Patho minimals Flashcards
Breast or nipple tissue present along the embryonic breast ridge superior or inferior to the main breast:
Question 1Select one:
a.
Multiple breast syndrome
b.
Accessory mammary gland/nipple
c.
Extra breast
d.
Embryonic breast
Accessory mammary gland/nipple
Hormonally induced glandular breast swelling in young boys or girls:
Question 2Select one:
a.
Gynecohyperplasia
b.
Enlarged juvenile breast syndrome
c.
Gynecomastia
d.
Juvenile or pubertal hypertrophy
Juvenile or pubertal hypertrophy
Enlargement of the adult male breast:
Question 3Select one:
a.
Gynecomastia
b.
Hypertrophic breast
c.
Gynecoplasia
d.
Mastitis
Gynecomastia
Most common occurrence of acute mastitis:
Question 4Select one:
a.
Pubertal period
b.
Postpartum period or lactation
c.
Menopausal
d.
Post-menopausal
Postpartum period or lactation
Dilated large and intermediate breast ducts containing inspissated material with accompanying periductal inflammation and fibrosis:
Question 5Select one:
a.
Duct stenosis
b.
Duct ectasia
c.
Fibrocystic breast disease
d.
Mastitis cystica
Duct ectasia
Mass lesion of the breast usually induced by trauma:
Question 6Select one:
a.
Mastitis purulenta
b.
Abscedens mastitis
c.
Gynecomastia
d.
Fat necrosis
Fat necrosis
Three major histologic features of fibrocystic disease of the breast:
Question 7Select one or more:
a.
Variable proliferation of terminal duct epithelial elements
b.
Relative increase in fibrous stroma,
c.
Cystic dilation of terminal ducts,
d.
Sclerosing adenosis
Cystic dilation of terminal ducts,,
Relative increase in fibrous stroma,,
Variable proliferation of terminal duct epithelial elements
Type of fibrocystic change associated with a slightly increased risk for carcinoma:
Question 8Select one:
a.
Mastitis fibrosa
b.
Ductectasia
c.
Non-proliferative fibrocystic change
d.
Proliferative fibrocystic change
Proliferative fibrocystic change
Proliferation of small breast ducts and myoepithelial cells with surrounding stromal fibrosis:
Question 9Select one:
a.
Paget-disease
b.
Non-proliferative fibrocystic change
c.
Sclerosing adenosis
d.
DCIS
Sclerosing adenosis
Most common benign breast neoplasm:
Question 10Select one:
a.
Fibroadenoma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Sclerosing adenosis
d.
Phylloid tumor
Fibroadenoma
Benign intraductal tumor that typically arises from the surface of large, subareolar lactiferous ducts of middle-aged and older women:
Question 11Select one:
a.
DCIS
b.
Paget-disease
c.
Intraductal papilloma
d.
Phylloid tumor
Intraductal papilloma
Tumor suppressor genes often implicated in the pathogenesis of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer:
Select one or more:
a.
HER2
b.
BRCA1
c.
EGFR
d.
BRCA2
BRCA1, BRCA2
Malignant epithelial cells within the breast duct that have not penetrated the basement membrane:
Question 13Select one or more:
a.
Paget-disease
b.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
c.
Fibroadenoma
d.
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS),
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
High-grade in situ breast carcinoma containing necrotic material:
Question 14Select one:
a.
Phylloid tumor
b.
Ductal invasive carcinoma
c.
Necrotizing carcinoma
d.
Comedo carcinoma
Comedo carcinoma
In situ breast carcinoma that arises in the terminal duct lobular unit:
Question 15Select one:
a.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
b.
Fibroadenoma
c.
Paget-disease
d.
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
Truncated gene associated with lobular carcinoma:
Question 16Select one:
a.
BRCA2
b.
HER2
c.
BRCA1
d.
E-cadherin
E-cadherin
Most common type of invasive breast carcinoma:
Question 17Select one:
a.
Medullary carcinoma
b.
Invasive lobular carcinoma
c.
Invasive ductal carcinoma
d.
Mucinous carcinoma
Invasive ductal carcinoma
Ductal breast carcinoma that involves the epidermis at the nipple and areola:
Question 18Select one:
a.
Paget disease
b.
DCIS
c.
Inflammatory carcinoma
d.
Pylloid tumor
Paget disease
Aggressive invasive lobular carcinoma with marked nuclear atypia:
Question 19Select one:
a.
Low grade lobular carcinoma
b.
Medullolobular carcinoma
c.
Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma
d.
Intermediate grade lobular carcinoma
Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma
Invasive ductal breast carcinoma in which the malignant cells differentiate toward mesenchymal tissue:
Question 20Select one:
a.
Metaplastic carcinoma
b.
Metastatic carcinoma
c.
Paget-disease
d.
Carcinoma ducto-mesenchymale
Metaplastic carcinoma
Swollen, erythematous breast with plugging of dermal lymphatic vessels by tumor cells:
Question 21Select one:
a.
Infiltratory carcinoma
b.
Inflammatory carcinoma
c.
Carcinolymphoma
d.
Lymphocarcinoma
Inflammatory carcinoma
Most common site of breast carcinoma regional metastasis:
Question 22Select one:
a.
Mediastinal lymph nodes
b.
Axillary lymph nodes
c.
Cervical lymph nodes
d.
Supraclavicular lymph nodes
Axillary lymph nodes
Breast tumor displaying proliferation of malignant stromal elements accompanied by ductal structures:
Question 24Select one:
a.
Phyllodes tumor
b.
Invasive ductal carcinoma
c.
DCIS
d.
Fibroadenoma
Phyllodes tumor
Amplified gene that is responsible for increased c-erbB2 protein in up to 35% of breast carcinomas:
Question 23Select one:
a.
E-cadherin
b.
BRCA1
c.
BRCA2
d.
Her2/neu
Her2/neu
Cardiac defects commonly associated with hypoplastic left ventricle?
Question 1Select one:
a.
Tricuspidal stenosis
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Aortic transposition
d.
Aortic valvular stenosis or aortic atresia
Aortic valvular stenosis or aortic atresia
Cardiac complication of carcinoid syndrome?
Question 2Select one:
a.
Mitral regurgitation and aortic stenosis
b.
Tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis
c.
Tricuspid regurgitation and aortic stenosis
d.
Mitral regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary stenosis
Mutated gene associated with both Duchennne muscular dystrophy and dilated cardiomyopathy?
Question 3Select one:
a.
Actin
b.
Myoglobin
c.
Myogenin
d.
Dystrophin
Dystrophin
Most common types of bacteria that cause endocarditis in adults?
Question 4Select one:
a.
1 Streptococcus mutans 2 staphylococcus pyogenes
b.
1 Streptococcus viridans 2 staphylococcus epidermidis
c.
1 Streptococcus agalactiae 2 staphylococcus mitis
d.
1 Streptococcus salivaris 2 staphylococcus sanguinis
1 Streptococcus viridans 2 staphylococcus epidermidis
Onset of pericarditis 2 to 10 weeks after myocardial infarction?
Question 5Select one:
a.
Dressler syndrome
b.
Budd-Chiari syndrome
c.
Raynaud syndrome
d.
Kaposi syndrome
Dressler syndrome
Reversal of blood flow (shunt) from the right to the left in ventricular septal defect?
Question 6Select one:
a.
Eisenmenger complex
b.
Fallot complex
c.
Botalli complex
d.
Morgagni complex
Eisenmenger complex
Endocrine disturbance that causes high-output myocardial failure?
Question 7Select one:
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypergonadism
c.
Hypopituitarism
d.
Hyporthyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
The four anatomic changes defining tetralogy of Fallot?
Question 8Select one:
a.
Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy
b.
Aortic stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy
c.
Pulmonary stenosis, Atrial septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy
d.
Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding pulmonary artery, Right ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis, Ventricular septal defect, Overriding aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy
Most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in newborns?
Question 9Select one:
a.
Situs inversus
b.
Spina bifida
c.
Congenital malformation of the heart
d.
Foramen ovale apertum
Congenital malformation of the heart
Verrucous vegetation on heart valves in systemic lupus erythematosus?
Question 10Select one:
a.
Viral endocarditis
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
d.
Bacterial endocarditis
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
Most common primary cardiac tumor in infants?
Question 11Select one:
a.
Sarcoma
b.
Rhabdomyoma
c.
Leiomyoma
d.
Myxoma
Rhabdomyoma
Most common cause of toxic cardiomyopathy?
Question 12Select one:
a.
Cholesterol
b.
Ethanol
c.
Drugs
d.
Methanol
Ethanol
Systemic arterial embolization originating from thrombi of the venous circulation?
Question 13Select one:
a.
Forward emboli
b.
Retrograde emboli
c.
Parallel emboli
d.
Paradoxical emboli
Paradoxical emboli
Congenital malformation consisting of a common trunk for the origin of the aorta, pulmonary arteries, and coronary arteries?
Question 14Select one:
a.
Persistent truncus arteriosus
b.
Persistent vessel truncus
c.
Persistent vascular truncus
d.
Persistent venous truncus
Persistent truncus arteriosus
Primary disease of the myocardium that excludes damage caused by extrinsic factors?
Question 15Select one:
a.
Cardiomyopathy
b.
Ischemic heart disease
c.
Hypersensitive myocarditis
d.
Myocardial infarction
Cardiomyopathy
Sterile vegetation on apparently normal cardiac valves?
Question 16Select one:
a.
Septic viral endocarditis
b.
Nonbacterial proliferative (mural) endocarditis
c.
Septic bacterial endocarditis
d.
Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis
Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis
Rapid accumulation of pericardial fluid restricting the filling of the heart?
Question 17Select one:
a.
Hemothorax
b.
Hydrothorax
c.
Obstructive myocarditis
d.
Cardiac tamponade
Cardiac tamponade
Common cardiac complication caused by amyloidosis?
Question 18Select one:
a.
Obstructive cardiomyopathy
b.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
c.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Right heart failure due to pulmonary hypertension, entailing right ventricular hypertrophy and dilation?
Question 19Select one:
a.
Cor pulmonale acutum
b.
Cor pulmonale chronicum
c.
The common cause is portal hypertension
d.
The common cause is saddle embolism
Cor pulmonale chronicum
Chronic fibrosing disease of the pericardium with heart compression and restriction of cardiac inflow?
Question 20Select one:
a.
Hypertrophic pericarditis
b.
Constrictive pericarditis
c.
Fibrinous pericarditis
d.
Pericardial tamponade
Constrictive pericarditis
Major risk factors for coronary artery atherosclerosis?
Question 21Select one:
a.
1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol
b.
