Niemann-Pick disease

Syndrome secondary to thiamine deficiency in alcoholics featuring lesions in the hypothalamus, mammillary bodies and regions of the midbrain and pons: Question 42Select one: a. Wernicke syndrome b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Hungtinton disease d. Parkinson’s disease

Wernicke syndrome

Common, progressive neurologic disorder that features amyloid beta-containing senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles: Question 43Select one: a. Parkinson’s disease b. Wernicke syndrome c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Hungtinton disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Molecular constituents of neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer disease: Question 44Select one: a. Alzheimer proteins b. Substantia nigra c. Amyloid filaments d. Tau filaments

Tau filaments

Movement disorder characterized by loss of neurons, principally in the substantia nigra, and accumulation of Lewy bodies: Question 45Select one: a. Huntington disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Niemann-Pick disease

Parkinson’s disease

Degenerative disease of motor neurons within the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, the motor nuclei of the brainstem and the upper motor neurons of the cerebral cortex: Question 46Select one: a. Wernicke syndrome b. Huntington disease c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Parkinson’s disease

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Movement and cognitive disorder featuring atrophy of the caudate nuclei and expansion of trinucleotide CAG repeats: Question 47Select one: a. Parkinson’s disease b. Huntington disease c. Kuru disease d. Alzheimer’s disease

Huntington disease

Indolent brain tumor composed of well-differentiated astrocytes: Question 48Select one: a. Ependymoma b. Glioblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Medulloblastoma

Astrocytoma

Astrocytoma with increased cellularity, cellular pleomorphism and anaplasia: Question 49Select one: a. Diffuse astrocytoma b. Anaplastic astrocytoma c. Glioblastoma d. Pilocytic astrocytoma

Anaplastic astrocytoma

Glial neoplasm characterized by marked cellularity, ‘geographic’ necrosis and endothelial cell proliferation: Question 50Select one: a. Astrocytoma WHO grade I (pilocytic astrocytoma) b. Astrocytoma WHO grade III (anaplastic astrocytoma) c. Astrocytoma WHO grade IV (glioblastoma) d. Astrocytoma WHO grade II (diffuse astrocytoma)

Astrocytoma WHO grade IV (glioblastoma)

Most common tumor of the fourth ventricle, often obstructing the flow of CSF and causing hydrocephalus: Question 51Select one: a. Ependymoma b. Meningeoma c. Neurofibroma d. Medulloblastoma

Ependymoma

Neuroblastic tumor that arises most often in the cerebellum of children: Question 52Select one: a. Ependymoma b. Meningeoma c. Astrocytoma d. Medulloblastoma

Medulloblastoma

Intracranial tumor derived from arachnoidal cells that produces symptoms by compressing adjacent brain tissue: Question 53Select one: a. Meningioma b. Arachnoidoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Schwannoma

Meningioma

Genetic disorder most frequently associated with meningiomas: Question 54Select one: a. Parkinson’s disease b. Thurler sndrome c. Neurofibromatosis type 2 d. Hurler syndome

Neurofibromatosis type 2

Type of tumor of which acoustic neuroma represents one form: Question 55Select one: a. Medulloblastoma b. Meningeoma c. Schwannoma d. Fibroma

Schwannoma

Solid and cystic tumor located above the sella turcica that arises from the epithelium of Rathke’s pouch: Question 56Select one: a. Schwannoma b. Craniopharyngioma c. Squamous carcinoma of the brain d. Neurofibromatosis

Craniopharyngioma

Tumor that replaces the pineal gland and may produce precocious puberty: Question 57Select one: a. Menigeoma b. Schwannoma c. Pineoblastoma d. Germ cell tumor

Germ cell tumor

Most common intracranial neoplasm: Question 58Select one: a. Astrocytoma b. Meningioma c. Hemangioma d. Metastatic tumor

Metastatic tumor

Most common form of diabetic neuropathy: Question 59Select one: a. Motoric polyneuropathy b. Distal, predominantly sensory polyneuropathy c. Proximal polyneuropathy d. Proximal, predominantly sensory polyneuropathy

Distal, predominantly sensory polyneuropathy

Most common cause of toxic distal sensorimotor axonal polyneuropathy: Question 60Select one: a. Hypercholesterinaemia b. Alcoholism c. Diabetes mellitus d. Uremia

Alcoholism

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that often follows immunization or viral, bacterial, and mycoplasmal infection: Question 61Select one: a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Huntington disease

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Type of neuropathy that often precedes the diagnosis of underlying cancer: Question 62Select one: a. Cancer associated neuropathy b. Neuropathy tumorosa c. Paraneoplastic neuropathy d. Cancer related neuropathy

Paraneoplastic neuropathy

Schwannoma that involves the eighth cranial nerve: Question 63Select one: a. Trigeminal neurinoma b. Abducens neurinoma c. Acustic or vestibular neurinoma/schwannoma d. Facial neurinoma

Acustic or vestibular neurinoma/schwannoma

Tumor of peripheral nerve composed of Schwann cells, perineural-like cells, and fibroblasts: Question 64Select one: a. Fibroblastoma b. Schwannoma c. Fibroma d. Neurofibroma

Neurofibroma

Inherited disorder accounting for 50% of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNSTs): Question 65Select one: a. Neurofibromatosis b. Gliosis c. Fibromatosis d. Schwannoma

Neurofibromatosis

Which is not a type of brain herniation: Question 66Select one: a. Subfalcine herniation b. Tonsillary herniation c. Transfrontal herniation d. Cingular herniation

Transfrontal herniation

The appropriate indications for intra-operative consultation („frozen section") are: Select one or more: a. Controlling the involvement of surgical margins b. Checking whether the sample is representative and is from the target area c. Determination whether the sample is suitable for diagnosis (ratio of necrotic vs live tis-sue) d. Allow the surgeon to communicate the diagnosis immediately after the procedure

a, b, c