1 Hypotension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol
c.
1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Decreased blood cholesterol
d.
1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes insipidus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol
1 Hypertension 2 Cigarette smoking 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Elevated blood cholesterol
Most common condition responsible for cardiac failure?
Question 22Select one:
a.
Aortic stenosis
b.
Myocarditis
c.
Endocarditis
d.
Ischemic heart disease
Ischemic heart disease
The pathoanatomic basis for paradoxical embolism?
Question 23Select one:
a.
Down to up shunt
b.
Left to right shunt
c.
Up to down shunt
d.
Right to left shunt
Right to left shunt
Causative process usually preceding acute myocardial infarction?
Question 24Select one:
a.
Coronary artery inflammation
b.
Coronary artery dilatation
c.
Coronary artery thrombosis
d.
Coronary artery malformation
Coronary artery thrombosis
Most common cardiac complication of intravenous drug abuse?
Question 25Select one:
a.
Acute viral endocarditis
b.
Acute bacterial endocarditis
c.
Acute fungal endocarditis
d.
Liebman-Sacks endocarditis
Acute bacterial endocarditis
Organism that causes Chagas disease?
Question 26Select one:
a.
Bartonella hensellae
b.
Trypanosoma cruzi
c.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Trypanosoma cruzi
Most common early complication of acute myocardial infarction?
Question 27Select one:
a.
Cardiac arrhythmias
b.
Mural thrombosis
c.
Cardiac disruption
d.
Pericardial tamponade
Cardiac arrhythmias
Type of Streptococcus that causes rheumatic fever?
Question 28Select one:
a.
Streptococcus pyogenes (or group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus)
b.
Enterococcus fecalis (or group D Streptococcus)
c.
Streptococcus agalactiae (or group B Streptococcus)
d.
Streptococcus bovis (or group D Streptococcus)
Streptococcus pyogenes (or group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus)
Sudden event in the subacute phase of myocardial infarct leading to hemopericardium?
Question 29Select one:
a.
Myocarditis
b.
Pericarditis
c.
Right ventricular rupture
d.
Left ventricular rupture
Left ventricular rupture
Area of ischemic cardiac muscle necrosis?
Question 30Select one:
a.
Ischemic heart disease
b.
Cardiomyopathy
c.
Myocardial infarct
d.
Myocarditis
Myocardial infarct
Congenital anomaly wherein the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle?
Question 31Select one:
a.
Transposition of auricules
b.
Transposition of the great arteries
c.
Transposition of the chambers
d.
Situs inversus
Transposition of the great arteries
Condition wherein the mitral valve exhibits accumulation of myxomatous connective tissue?
Question 32Select one:
a.
Mitral valve agenesia
b.
Mitral valve stenosis
c.
Mitral valve prolapse
d.
Mitral valve fusion
Mitral valve prolapse
Myocardial infarct that affects the inner layers of the left ventricle?
Question 33Select one:
a.
Subendocardial myocardial infarct
b.
Subepicardial myocardial infarct
c.
Intramural myocardial infarct
d.
Transmural myocardial infarct
Subendocardial myocardial infarct
Most common finding in the coronary arteries in cases of sudden cardiac death?
Question 34Select one:
a.
Coronary dissection
b.
Coronary inflammation
c.
Coronary aneurysm
d.
Coronary atherosclerosis
Coronary atherosclerosis
Most common infectious complication of chronic rheumatic heart disease?
Question 35Select one:
a.
Pseudomembranous colitis
b.
Purulent pericarditis
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Bacterial pneumonia
Bacterial endocarditis
Most common cardiac lesion of systemic lupus erythematous?
Question 36Select one:
a.
Purulent pericarditis
b.
Aortic stenosis
c.
Fibrinous pericarditis
d.
Rheumatic fever
Fibrinous pericarditis
Most common form of congenital aortic stenosis?
Question 37Select one:
a.
Quadrospid aortic valve
b.
Total valvular agenesia
c.
Bicuspid aortic valve
d.
Soliter aortic valve
Bicuspid aortic valve
Chemotherapeutic agent that most commonly causes dilated cardiomyopathy?
Question 38Select one:
a.
5-fluorouracil
b.
Doxorubicin
c.
Metothrexat
d.
Dexamethasone
Doxorubicin
Most common primary tumor of the heart?
Question 39Select one:
a.
Cardiac carcinoma
b.
Cardiac leiomyoma
c.
Cardiac myxoma
d.
Cardiac sarcoma
Cardiac myxoma
Angina caused by coronary artery spasm?
Question 40Select one:
a.
Prinzmetal variant angina
b.
Prinzhorn variant angina
c.
Heavymetal variant angina
d.
Prinzflex variant angina
Prinzmetal variant angina
Common anatomic change of the heart due to chronic arterial hypertension?
Question 41Select one:
a.
Left ventricular hypotrophy
b.
Left ventricular hyperplasia
c.
Left ventricular hypertrophy
d.
Left ventricular aneurysm
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Most common atrial septal defect type?
Question 42Select one:
a.
Ostium secundum type
b.
Ostium tercium type
c.
Ostium primum type
d.
There are no types
Ostium secundum type
Anatomical defect associated with truncus arteriosus?
Question 43Select one:
a.
Ventricular septal defect
b.
Atrial septal defect
c.
Mitral prolapse
d.
Coarctation of the aorta
Ventricular septal defect
Persistent embryonic structure that may cause a left to right shunt in premature infants?
Question 44Select one:
a.
Patent ductus arteriosus
b.
Aortic stenosis
c.
Coarctation of the aorta
d.
Aortic transposition
Patent ductus arteriosus
Multisystemic inflammatory/immune disease occuring after a streptococcal infection involving the heart, joints and central nervous sytem?
Question 45Select one:
a.
Three day fever
b.
Valley fever
c.
Remittent fever
d.
Rheumatic fever
Rheumatic fever
Rightward orientation of the base-apex axis of the heart?
Question 46Select one:
a.
Anterocardia
b.
Sinistrocardia
c.
Situs inversus
d.
Dextrocardia
Dextrocardia
Heart valve most commonly affected in chronic rheumatic cardiac disease?
Question 47Select one:
a.
Aortic valve
b.
Tricuspidal valve
c.
Mitral valve
d.
Pulmonary valve
Mitral valve
Characteristic granulomatous lesion of rheumatic myocarditis?
Question 48Select one:
a.
Aschoff body
b.
Asteroid body
c.
Pyogenic granuloma
d.
Caseous necrosis
Aschoff body
Common form of restrictive cardiomyopathy in equatorial Africa?
Question 49Select one:
a.
Subendocardial infarction
b.
Endomyocardial fibrosis
c.
Transmural infartion
d.
Amyloidosis
Endomyocardial fibrosis
Congenital anomaly that results in obligate right-to-left shunt through a patent foramen ovale?
Question 50Select one:
a.
Bicuspidal atresia
b.
Aortic aneurysm
c.
Tricuspid atresia
d.
Pulmonary stenosis
Tricuspid atresia
Most common gross morphologic feature of the heart in chronic heart failure?
Question 51Select one:
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Aneurysm formation
c.
Ventricular wall thinning
d.
Ventricular hypertrophy
Ventricular hypertrophy
Chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia?
Question 52Select one:
a.
Coronary angina
b.
Angina myocardii
c.
Myocardial infarction
d.
Angina pectoris
Angina pectoris
Vacuolization of chronically injured cardiac myocytes?
Question 53Select one:
a.
Myocytolysis
b.
Rhabdomyolysis
c.
Fat necrosis
d.
Fibrinoid necrosis
Myocytolysis
Local constriction of the aorta that almost always occurs immediately below the origin of the left subclavian artery at the site of the ductus arteriosus?
Question 54Select one:
a.
Aortic dissection
b.
Aortic transposition
c.
Coarctation of the aorta
d.
Aortic stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta
Most common causes of chronic cor pulmonale?
Question 55Select one:
a.
1 Left heart failure 2 Mitral insufficiency
b.
1 Saddle embolism 2 Acute myocardial infarction
c.
1 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 2 Pulmonary fibrosis
d.
1 Left heart failure 2 Mitral prolapse
1 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 2 Pulmonary fibrosis
Transudate in the lungs due to left-sided ventricular failure?
Question 56Select one:
a.
Pulmonary exudate
b.
Pulmonary fibrosis
c.
Pulmonary emphysema
d.
Pulmonary edema
Pulmonary edema
Most common congenital heart failure?
Question 57Select one:
a.
Ventricular septal defect
b.
Atrio-ventricular septal defect
c.
Atrial septal defect
d.
Aortic transposition
Ventricular septal defect
Sudden event following myocardial infarct that leads to acute mitral insufficiency?
Question 58Select one:
a.
Rupture of the coronary arteries
b.
Rupture of the left ventricule
c.
Rupture of tricuspidal valve
d.
Rupture of papillary muscle
Rupture of papillary muscle
Cardiomyopathy in which there is limited diastolic filling, while the contractility remains normal?
Question 59Select one:
a.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d.
Obstructive cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Most common cause of hypersensitivity myocarditis?
Question 60Select one:
a.
Drugs
b.
Bacterias
c.
Pollens
d.
Viruses
Drugs
Coronary artery that supplies the posterior wall of the left ventricle?
Question 61Select one:
a.
Left coronary artery
b.
Right coronary artery
c.
Anterior descending coronary artery
d.
Left circumflex coronary artery
Right coronary artery
Irregular transverse eosinophilic bands in necrotic myocytes?
Question 62Select one:
a.
Contraction band necrosis
b.
Extraction band necrosis
c.
Infarction band necrosis
d.
Insertion band necrosis
Contraction band necrosis
Cardiomyopathy that features myofiber disarray?
Question 63Select one:
a.
Hypoplastic cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy
d.
Hypotrophic cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Repeating unit of contractile elements within myocytes?
Question 64Select one:
a.
Dimere
b.
Sarcomere
c.
Heterotrimer
d.
Rhabdomere
Sarcomere
Bulging and thinning of the left ventricular wall as a late complication of myocardial infarction?
Question 65Select one:
a.
Right ventricular aneurysm
b.
Left ventricular aneurysm
c.
Dressler syndrome
d.
Pericardial tamponade
Left ventricular aneurysm
Embryonic layer that forms vascular smooth muscle originates from?
Question 1Select one:
a.
Mesothel
b.
Mesoderm
c.
Endoderm
d.
Endothel
Mesoderm
Cellular layer of blood vessels forming a barrier for macromolecules?
Question 2Select one:
a.
Adventitia
b.
Epithelium
c.
Endothelium
d.
Muscular layer
Endothelium
Common name for factor VIIIa?
Question 3Select one:
a.
Von Willebrand factor
b.
Raynaud factor
c.
Barrett factor
d.
Paget factor
Von Willebrand factor
Endothel derived enzyme catalyzing the formation of the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II?
Question 4Select one:
a.
Renin
b.
Aldosterone
c.
ADH
d.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Angiotensin-converting enzyme
The three layers of elastic arteries?
Question 5Select one:
a.
1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia
b.
1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica intermedia 3 Tunica externa
c.
1 Tunica interna 2 Tunica media Tunica externa
d.
1 Tunica interna 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia
1 Tunica intima 2 Tunica media 3 Tunica adventitia
Anatomical malformation resulting from the local breakdown of the tunica media, leading to arterial dilatation?
Question 6Select one:
a.
Aneurysm
b.
Dissection
c.
Diverticule
d.
Bursa
Aneurysm
Vasculature that provides nutrients to the layers of vascular smooth muscle?
Question 7Select one:
a.
Vasa arteriarum
b.
Vasa recta
c.
Vasa vasorum
d.
Vasa nervorum
Vasa vasorum
Type of arteries that function as resistance vessels?
Question 8Select one:
a.
Arteriole
b.
Capillary
c.
Veins
d.
Small muscular arteries
Small muscular arteries
Terminal elements of the arterial system?
Question 9Select one:
a.
Arterioles
b.
Veins
c.
Aorta
d.
Capillary
Arterioles
Modified supporting smooth muscle cells that surround capillaries?
Question 10Select one:
a.
Mesothel
b.
Epithelium
c.
Pericyte
d.
Endothelium
Pericyte
Cessation of hemorrhage?
Question 11Select one:
a.
Hemostasis
b.
Hematoma
c.
Hemorrhage
d.
Hemorrhoids
Hemostasis
Aggregate of coagulated blood that contains platelets, fibrin, leukocytes and red blood cells?
Question 12Select one:
a.
Hematoma
b.
Blood clot
c.
Emboli
d.
Thrombus
Thrombus
Enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
Question 13Select one:
a.
Thrombin
b.
Plasmin
c.
Factor VIII
d.
Plasminogen
Thrombin
Thrombolytic enzyme converting fibrin to fibrin degradation products?
Question 14Select one:
a.
Fibrin
b.
Thrombin
c.
Fibrinogen
d.
Plasmin
Plasmin
Accumulation of lipid, inflammatory cells and smooth muscle cells within the intima of large and medium sized elastic and muscular arteries?
Question 15Select one:
a.
Arteriolosclerosis
b.
Arteriosclerosis
c.
Atherosclerosis
d.
Cholesterolosis
Atherosclerosis
Type of lipoprotein in plasma associated with accelerated atherosclerosis?
Question 16Select one:
a.
Low-density lipoprotein or LDL
b.
Medium-density lipoprotein or MDL
c.
High-density lipoprotein or HDL
d.
Lipofuscin
Low-density lipoprotein or LDL
Early and focal accumulation of lipid in the intima at young age?
Question 17Select one:
a.
Unstable plaque
b.
Fatty droplets
c.
Stable plaque
d.
Fatty streaks
Fatty streaks
Coverage of the fatty/necrotic core in advanced atherosclerotic plaques?
Question 18Select one:
a.
Lipid cap
b.
Fatty streak
c.
Fibrinoid cap
d.
Fibrous cap
Fibrous cap
Type of atherosclerotic plaque featured by ulceration, hemorrhage, calcification and aneurysm formation?
Question 19Select one:
a.
Fatty droplet
b.
Fatty streak
c.
Stable plaque
d.
Complicated plaque
Complicated plaque
Complications of atherosclerosis?
Question 20Select one:
a.
1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Emphysema
b.
1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism
c.
1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Diabetes 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism
d.
1 Neoplasia 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism
1 Acute thrombotic occlusion 2 Chronic narrowing of the vessel lumen 3 Aneurysm 4 Embolism
Type of emboli featured with needle-shaped empty spaces in the histological section?
Question 21Select one:
a.
Red thrombus embolus
b.
Catheter embolus
c.
Cholesterol crystal embolus
d.
Amniotic fluid embolus
Cholesterol crystal embolus
Major hemodynamic risk factor for atherosclerosis?
Question 22Select one:
a.
Hypertension
b.
Pulmonary hypertension
c.
Hypotension
d.
Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Hypertension
Serum lipid level closely associated with coronary atherosclerosis?
Question 23Select one:
a.
Serum lipoprotein level
b.
Serum cholesterol level
c.
Serum lipofuscin level
d.
Serum high-density lipoprotein level
Serum cholesterol level
Most common metabolic disorder predisposing atherosclerosis?
Question 24Select one:
a.
Diabetes
b.
Hyperthyreosis
c.
Hypothyreosis
d.
BMI˂25
Diabetes
Endocrine regulatory system closely related to the development of hypertension?
Question 25Select one:
a.
Hypothalamus-gonad sytem
b.
Thyrotropin-TSH system
c.
Renin-angiotensin system
d.
Corticotropin-cortisol system
Renin-angiotensin system
Factor released by the heart decreasing the peripheral resistance?
Question 26Select one:
a.
Renin
b.
Atrial natriuretic factor
c.
Angiotensin
d.
Plasmin
Atrial natriuretic factor
Morphological change of arterioles in chronic hypertension?
Question 27Select one:
a.
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
b.
Mucoid intimal hyperplasia
c.
Fibrinoid necrosis
d.
Intimal fibroelastosis
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
Renal parenchymal damage due to arteriosclerosis?
Question 28Select one:
a.
Renal agenesia
b.
Diffuse cortical necrosis
c.
Renal infarction
d.
Benign nephrosclerosis
Benign nephrosclerosis
Type of necrosis of small muscular arteries caused by malignant hypertension?
Question 29Select one:
a.
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
b.
Fibrinoid necrosis
c.
Dissection necrosis
d.
Intimal fibroelastosis
Fibrinoid necrosis
Degenerative calcification of the media of large and medium-sized muscular arteries that occurs principally in older persons?
Question 30Select one:
a.
Arteriolosclerosis
b.
Nephrosclerosis
c.
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
d.
Atherosclerosis
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
Intermittent bilateral episodes of ischemia of the distal fingers or toes precipitated by cold?
Question 31Select one:
a.
Meniére disease
b.
Raynaud phenomenon
c.
Gardner syndrome
d.
Hageman syndrome
Raynaud phenomenon
Acute necrotizing vasculitis that affects medium-sized and smaller muscular arteries?
Question 32Select one:
a.
Wegener granulomatosis
b.
Polyarteritis nodosa
c.
Microscopic polyangitis
d.
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Serum antibodies associated with microscopic polyarteritis?
Question 33Select one:
a.
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)
b.
Anti-dsDNA antibody
c.
Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)
d.
Anti-histone antibody
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)
Granulomatous inflammation of the temporal arteries?
Question 34Select one:
a.
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
b.
Wegener granulomatosis
c.
Microscopic polyangitis
d.
Giant cell arteritis
Giant cell arteritis
Necrotizing vasculitis characterized by granulomatous lesions of the sinuses, lungs and renal glomeruli?
Question 35Select one:
a.
Microscopic polyangitis
b.
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
c.
Giant cell arteritis
d.
Wegener granulomatosis
Wegener granulomatosis
Inflammatory and occlusive disease affecting the aorta and its major branches usually occurring in women?
Question 36Select one:
a.
Takayasu arteritis
b.
Giant cell arteritis
c.
Wegener granulomatosis
d.
Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
Takayasu arteritis
Necrotizing vasculitis of infancy and early childhood characterized by high fever, rash, oral lesions and lymphadenitis?
Question 37Select one:
a.
Kawasaki disease
b.
Wegener granulomatosis
c.
Giant cell arteritis
d.
Takayasu arteritis
Kawasaki disease
Occlusive inflammatory disease of medium and small arteries in the distal arms and legs associated with cigarette smoking?
Question 38Select one:
a.
Thrombangitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease)
b.
Wegener granulomatosis
c.
Giant cell arteritis
d.
Takayasu arteritis
Thrombangitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease)
Systemic vasculitis that features oral aphthous ulcers and genital ulceration?
Question 39Select one:
a.
Behçet disease
b.
Hippel-Lindau disease
c.
Thrombangitis obliterans or Buerger’s disease
d.
Sarcoidosis
Behçet disease
Obligate intracellular microorganisms producing a special form of vasculitis?
Question 40Select one:
a.
Rickettsiae
b.
Mycobacterium
c.
Streptoccus
d.
Staphylococcus
Rickettsiae
Localized dilations of arteries caused by congenital or acquired weakness of the vessel media?
Question 41Select one:
a.
Diverticule
b.
Cavity
c.
Bursa
d.
Aneurysm
Aneurysm
Type of aneurysm that features with longitudinal axial dilation of the vessel lumen?
Question 42Select one:
a.
Berry aneurysm
b.
Saccular aneurysm
c.
Fusiform aneurysm
d.
Cavitary aneurysm
Fusiform aneurysm
Aneurysms that feature with bubble-like outpouching of the arterial wall?
Question 43Select one:
a.
Cavitary aneurysm
b.
Bubble aneurysm
c.
Saccular aneurysm
d.
Fusiform aneurysm
Saccular aneurysm
Type of aneurysm formed by the separation of vascular wall (media) layers due to intimal rupture and hemorrhage?
Question 44Select one:
a.
Saccular aneurysm
b.
Berry aneurysm
c.
Dissecting aneurysm
d.
Fusiform aneurysm
Dissecting aneurysm
Type of aneurysm featured by a direct communication between an artery and a vein?
Question 45Select one:
a.
Communicating aneurysm
b.
Arteriovenous malformation
c.
Arterial-vein
d.
Arteriovenous aneurysm
Arteriovenous aneurysm
Most frequent site of aneurysm formation in the elderly?
Question 46Select one:
a.
Coronary artery
b.
Femoral artery
c.
Carotid artery
d.
Abdominal aorta
Abdominal aorta
Common pathologic finding in the media of arteries with dissecting aneurysm?
Question 47Select one:
a.
Cystic medial fibrosis
b.
Cystic medial necrosis
c.
Intimal fibroelastosis
d.
Mucoid intimal hyperplasia
Cystic medial necrosis
Common term for small aneurysms placed in the circle of Willis?
Question 48Select one:
a.
Barrett aneurysm
b.
Berry aneurysm
c.
Budd-Chiari aneurysm
d.
Bowen aneurysm
Berry aneurysm
Cause of aortic aneurysm due to the inflammation of vasa vasorum?
Question 49Select one:
a.
Wegener’s granulomatosis
b.
Syphilis
c.
Takayasu arteritis
d.
Kawasaki disease
Syphilis
Name of an enlarged and tortuous veins often occurring superficially in the legs?
Question 50Select one:
a.
Phlebothrombosis
b.
Thrombophlebitis
c.
Varicose vein
d.
Varicocele
Varicose vein
Cutaneous complications due to severe varicosities of the leg?
Question 51Select one:
a.
Café au lait spots
b.
Vitiligo
c.
Cellulitis
d.
Stasis dermatitis
Stasis dermatitis
Varicose veins of the anal region?
Question 52Select one:
a.
Caput medusae
b.
Hemorrhoids
c.
Spider vein
d.
Varicocele
Hemorrhoids
Most common site of varicosity due to portal hypertension?
Question 53Select one:
a.
Lower extremities deep vein
b.
Lower extremities superficial vein
c.
Distal half of the esophagus
d.
Testicular veins
Distal half of the esophagus
Venous thrombosis that occurs in the absence of infection/inflammation?
Question 54Select one:
a.
Vasculitis
b.
Thrombophlebitis
c.
Phlebothrombosis
d.
Varicositas
Phlebothrombosis
Inflammation and secondary thrombosis of veins?
Question 55Select one:
a.
Varicositas
b.
Varicocele
c.
Phlebothrombosis
d.
Thrombophlebitis
Thrombophlebitis
Progressive dilation of lymphatic vesssels?
Question 56Select one:
a.
Aneurysm
b.
Varicositas
c.
Lymphangiectasia
d.
Edema
Lymphangiectasia
Tumorous vascular malformation predominantly consisting of enlarged vascular channels interspersed with small capillary-type vessels?
Question 57Select one:
a.
Kaposi sarcoma
b.
Vascular recanalization
c.
Berry aneurysm
d.
Cavernous hemangioma
Cavernous hemangioma
Cell rich endothelial vascular tumor with intermediate behavior between benign hemangioma and malignant angiosarcoma?
Question 58Select one:
a.
Kaposi sarcoma
b.
Capillary hemangioma
c.
Hemangioendothelioma
d.
Hemangiopericytoma
Hemangioendothelioma
Chemical used in the plastic industry that is associated with angiosarcoma development?
Question 59Select one:
a.
Fenitoin
b.
Ammonia
c.
Acetone
d.
Vinyl chloride
Vinyl chloride
Human herpesvirus associated with Kaposi sarcoma?
Question 60Select one:
a.
Herpesvirus 9
b.
Herpesvirus 7
c.
Herpesvirus 6
d.
Herpesvirus 8
Herpesvirus 8
Rare malignant tumor associated with lymphedema of the arm after radical mastectomy?
Question 61Select one:
a.
Kaposi sarcoma
b.
Osteosarcoma
c.
Lymphangiosarcoma
d.
Liposarcoma
Lymphangiosarcoma
Protein product of the ob gene that is mainly expressed by adipocytes:
Question 1Select one:
a.
Somatostatin
b.
Insulin
c.
Leptin
d.
Glucagon
Leptin
Effect of leptin on food intake:
Question 2Select one:
a.
Decreased food intake
b.
No effect
c.
Increased food intake
d.
Slow increase on food intake
Decreased food intake
Biliary complication of obesity:
Question 3Select one:
a.
Acute cholecystitis
b.
Chronic cholecystitis
c.
Gallstones
d.
Decreased bile production
Gallstones
Cerebral complication of obesity:
Question 4Select one:
a.
Decreased CSF
b.
Dementia
c.
Cerebral atherosclerosis and stroke
d.
Dilatation of the ventricular
Cerebral atherosclerosis and stroke
Joint complication of obesity:
Question 5Select one:
a.
Dislocation
b.
Fracture
c.
Osteoarthrosis
d.
Acute arthritis
Osteoarthrosis
Major endocrine complication in obesity:
Question 6Select one:
a.
Hypothyreodism
b.
Diabetes and dyslipidemia
c.
Hyperthyreodism
d.
Infertility
Diabetes and dyslipidemia
Cardiovascular complication in obesity:
Question 7Select one:
a.
Right to left shunt
b.
Hypertension, coronary heart disease, congestive heart failure and thromboembolism
c.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d.
Myocarditis, endocarditis
The correct answer is: Hypertension, coronary heart disease, congestive heart failure and thromboembolism
Hepatic complication of obesity:
Question 8Select one:
a.
No bile production
b.
Cirrhosis
c.
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis and fatty liver
d.
Budd-Chiari syndrome
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis and fatty liver
Fundamental defect in the pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes:
Question 9Select one:
a.
Increased glucagon level
b.
Absolute lack of insulin
c.
Antibodies against islet cell or insulin
d.
Peripheral insulin resistance
Peripheral insulin resistance
Targets for autoimmune destruction in type 1 diabetes mellitus:
Question 10Select one:
a.
Hepatocyte
b.
Pancreatic beta cell in the islet of Langerhans
c.
Pancreatic alpha cell in the islet of Langerhans
d.
Insulin receptors
The correct answer is: Pancreatic beta cell in the islet of Langerhans
Product of fat oxidation in type 1 diabetes mellitus:
Question 11Select one:
a.
Schumann bodies
b.
Kation bodies
c.
Anion bodies
d.
Ketone bodies
Ketone bodies
Substance deposited in islets of Langerhans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus:
Question 12Select one:
a.
Carbohydrates
b.
Antibodies
c.
Amyloid
d.
Collagene
Amyloid
Major arterial complication of diabetes mellitus:
Question 13Select one:
a.
Vasculitis
b.
Atherosclerosis
c.
Endarteritis
d.
Deep vein thrombosis
Atherosclerosis
Glycosylated hemoglobin in red blood cells in patients with diabetes mellitus:
Question 14Select one:
a.
Spectrin
b.
Hemoglobin B
c.
Hemoglobin A1c
d.
Insulin receptor
Hemoglobin A1c
Effect of diabetes mellitus on the renal glomerulus:
Question 15Select one:
a.
Podocyte foot process fusion
b.
Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
c.
Atherosclerosis
d.
Sugar deposition in the mesangial matrix
Nodular glomerulosclerosis or Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
Effect of diabetes mellitus on the lens:
Question 16Select one:
a.
Cataract formation
b.
Capsule thickening
c.
Dislocation
d.
Rupture
Cataract formation
Effect of diabetes mellitus on the retina:
Question 17Select one:
a.
Rupture
b.
Thinning
c.
Microaneurysms, hemorrhage and exudates leading to proliferative retinopathy
d.
Retinoblastoma
Microaneurysms, hemorrhage and exudates leading to proliferative retinopathy
Common effect of diabetes mellitus on the peripheral nervous system:
Question 18Select one:
a.
Motoric nerve dysfunction
b.
Paralysis
c.
Lumbago
d.
Peripheral sensory impairment and autonomic nerve dysfunction
Peripheral sensory impairment and autonomic nerve dysfunction
Effect of poor control of gestational diabetes on fetal growth:
Question 19Select one:
a.
Increased risk for perinatal infection
b.
Decreased fetal and neonatal size
c.
Immature central nervous system
d.
Increased fetal and neonatal size
Increased fetal and neonatal size
Developmental anlage (progenitor) of the fallopian tubes, the uterus and the vaginal wall:
Question 1Select one:
a.
Wilms ducts
b.
Müllerian ducts
c.
Wolffian ducts
d.
Uterus primus
Müllerian ducts
Developmental anlage of the vas deferens, epididymis and seminal vesicle:
Question 2Select one:
a.
Müllerian ducts
b.
Ewing ducts
c.
Wolffian ducts
d.
Wilms ducts
Wolffian ducts
Highly contagious skin lesion seen in secondary syphilis:
Question 3Select one:
a.
Condyloma lata
b.
Condyloma acuminatum
c.
Ulcus molle
d.
Condyloma planum
Condyloma lata
Infectious agent of condyloma acuminatum:
Question 4Select one:
a.
Herpes simplex 1 virus
b.
Cytomegalovirus
c.
Human papilloma virus
d.
Herpes simplex 2 virus
Human papilloma virus
Cytopathic epithelial cell morphology appearing with a perinuclear halo and wrinkled nucleus typical for cervical condyloma:
Question 5Select one:
a.
Papillocyte
b.
Koilocyte
c.
Shistiocyte
d.
Keratinocyte
Koilocyte
Pear-shaped, flagellated protozoon that commonly causes vaginitis:
Question 6Select one:
a.
Ureaplasma urealyticum
b.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c.
Trichomonas vaginalis
d.
Clamydia trachomatis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Fallopian tube distended with pus:
Question 7Select one:
a.
Pyotube
b.
Pyosalpinx
c.
Pussalpinx
d.
Fallopitis gangrenosa
Pyosalpinx
Most common etiologic agent of fungal vaginitis:
Question 8Select one:
a.
Candida albicans
b.
Mycobacterium
c.
Aspergillosis
d.
Blastomycosis
Candida albicans
Causative infectious agent of toxic shock syndrome:
Question 9Select one:
a.
Clamydia trachomatis
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Escherichia coli
d.
Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus aureus
Glands posterolateral to the vaginal introitus that may become cystic and infected:
Question 10Select one:
a.
Bartholin glands
b.
External vaginal glands
c.
Sweat glands
d.
Internal vaginal glands
Bartholin glands
Benign vaginal tumor of apocrine sweat gland origin:
Question 11Select one:
a.
Condyloma
b.
Hidradenoma
c.
Folliculoma
d.
Paget-disease
Hidradenoma
Histologic precursor of invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva:
Question 12Select one:
a.
Lichen sclerosus vulvae
b.
Vulvoma
c.
Vulvar carcinoma in situ or VCIS
d.
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia or VIN
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia or VIN
Most common site for lymph node metastases from vulvar squamous cell carcinoma:
Question 13Select one:
a.
Axillary lymph nodes
b.
Inguinal lymph nodes
c.
Paraaortic lymph nodes
d.
Parailiacal lymph nodes
Inguinal lymph nodes
Pruritic vulvar disease characterized by abundant pale malignant cells within the epithelium:
Question 14Select one:
a.
Contact dermatitis
b.
Lichen atrophicus
c.
Extramammary Paget’s disease
d.
Lichen sclerosus
Extramammary Paget’s disease
Thinning and atrophy of the vaginal epithelium in postmenopausal women:
Question 15Select one:
a.
Condyloma vaginalis
b.
Atrophic vaginitis
c.
Contact vaginitis
d.
Lichen simplex chronicus
Atrophic vaginitis
Most common type of vaginal cancer:
Question 16Select one:
a.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
b.
Clear cell carcinoma
c.
Squamous cell carcinoma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Vaginal tumor in girls under 4 years of age that appears as a confluent polypoid mass resembling a bunch of grapes:
Question 17Select one:
a.
Squamous cell carcinoma
b.
Adenocarcinoma
c.
Clear cell carcinoma
d.
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma or sarcoma botryoides
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma or sarcoma botryoides
The squamocolumnar junction of the cervical orifice:
Question 18Select one:
a.
Demarcation zone
b.
Border zone
c.
Transformational zone
d.
Sphincter zone
Transformational zone
Most common benign cervical growth:
Question 19Select one:
a.
Endocervical polyp
b.
Leiomyosarcoma
c.
Leiomyoma
d.
Condyloma
Endocervical polyp
Histologic precursor of squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix:
Question 20Select one:
a.
Condyloma
b.
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or CIN
c.
Cervical polyp
d.
Bowen disease
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or CIN
Human papilloma virus serotypes most often associated with cervical carcinoma:
Question 21Select one:
a.
Types 11, 36
b.
Types 16, 18
c.
Types 9, 23
d.
Types 5, 6
Types 16, 18
Usual location for CIN:
Question 22Select one:
a.
Endometrium
b.
Cervix-corpus junction
c.
Upper part of the vagina
d.
The transformation zone
The transformation zone
Grade of CIN corresponding to carcinoma in situ:
Question 23Select one:
a.
CIN-4
b.
CIN-1
c.
CIN-3
d.
CIN-2
CIN-3
Common renal complication of cervical squamous cell carcinoma:
Question 24Select one:
a.
Hydronephrosis secondary to ureteral compression
b.
Papillary necrosis
c.
Renal infarction
d.
Nephrolithiasis
Hydronephrosis secondary to ureteral compression
Most common type of endocervical carcinoma:
Question 25Select one:
a.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
b.
Leiomyosarcoma
c.
Squamous carcinoma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Physiologic endometrial phase after ovulation:
Question 26Select one:
a.
Secretory phase
b.
Proliferative phase
c.
Menstruation
d.
Implantation
Secretory phase
Physiologic endometrial phase before ovulation:
Question 27Select one:
a.
Proliferative phase
b.
Menstruation
c.
Implantation
d.
Secretory phase
Proliferative phase
Inflammatory disorder of endometrium characterized microscopically by plasma cell infiltration:
Question 28Select one:
a.
Chronic endometritis
b.
Purulent endometritis
c.
Gangrenous endometritis
d.
Acute endometritis
Chronic endometritis
Lack of hormonal effect resulting in luteal phase defect:
Question 29Select one:
a.
Estrogen
b.
LH
c.
Progesterone
d.
FSH
Progesterone
Most common benign stromal neoplasm in the endometrial cavity:
Question 30Select one:
a.
Endometrial polyp
b.
Endometrial hyperplasia
c.
Leiomyoma
d.
Endocervical adenoma
Endometrial polyp
Physiologic cause of benign endometrial hyperplasia:
Question 31Select one:
a.
Decreased progesterone
b.
Excess of estrogenic stimulation
c.
Excess progesterone stimulation
d.
Decreased estrogen level
Excess of estrogenic stimulation
Risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma:
Question 32Select one:
a.
Obesity, diabetes
b.
Multiparity
c.
Nulliparity
d.
Early menarche and late menopause
Multiparity
Most common type of endometrial carcinoma:
Question 33Select one:
a.
Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
b.
Papillary adenocarcinoma
c.
Leiomyosarcoma
d.
Clear cell carcinoma
Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
Aggressive nonendometrioid endometrial carcinoma that resembles an ovarian carcinoma:
Question 34Select one:
a.
Transitional cell carcinoma
b.
Squamous carcinoma
c.
Serous adenocarcinoma
d.
Clear cell carcinoma
Serous adenocarcinoma
Highly malignant endometrial tumor that shows both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation:
Question 35Select one:
a.
Mesenchymal carcinoma
b.
Carcinosarcoma
c.
Stromal sarcoma
d.
Carcinoid
Carcinosarcoma
Malignant tumor of endometrial stroma:
Question 36Select one:
a.
GIST
b.
Endometrial stromal sarcoma
c.
Adenocarcinoma
d.
Leiomyosarcoma
Endometrial stromal sarcoma
Most common tumor of the uterine myometrium:
Question 37Select one:
a.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
b.
Leiomyosarcoma
c.
Fibroma
d.
Leiomyoma
Leiomyoma
Malignant smooth muscle tumor of the uterus:
Question 38Select one:
a.
Myofibrosarcoma
b.
Botryoid sarcoma
c.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
d.
Leiomyosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the endometrium:
Question 39Select one:
a.
Abortion
b.
Adenomyosis
c.
Endometriosis
d.
Ectopic pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Most common site of ectopic pregnancy:
Question 40Select one:
a.
Wall of the sigmoid colon
b.
Ovary
c.
Abdominal cavity
d.
Fallopian tube
Fallopian tube
Life-threatening complication of ectopic pregnancy:
Question 41Select one:
a.
Peritoneal adhesions
b.
Pyosalpinx
c.
Tubal rupture
d.
Septicemia
Tubal rupture
Common complication of corpus luteum cyst:
Question 42Select one:
a.
Bleeding
b.
PCO
c.
Tubal sclerosis
d.
Purulent peritonitis
Bleeding
Syndrome characterized by persistent anovulation and numerous subcapsular ovarian cysts:
Question 43Select one:
a.
Endometriosis ovarii
b.
Adenomyosis cysticum ovarii
c.
Ovarian compression atrophy
d.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)
Focal luteinization of ovarian stromal cells associated with virilization:
Question 44Select one:
a.
Decreased level of LH
b.
Stromal hyperthecosis
c.
Stromal fibrosis
d.
Stromal hypothecosis
Stromal hyperthecosis
Benign cystic ovarian tumor lined by epithelium that resembles the fallopian tubes:
Question 45Select one:
a.
Fallopioid carcinoma
b.
Serous cystadenoma
c.
Mucinous cystadenoma
d.
Endometrioid carcinoma
Serous cystadenoma
Ovarian tumor showing solid nests of urothelium-like cells encased in a dense stroma:
Question 46Select one:
a.
Brunn tumor
b.
Urothelioma
c.
Brenner tumor
d.
Urothelosarcoma
Brenner tumor
Common malignant ovarian epithelial tumor that often shows psammoma bodies:
Question 47Select one:
a.
Brenner tumor
b.
Endometrioid carcinoma
c.
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
d.
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Serum antigen elevatedin about half of the malignant ovarian tumors of epithelial origin:
Question 48Select one:
a.
CA-125
b.
CA19-9
c.
AFP
d.
HCG
CA-125
Malignant ovarian tumor often associated with endometrial carcinoma:
Question 49Select one:
a.
Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma
b.
Krukenberg tumor
c.
Dysgerminoma
d.
Ovarian mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma
Primary ovarian tumor composed of neoplastic germ cells resembling oogonia of the fetal ovary:
Question 50Select one:
a.
Dysgerminoma
b.
Embrional carcinoma
c.
Yolk-sac tumor
d.
Choriocarcinoma
Dysgerminoma
Malignant ovarian tumor that resembles the composition of the primitive yolk sac:
Question 51Select one:
a.
Yolk sac tumor
b.
Dysgerminoma
c.
Mola hydatiosa
d.
Choriocarcinoma
Yolk sac tumor
Malignant ovarian tumor with placental villus differentiation (cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast):
Question 52Select one:
a.
Choriocarcinoma
b.
Yolk sac tumor
c.
Embrional carcinoma
d.
Teratoma
Choriocarcinoma
Ovarian germ cell tumor that differentiates toward somatic structures of different germ layers:
Question 53Select one:
a.
Krukenberg tumor
b.
Yolk sac tumor
c.
Teratoma
d.
Brenner tumor
Teratoma
Ovarian teratoma composed predominantly of thyroid-like tissue:
Question 54Select one:
a.
Thyroidoma ovarii
b.
Struma ovarii
c.
Ovarium folliculare colloides
d.
Thyreoovarial syndrome
Struma ovarii
Ovarian teratoma consisted of embryonal tissue:
Question 55Select one:
a.
Adult teratoma
b.
Mature teratoma
c.
Hamartoma
d.
Immature teratoma
Immature teratoma
Ovarian tumor that secretes alpha-fetoprotein:
Question 56Select one:
a.
Choriocarcinoma
b.
Embryonal teratoma
c.
Yolk sac tumor
d.
Dysgerminoma
Yolk sac tumor
Ovarian tumor that secretes human chorionic gonadotropin:
Question 57Select one:
a.
Seminoma
b.
Teratoma
c.
Yolk sac tumor
d.
Choriocarcinoma
Choriocarcinoma
Most common ovarian stromal tumor:
Question 58Select one:
a.
Thecoma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Fibroma
d.
Leiomyoma
Fibroma
Functional ovarian tumor in postmenopausal women that secretes estrogen and features lipid-laden theca cells:
Question 59Select one:
a.
Fibroma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Granulosa cell tumor
d.
Thecoma
Thecoma
Non-epithelial functional tumor of ovary that secretes estrogen and inhibin:
Question 60Select one:
a.
Thecoma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
d.
Granulosa cell tumor
Granulosa cell tumor
Mesenchymal ovarian tumor of low malignant potential that resembles the embryonal testis and secretes androgens:
Question 61Select one:
a.
Dysgerminoma
b.
Teratoma
c.
Seminoma
d.
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Metastatic tumor within the ovary typically consisted of mucin-filled signet ring cells:
Question 62Select one:
a.
Brenner tumor
b.
Mola hydatiosa
c.
Krukenberg tumor
d.
Partial mola
Krukenberg tumor
Primary site of origin of most Krukenberg tumors:
Question 63Select one or more:
a.
Spleen
b.
Stomach
c.
Lung
d.
Breast
Stomach, Breast
Benign propagation of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus:
Question 64Select one:
a.
Ectopic pregnancy
b.
Endometritis externa
c.
Adenomyosis
d.
Endometriosis
Endometriosis
Primary peritoneal tumor that resembles ovarian serous carcinoma:
Question 65Select one:
a.
Malignant mesothelioma
b.
Malignus peritoneoma
c.
Peritoneal carcinosis
d.
Peritoneal malignoma
Malignant mesothelioma
Accumulation of jellylike mucus in the pelvic or peritoneal cavity associated with mucinous ovarian tumors:
Question 66Select one:
a.
Pseudomyxoma peritonei
b.
Mucinoma peritonei
c.
Adenoma mucinosum peritonei
d.
Myxoma peritonei
Pseudomyxoma peritonei
Multinucleated trophoblastic cell that secretes human chorionic gonadotropin and human placental lactogen:
Question 67Select one:
a.
Yolk sacblast
b.
Teratoblast
c.
Syncytiotrophoblast
d.
Cytothrophoblast
Syncytiotrophoblast
Acute inflammation of the amnion and chorion and the extraplacental membranes:
Question 68Select one:
a.
Acute eclampsia
b.
Acute chorioamnionitis
c.
Uteritis acuta
d.
Acute placentitis
Acute chorioamnionitis
Syndrome in pregnancy featuring hypertension, proteinuria, edema and convulsions:
Question 69Select one:
a.
Eclampsia
b.
Endometriosis
c.
Chorioamnionitis
d.
Icterus
Eclampsia
Type of hydatidiform mole that penetrates the underlying myometrium:
Question 70Select one:
a.
Partial mole
b.
Choriocarcinoma
c.
Complete mole
d.
Invasive hydatidiform mole
Invasive hydatidiform mole
Tumor composed predominantly of intermediate trophoblastic cells:
Question 71Select one:
a.
Placental site trophoblast tumor
b.
Choriocarcinoma
c.
Trophoblastoma
d.
Intermediate trophoblastoma
Placental site trophoblast tumor
Most common esophageal anomaly:
Question 1Select one:
a.
Tracheoesophageal fistula
b.
Achalasia
c.
Zenker’s diverticulum
d.
Esophagitis
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Most common complication of tracheoesophageal fistula:
Question 2Select one:
a.
Regurgitation
b.
Aspiration pneumonia
c.
Interstitial pneumonia
d.
Mediastinitis
Aspiration pneumonia
Esophageal diverticulum that occurs in the proxymal (subpharyngeal) section of the oesophagus:
Question 3Select one:
a.
Meckel’s diverticulum
b.
Johnson’s diverticulum
c.
Duke’s diverticulum
d.
Zenker’s diverticulum
Zenker’s diverticulum
Esophageal diverticulum attached to adjacent mediastinal lymph nodes, usually associated with tuberculous lymphadenitis:
Question 4Select one:
a.
Meckel’s diverticulum
b.
Pulsion diverticulum
c.
Zenker’s diverticulum
d.
Traction diverticulum
Traction diverticulum
Absence of esophageal peristalsis and relaxation failure of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing:
Question 5Select one:
a.
Traction diverticulum
b.
Achalasia
c.
Esophagitis
d.
Barrett oesophagus
Achalasia
Most common type of esophagitis:
Question 6Select one:
a.
Fungal esophagitis
b.
Granulomatous esophagitis
c.
Esophagitis tuberculosa
d.
Reflux esophagitis
Reflux esophagitis
Most common protozoal cause of achalasia:
Question 7Select one:
a.
Barett disease
b.
Chagas disease
c.
Zenker$s disease
d.
Candidal infection
Chagas disease
Systemic disease that causes fibrosis of the esophageal wall:
Question 8Select one:
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
SLE
c.
Dermatomyositis
d.
Scleroderma
Scleroderma
Type of hiatal hernia caused by enlargement of the diaphragmatic hiatus and laxity of the circumferential connective tissue:
Question 9Select one:
a.
Bridging hiatal hernia
b.
Sliding hiatal hernia
c.
Pulsion hiatal hernia
d.
Traction hiatal hernia
Sliding hiatal hernia
Replacement of squamous epithelium in the distal esophagus by columnar epithelium:
Question 10Select one:
a.
Barrett$s esophagus
b.
Chagas disease
c.
Achalasia
d.
Hyperplasia
Barrett$s esophagus
Cause of Barrett$s esophagus:
Question 11Select one:
a.
Fungal infection
b.
Protozoal infection
c.
Irradiation
d.
Chronic gastroesophageal reflux
Chronic gastroesophageal reflux
Malignant neoplasm arising from Barrett$s esophagus:
Question 12Select one:
a.
Adenocarcinoma
b.
Leiomyosarcoma
c.
Lymphoma
d.
Squamous carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Common cause of fungal esophagitis associated with immunosuppression:
Question 13Select one:
a.
Actinomyces
b.
Candida albicans
c.
Chlamydia trachomatis
d.
Tripanosoma cruzi
Candida albicans
Dilated vascular channels immediately beneath the esophageal mucosa:
Question 14Select one:
a.
Arterio-venosous malformation
b.
Teleangiectasia
c.
Esophageal varices
d.
Hemorrhoids
Esophageal varices
Feared complication of esophageal varices:
Question 15Select one:
a.
Rupture
b.
Vasculitis
c.
Dissection
d.
Hemorrhage
Hemorrhage
Most common cause of esophageal varices:
Question 16Select one:
a.
Acute hepatitis
b.
Barett$s oesophagus
c.
Boerhave syndrome
d.
Portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis
Portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis
Occurrence of mucosal laceration in the upper stomach and lower esophagus following severe vomiting:
Question 17Select one:
a.
Mallory-Weiss tear
b.
Peptic ulcer
c.
Boerhave syndrome
d.
Gastritis acuta
Mallory-Weiss tear
Most common histologic type of esophageal carcinoma in the United States:
Question 18Select one:
a.
Squamous carcinoma
b.
MALT lymphoma
c.
Adenocarcinoma
d.
Liposarcoma
Adenocarcinoma
Second most common histologic type of esophageal carcinoma in the United States:
Question 19Select one:
a.
Fibrosarcoma
b.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
c.
Adenocarcinoma
d.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Congenital concentric enlargement of the pyloric sphincter with narrowing of the gastric outlet:
Question 20Select one:
a.
Congenital pyloric atresia
b.
Congenital pyloric aplasia
c.
Congenital pyloric hypoplasia
d.
Congenital pyloric stenosis
Congenital pyloric stenosis
Type of gastritis encountered in severely burned individuals:
Question 21Select one:
a.
Peptic ulcer
b.
Cushing’s ulcer
c.
Acute hemorrhagic erosive gastritis (Curling’s ulcer)
d.
Mallory- Weis syndrome
Acute hemorrhagic erosive gastritis (Curling’s ulcer)
Type of acute erosive gastritis in patients with central nervous system trauma:
Question 22Select one:
a.
Cushing’s ulcer
b.
Peptic ulcer
c.
Curling’s ulcer
d.
Linitis plastica
Cushing’s ulcer
Type of gastritis associated with pernicious anemia:
Question 23Select one:
a.
Hyperplastic gastritis
b.
Fungal gastritis
c.
Autoimmune atrophic gastritis
d.
Acute gastritis
Autoimmune atrophic gastritis
Major circulating antibodies associated with autoimmune atrophic gastritis:
Question 24Select one:
a.
Autoantibodies against pepsin
b.
Autoantibodies against insulin and beta cells
c.
Autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor
d.
Autoantibodies against islet cells
Autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor
Major preneoplastic lesion in atrophic gastritis:
Question 25Select one:
a.
Linitis plastica
b.
Intestinal metaplasia
c.
Barett’s oesophagus
d.
Hyperplastic polyp
Intestinal metaplasia
Most common infectious cause of chronic gastritis:
Question 26Select one:
a.
Streptococcus pyogenes
b.
Helicobacter pylori
c.
E. coli
d.
Tripanosoma cruzi
Helicobacter pylori
Type of lymphoma associated with Helicobacter pylori caused gastritis:
Question 27Select one:
a.
Marginal zone lymphoma
b.
DLBCL
c.
Follicular lymphoma
d.
Acute myeloid leukaemia
Marginal zone lymphoma
Type of gastritis most commonly seen in association with chronic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use:
Question 28Select one:
a.
Reactive or chemical gastropathy
b.
Cushing’s ulcer
c.
Acute gastritis
d.
Curling’s ulcer
Reactive or chemical gastropathy
Gastric disorder characterized by enlarged rugae and protein loss:
Question 29Select one:
a.
Atrophic gastropathy
b.
Anaemia perniciosa
c.
Crohn disease
d.
Ménétrier’s disease or hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy
Ménétrier’s disease or hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy
Common etiologic requirement for stomach and duodenal peptic ulcers:
Question 30Select one:
a.
Lack of pepsin
b.
Hyperplasia
c.
Hyperacidity
d.
Fungal infection
Hyperacidity
Most common portion of duodenum affected by peptic ulcer disease:
Question 31Select one:
a.
Pars recta
b.
Ascending duodenum
c.
Proximal duodenum
d.
Distal duodenum
Proximal duodenum
Most common infectious agent associated with duodenal ulcers:
Question 32Select one:
a.
Tripanosoma cruzi
b.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c.
Helicobacter pylori
d.
Candida
Helicobacter pylori
Multiple peptic ulcer syndrome associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia,type I:
Question 33Select one:
a.
Somatostatinoma
b.
Insulinoma
c.
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
d.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Type of drug most often etiologically associated with gastric ulcer:
Question 34Select one:
a.
Proton-pump inhibitors
b.
Antihistamine
c.
Antibiotics
d.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Featured acute complications of duodenal ulcers:
Question 35Select one:
a.
Sepsis
b.
Reflux
c.
Inflammation
d.
Hemorrhage or perforation
Hemorrhage or perforation
Most common molecular abnormality associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST):
Question 36Select one:
a.
P53
b.
BRCA1 & BRCA2
c.
HER2
d.
Mutation of c-kit oncogene
Mutation of c-kit oncogene
Most common type of gastric polyp:
Question 37Select one:
a.
Hyperplastic polyp
b.
Cardial polyp
c.
Inflammatory polyp
d.
Hamartomatous polyp
Hyperplastic polyp
Infectious agent associated with gastric carcinogenesis:
Question 38Select one:
a.
Herpes simplex
b.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c.
Candida
d.
Helicobacter pylori
Helicobacter pylori
Most common histologic type of gastric carcinoma:
Question 39Select one:
a.
Squamous carcinoma
b.
Leiomyosarcoma
c.
MALT- lymphoma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Infiltrating diffuse adenocarcinoma that involves the entire stomach wall:
Question 40Select one:
a.
Fibroma
b.
Linitis plastica
c.
GIST
d.
Cystadenocarcinoma
Linitis plastica
Supraclavicular lymph node enlargement due to gastric carcinoma metastasis:
Question 41Select one:
a.
Virchow’s nodule
b.
Celsius nodule
c.
Barrett nodule
d.
Zenker nodule
Virchow’s nodule
Gastric carcinoma metastatic to the ovaries:
Question 42Select one:
a.
Verrocay tumor
b.
Brenner tumor
c.
Zuckerberg tumor
d.
Krukenberg tumor
Krukenberg tumor
Low-grade malignancy of endocrine cells within the gastric mucosa:
Question 43Select one:
a.
Carcinoid tumor or gastric neuroendocrine tumor
b.
GIST
c.
Leiomyoma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
Carcinoid tumor or gastric neuroendocrine tumor
Gastric intraluminal mass consisted of undigestible foreign material (food, hair, etc.):
Question 44Select one:
a.
Trezoar
b.
Bezoar
c.
Sezoar
d.
Dezoar
Bezoar
Developmental remain of the vitelline duct:
Question 45Select one:
a.
Zenker’s diverticulum
b.
Traction diverticulum
c.
Pulsion diverticulum
d.
Meckel’s diverticulum
Meckel’s diverticulum
Common cause of bleeding from Meckel’s diverticulum:
Question 46Select one:
a.
Malrotation
b.
Strangulation
c.
Ectopic gastric mucosa with peptic ulceration
d.
Hyperplasia
Ectopic gastric mucosa with peptic ulceration
Genetic disease associated with meconium ileus and neonatal intestinal obstruction:
Question 47Select one:
a.
Marfan syndrome
b.
Ileitis terminalis
c.
Down syndrome
d.
Cystic fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis
Bacterium responsible for typhoid fever:
Question 48Select one:
a.
Salmonella
b.
E. coli
c.
Shigella
d.
Yersinia
Salmonella
Feared gastrointestinal complication of typhoid fever:
Question 49Select one:
a.
Hemorrhoids
b.
Diarrhea
c.
Intestinal hemorrhage and perforation
d.
Exsiccosis
Intestinal hemorrhage and perforation
Gram positive bacterium most commonly associated with food poisoning:
Question 50Select one:
a.
Mycobacterium
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Streptococcus pyogenes
d.
E. coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacterium associated with enterocolitis and acute mesenteric lymphadenitis, often transmitted by pets:
Question 51Select one:
a.
Campylobacter jejuni
b.
E. coli
c.
Shigella
d.
Yersinia enterocolitica
Yersinia enterocolitica
Most common viral causes of gastroenteritis:
Question 52Select one:
a.
Herpes simplex
b.
Hepatitis B
c.
Hepatitis C
d.
Rotavirus and Norwalk virus
Rotavirus and Norwalk virus
Most common causative agent of intestinal tuberculosis:
Question 53Select one:
a.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b.
Mycobacterium leprae
c.
Actinomyces
d.
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium bovis
Most common cause of acute intestinal ischemia:
Question 54Select one:
a.
Vasculitis
b.
Superior mesenteric artery occlusion
c.
Crohn disease
d.
Coeliac trunk occlusion
Superior mesenteric artery occlusion
Most common cause of chronic intestinal ischemia:
Question 55Select one:
a.
Embolism
b.
Colitis ulcerosa
c.
Vasculitis
d.
Atherosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
Intestinal disorder associated with milk product intolerance:
Question 56Select one:
a.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
b.
Milk allergy
c.
Lactase deficiency
d.
Lactate allergy
Lactase deficiency
Food component causative of celiac disease:
Question 57Select one:
a.
Valin
b.
Carbohydrates
c.
Aspartate
d.
Gluten
Gluten
Skin disorder associated with celiac disease:
Question 58Select one:
a.
Ulcus durum
b.
Dermatitis herpetiformis
c.
Kaposi sarcoma
d.
Ulcus molle
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Circulating antibodies associated with celiac disease:
Question 59Select one or more:
a.
Anti-endomysial antibodies
b.
Anti-transglutaminase antibodies
c.
Anti-nuclear antibodies
d.
Anti-perimysial antibodies
Anti-endomysial antibodies, Anti-transglutaminase antibodies
Intestinal malabsorption syndrome featuring infiltration of the small bowel mucosa by macrophages filled with rod-shaped bacilli:
Question 60Select one:
a.
Whipple’s disease
b.
Celiac disease
c.
Hirschprung disease
d.
Crohn disease
Whipple’s disease
Small bowel obstruction wherein a segment of bowel protrudes distally into the surrounding outer portion:
Question 61Select one:
a.
Volvulus
b.
Adhesion
c.
Incarceration
d.
Intussusception
Intussusception
Segmental gut twisting around its own mesentery:
Question 62Select one:
a.
Volvulus
b.
Adhesion
c.
Intussusception
d.
Stenosis
Volvulus
Fibrous scars caused by previous surgery that lead to small bowel obstruction:
Question 63Select one:
a.
Intussusception
b.
Adhesions
c.
Volvulus
d.
Retro peritoneal fibrosis
Adhesions
Autosomal dominant hereditary disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation:
Question 64Select one:
a.
FAP syndrome
b.
Cowden syndrome
c.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
d.
Gardener syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Most common risk factor for small bowel adenocarcinoma:
Question 65Select one:
a.
Hirshprung disease
b.
Ulcerative colitis
c.
Crohn’s disease
d.
Celiac disease
Crohn’s disease
Systemic syndrome commonly associated with small bowel neuroendocrine tumors:
Question 66Select one:
a.
Carcinoid syndrome
b.
Preneoplastic syndrome
c.
Neurodegenerative syndrome
d.
Chromogranin syndrome
Carcinoid syndrome
Congenital megacolon associated with absence of ganglion cells:
Question 67Select one:
a.
Colitis ulcerosa
b.
Diverticulosis
c.
Toxic megacolon
d.
Hirschsprung’s disease
Hirschsprung’s disease
Bacterial infection usually associated with pseudomembranous colitis:
Question 68Select one:
a.
Klebsiella
b.
Clostridium difficile
c.
Pseudomonas
d.
E. coli
Clostridium difficile
Type of medication most often associated with development of pseudomembranous colitis:
Question 69Select one:
a.
Antiviral drugs
b.
Antifungal drug
c.
Antibiotics
d.
NSAID
Antibiotics
Common condition associated with neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis:
Question 70Select one:
a.
Obesity
b.
E. coli gastroenteritis
c.
Atherosclerosis
d.
Premature birth
Premature birth
Acquired herniation of the colonic mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layers of the colon:
Question 71Select one:
a.
Zenker’s diverticulum
b.
Barrett disease
c.
Diverticulosis
d.
Sliding hiatal hernia
Diverticulosis
Chronic segmental transmural inflammation of small bowel, often involving the terminal ileum:
Question 72Select one:
a.
Meckel diverticulum
b.
Ulcerative colitis
c.
Hirschprung disease
d.
Crohn’s disease
Crohn’s disease
Chronic superficial inflammation of the colon that usually extends proximally from the rectum:
Question 73Select one:
a.
Crohn’s disease
b.
Acute bacterial colitis
c.
Ulcerative colitis
d.
Aspecific colitis
Ulcerative colitis
Intraluminal mucosal processes seen in ulcerative colitis:
Question 74Select one:
a.
Neoplastic polyps
b.
Hyperplastic polyp
c.
Inflammatory polyps
d.
Hamartomatous polyps
Inflammatory polyps
Acute extreme dilation of the colon in ulcerative colitis:
Question 75Select one:
a.
Hirschprung disease
b.
Diverticulosis
c.
Hypotonic colon
d.
Toxic megacolon
Toxic megacolon
Ocular complication of ulcerative colitis:
Question 76Select one:
a.
Uveitis
b.
Retinitis
c.
Conjuctivitis
d.
Retinoblastoma
Uveitis
Hepatic disease associated with ulcerative colitis:
Question 77Select one:
a.
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
b.
Hepatitis chronica
c.
Steatohepatitis
d.
Fibrosis hepatis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Precursor histological lesion of adenocarcinoma arising from ulcerative colitis:
Question 78Select one:
a.
Epithelial hyperplasia
b.
Glandular hypoplasia
c.
Epithelial dysplasia
d.
Epithelial hypertrophy
Epithelial dysplasia
Inflammatory disorder of the colon characterized by chronic watery diarrhea and histologically by a thickened subepithelial collagen band:
Question 79Select one:
a.
Intestinal fibrosis
b.
Collagen colitis
c.
Aspecific colitis
d.
Ileitis terminalis
Collagen colitis
Anatomic regions of the colon particularly vulnerable to ischemia:
Question 80Select one:
a.
Watershed areas (splenic flexure, rectosigmoid)
b.
Colon ascendens
c.
Tunica muscularis propria
d.
Mesocolon
Watershed areas (splenic flexure, rectosigmoid)
Localized arteriovenous malformations arising most often in the cecum and descending colon complicated by lower intestinal bleeding:
Question 81Select one:
a.
Shunt
b.
Varix
c.
Angiodysplasia
d.
Teleangiectesia
Angiodysplasia
Common cause of colonic bleeding during pregnancy:
Question 82Select one:
a.
Vasculitis
b.
Hemorrhoids
c.
Cardia varix
d.
Caput Medusae
Hemorrhoids
Most common benign mucosal tumor of the colon:
Question 83Select one:
a.
Leiomyoma
b.
Fibroma
c.
Adenomatous polyp
d.
Lipoma
Adenomatous polyp
Type of adenomatous polyp of the colon with the highest risk for development of adenocarcinoma:
Question 84Select one:
a.
Hyperplastic polyp
b.
Hamartomatous polyp
c.
Tubular adenoma
d.
Villous adenoma
Villous adenoma
Small sessile mucosal proliferation of the colon with exaggerated crypt architecture:
Question 85Select one:
a.
Sessile polyp
b.
Hyperplastic polyp
c.
Adenomatous polyp
d.
Inflammatory polyp
Hyperplastic polyp
Hyperplastic polyp with nuclear features of adenoma:
Question 86Select one:
a.
Serrated adenoma
b.
Tubular adenoma
c.
Polypus pendulans
d.
Villous adenoma
Serrated adenoma
Mutated gene in familial adenomatous polyposis:
Question 88Select one:
a.
P63
b.
Adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)
c.
P53
d.
Mismatch repair
Adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)
Autosomal dominant disorder associated with colonic adenomas and high risk for adenocarcinoma:
Question 87Select one:
a.
Cowden syndrome
b.
Familial adenomatous polyposis
c.
Gardener syndrome
d.
Peutz-Jeghers syndroma
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Hamartomatous proliferation of colonic mucosa often found in children under 10 years of age:
Question 89Select one:
a.
Juvenile polyps
b.
Tubular adenoma
c.
Inflammatory polyps
d.
Infantile polyps
Juvenile polyps
Most common type of lymphoma within the colon:
Question 92Select one:
a.
Mycosis fungioides
b.
Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
c.
Acute myeloid leukaemia
d.
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Familial syndrome associated with impaired DNA mismatch repair and colorectal carcinoma:
Question 90Select one:
a.
Cowden syndrome
b.
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)
c.
FAP
d.
Gardener syndrome
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)
Common hematologic complication of colorectal carcinoma:
Question 91Select one:
a.
Polycytaemia vera
b.
AML
c.
Aplastic anaemia
d.
Iron deficiency anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia
Dilated mucus-filled appendix:
Question 93Select one:
a.
Mucoappendix
b.
Mucoappendicitis
c.
Micoappendicitis
d.
Mucocele
Mucocele
Peritoneal seeding of mucus-secreting tumor cells:
Question 94Select one:
a.
Carcinosis peritonei
b.
Myxoma peritonei
c.
Pseudomyxoma peritonei
d.
Malignant mesothelioma
Pseudomyxoma peritonei
Most common casue of bacterial peritonitis:
Question 95Select one:
a.
Secondary following bacterial pleuritis
b.
Post endocarditis
c.
Post surgical intervention
d.
Abdominal viscus perforation
Abdominal viscus perforation
Type of peritonitis most commonly associated with cirrhosis:
Question 96Select one:
a.
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
b.
Fungal peritonitis
c.
Peritonitis hepatica
d.
Viral peritonitis
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Which are the three components of the nephron?
Question 1Select one:
a.
Renal artery, cortex and medulla
b.
Peripelvic fat tissue, parenchyma and the vessels
c.
Glomerulus, tubule and the collecting system
d.
Glomerulus, collecting system and afferent arterioli
Glomerulus, tubule and the collecting system
Most common primary peritoneal neoplasia:
Question 97Select one:
a.
Tumor peritonei
b.
Visceroma
c.
Malignant mesothelioma
d.
Seroma
Malignant mesothelioma
Endothelial cells and podocytes in glomerular capillaries are separated by?
Question 2Select one:
a.
Mesangial cells
b.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
c.
Glomerular basement membrane
d.
Mesangium
Glomerular basement membrane
Hormone secreting structure adjecent to the nephron?
Question 3Select one:
a.
Mesangium
b.
GBM
c.
Podocytes
d.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Cytoplasmatic projections of podocytes?
Question 4Select one:
a.
Foot processes
b.
Microwilli on the GBM
c.
Decapitation vacuoles
d.
Usual cytoplasmatic bodies
Foot processes
Complete developmental absence of renal tissue?
Question 5Select one:
a.
Renal agenesia
b.
Renal dysplasia
c.
Renal ectopia
d.
Renal hypoplasia
Renal agenesia
Most common site for ectopic kidney?
Question 6Select one:
a.
Intraabdominal
b.
Chest cavity
c.
Pelvis
d.
Mediastinum
Pelvis
Decreased renal mass of developmental origin?
Question 7Select one:
a.
Renal hypoplasia
b.
Renal hyperplasia
c.
Renal dysplasia
d.
Renal agenesia
Renal hypoplasia
One large mal-developed kidney situated in the midline?
Question 8Select one or more:
a.
Ectopic kidney
b.
Horseshoe kidney
c.
T-shape kidney
d.
Pancake kidney ???
Horseshoe kidney, Pancake kidney ???
The cellular and matrix network supporting the glomerulus?
Question 10Select one:
a.
Elastic fibres
b.
Mesangium
c.
GBM
d.
Granulation tissue
Mesangium
Location of cyst development in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?
Question 11Select one:
a.
Ureters
b.
Kidney pyelon
c.
Collecting ducts
d.
Glomeruli
Collecting ducts
Most common congenital cystic diesease of the kidney?
Question 9Select one:
a.
Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal recessive inheritance
b.
Multicystic kidney
c.
Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal dominant inheritance
d.
Medullary sponge kidney
Polycystic kidney disease with autosomal dominant inheritance
Effect of nephrotic syndrome on serum lipids?
Question 13Select one:
a.
Increase of HDLs
b.
Decrease (hypolipidemia)
c.
Increase (hyperlipidemia)
d.
Normal level
Increase (hyperlipidemia)
Congenital renal disease characterized by small cysts in the kidney papillae?
Question 12Select one:
a.
Multicystic kidney
b.
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
c.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
d.
Medullary sponge kidney
Medullary sponge kidney
Glomerular consolidation that affects some glomeruli and initially involves only a part of a glomerular tuft?
Question 18Select one:
a.
Mesagioproliferative glomerulosclerosis
b.
Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
c.
Anti GBM disease
d.
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Urine protein levels in nephrotic syndrome?
Question 14Select one:
a.
Less than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours
b.
No change in urine protein levels
c.
Greater than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours
d.
1-1.5 g protein per 24 hours
Greater than 3.5 g protein per 24 hours
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Question 16Select one:
a.
FSGS
b.
Membranous nephropathy
c.
Diabetes mellitus
d.
Minimal change disease
Minimal change disease
General syndrome of hematuria, variable degrees of proteinuria, and decreased glomerular filtration rate?
Question 15Select one:
a.
Nephrotic syndrome
b.
Nephritic syndrome
c.
Asymptomatic hematuria
d.
RPGN
Nephritic syndrome
Pathologic feature of minimal change disease?
Question 17Select one:
a.
Subendothelial immune deposits
b.
Effacement of podocyte foot processes
c.
Subepithelial immune deposits
d.
Mesangial immune deposits
Effacement of podocyte foot processes
Severe, rapidly progressive collapsing form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis associated with viral infection?
Question 19Select one:
a.
Cytomegalo virus associated nephropathy
b.
Hepatitis C virus associated nephropathy
c.
HIV-associated nephropathy
d.
Hepatitis B virus associated nephropathy
HIV-associated nephropathy
Nodular sclerotic glomerular lesions associated with diabetes?
Question 21Select one:
a.
Glomerulitis
b.
FSGS
c.
Tip lesion
d.
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
Most common causes of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Question 20Select one or more:
a.
Minimal change nephropathy
b.
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
c.
Membranous glomerulopathy
d.
Dense deposition disease
Membranous glomerulopathy, Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Characteristic ultrastructural features in acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis?
Question 26Select one:
a.
Spike formation
b.
GBM duplication
c.
Full house pattern
d.
Subepithelial dense deposits (humps)
Subepithelial dense deposits (humps)
Eosinophilic, amorphous material that deposits within glomeruli and has Congo-red positivity with apple-geen birefringence?
Question 22Select one:
a.
Immuncomplexes
b.
Sugar
c.
Fibrin
d.
Amyloid
Amyloid
Type of lymphoid neoplasias leading to light chain and/or heavy chain deposition glomerular disease?
Question 23Select one:
a.
Thymoma
b.
NK cell neoplasia
c.
B-cell neoplasia
d.
T-cell neoplasia
B-cell neoplasia
Hereditary nephritic syndrome due to abnormal type IV collagen in the glomerular basement membranes?
Question 24Select one:
a.
Nail-patella syndrome
b.
Down syndrome
c.
DiGeorge syndroma
d.
Alport’s syndrome
Alport’s syndrome
Common glomerulopathy caused by deposition of immune complexes in the mesangium and the subendothelial zone of capillary walls?
Question 27Select one:
a.
Mesangioproliferative GN
b.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II
c.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I
d.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type III
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I
Glomerular disease that may follow infection with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus?
Question 25Select one:
a.
Acute poststreptococcal gloemrulonephritis
b.
Anti GBM disease
c.
IgA nephropathy
d.
FSGS
Acute poststreptococcal gloemrulonephritis
Type of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis characterized by electron-dense transformation of glomerular basement membranes and extensive complement (C3c) deposition?
Question 28Select one:
a.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type III
b.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II
c.
Mesangioploliferative GN
d.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type I
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II
Type of immunoglobulin deposited in the glomerular mesangium in Berger’s disease?
Question 29Select one:
a.
IgG
b.
IgA
c.
IgM
d.
IgE
IgA
Immunologic basis for Goodpasture’s syndrome?
Question 30Select one:
a.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
b.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
c.
ANCA vasculitis
d.
Anti PLA-R2 antibody
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
Distinctive glomerular lesion associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome?
Question 31Select one:
a.
Tip lesion
b.
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
c.
FSGS
d.
Crescents
Crescents
Aggressive, neutrophil-mediated disease characterized by glomerular necrosis and crescent formation, also known as idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis?
Question 32Select one:
a.
Anti GBM glomerulonehphritis
b.
Immune complex mediated crescentic glomerulonephritis
c.
IgA nephropathy
d.
ANCA glomerulonephritis
ANCA glomerulonephritis
ANCA vasculitis associated with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of the respiratory tract?
Question 33Select one:
a.
Wegener’s granulomatosis
b.
Berger’s disease
c.
Churg-Strauss syndroma
d.
Anti GBM glomerulonephritis
Wegener’s granulomatosis
ANCA vasculitis associated with eosinophilia and asthma?
Question 34Select one:
a.
Churg-Strauss syndrome
b.
Berger’s disease
c.
Anti GBM glomerulonephritis
d.
Wegener’s granulomatosis
Churg-Strauss syndrome
Common childhood vasculitis associated with IgA nephropathy?
Question 35Select one:
a.
ANCA glomerulonephritis
b.
Churg-Strauss syndrome
c.
Wegener’s granulomatosis
d.
Henoch-Scönlein purpura
Henoch-Scönlein purpura
ANCA vasculitis without asthma or granulomatous inflammation?
Question 36Select one:
a.
Churg-Strauss syndrome
b.
Wegener’s granulomatosis
c.
Henoch-Scönlein purpura
d.
Microscopic polyarteritis
Microscopic polyarteritis
Renal arteriolar change associated with hypertensive nephrosclerosis?
Question 37Select one:
a.
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
b.
Atherosclerosis
c.
Onion skin change
d.
Fibrinoid necrosis
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
Common cause of renovascular hypertension?
Question 38Select one:
a.
Interstitial fibrosis
b.
Hydronephrosis
c.
Narrowing of the renal artery
d.
Nephrotic syndrome
Narrowing of the renal artery
Most common cause of renal infarcts?
Question 39Select one:
a.
Traumatic injury
b.
Renal artery thrombosis
c.
Thromboembolization
d.
Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
Thromboembolization
Type of renal embolus presenting with with cholesterol clefts?
Question 40Select one:
a.
Atheroemboli
b.
Bone marrow emboli
c.
Foreign body emboli
d.
Fat embolization
Atheroemboli
