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TRI 1 - Patho > Patho Exam 3 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system located

A

Outside of the CNS in the paravertebral ganglia, bead like structures

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2
Q

Where are the ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system located

A

on or near the target tissue

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3
Q

What does the parasympathetic system control

A

rest digest

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4
Q

What does the sympathetic system control

A

Fight of flight

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5
Q

What is the main goal of the autonomic nervous system

A

maintain homeostasis

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6
Q

What is the neuroeffector junction and how does it function

A

site where motor neurons release neurotransmitters to affect muscle cells
neurotransmitters are released into interstitial fluid and diffuses until reaches a target cell

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7
Q

What is released by preganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers fibers

A

acetylcholine

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8
Q

What is released by postsynaptic sympathetic fibers

A

norepinephrine

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9
Q

What is released by postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers

A

acetylcholine

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10
Q

What are some major organs or tissues controlled by the autonomic nervous system

A

Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, exocrine glands, some endocrine glands, lymphoid tissues, the liver, adipose tissue

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11
Q

Why is the adrenal medulla called a modified sympathetic ganglion

A

It secretes neurohormone directly into the blood

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12
Q

What is the working of the somatic motor division of the efferent pathway of the PNS

A

Single neuron from CNS to target tissue, always excitatory

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13
Q

What is a NMJ

A

the synapse between the alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers

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14
Q

What is a motor unit

A

The motor neuron and the muscles it innervates

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15
Q

What is myasthenia gravis

A

Most common disorder of NMJ, results from lack of acetylcholine receptors on post synaptic side

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16
Q

What is the motor end plate

A

postsynaptic side of NMJ, has acetylcholine receptors

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17
Q

What breaks down acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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18
Q

What is calcium ineduced release

A

When calcium from pre synapse binds to SR to release even more calcium

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19
Q

What is syncytium

A

When muscles next to each other signal each other to contract in unison

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20
Q

What is an Isometric contraction

A

Same length, same tone

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21
Q

What is an Isotonic contraction

A

Same tone, different length

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22
Q

What is a Concentric contraction

A

Force greater than load

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23
Q

What is an Eccentric contraction

A

Force less than load

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24
Q

What are the zones of the Sarcomere

A 
Z disk - ends, thin filaments
I band - thin actin filaments only
A band - thin and thick filament
H zone - thick myosin only
M line - middle, attachment for thick filament
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25
Q

What is the function of the SR

A

Contain and control calcium

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26
Q

What is the function of the T-tubules

A

Help with electrical conduction within muscle fiber

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27
Q

What do nebulin and titin do

A

Nebulin - structure for actin

Titin - structure for Myosin

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28
Q

What are the layers of connective tissue for a muscle

A

epimysium - around muscle
perimysium - around fascicle
endomysium - around fiber

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29
Q

Describe osteoporosis

A

low bone density
more in females
most common metabolic bone disease

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30
Q

Describe Paget’s disease

A

Osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity
deformity of the skull and bowing of femur and tibia
second most common metabolic bone disease

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31
Q

Describe osteomalacia

A

Softening of bones as a result of vitamin D deficiency

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32
Q

Describe Gout

A

uric acid crystalizes in foot most often, very painful

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33
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex

A

single synapse between neurons in reflex pathway, often afferent and efferent

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34
Q

What is a polysynaptic reflex

A

More than one synapse, more complex

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35
Q

Where are Autonomic neural reflexes integrated

A

hypothalamus, thalamus and brainstem

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36
Q

Describe GTOs

A

found near tendons
provides information on muscle tension
prevent too much tension by relaxing muscle

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37
Q

Describe muscle spindles

A

found in muscle
provides information on muscle stretch
Intrafusal fibers are innervated by gamma neurons
prevent too much length by contracting muscle

38
Q

What is alpha – gamma coactivation

A

Excitation of alpha and gamma motor neurons at the same time to maintain spindle activation during muscle contraction

39
Q

What is Stretch reflex

A

when spindles prompts muscle contraction to prevent the muscle from being damaged by excessive stretch

40
Q

What is Crossed Extensor reflex

A

extension of the opposite leg to support sudden shift in weight

41
Q

What is Reciprocal inhibition

A

When antagonist muscles relax so agonist muscle can contract

42
Q

What is reflex movement and where is it integrated

A

least complex

integrated by spinal cord

43
Q

What is voluntary movement and where is it integrated, what are the types

A 
most complex
integrated at cerebral cortex
Decision making and planning 
Initiating movement
Executing movement
44
Q

What is Rhythmic movement

A

combination of reflex and voluntary, like walking or running

45
Q

What are the aerobic and anaerobic yields of ATP production

A

Aerobic 30-32

Anaerobic 2

46
Q

Describe the corticospinal tract

A

Controls voluntary movement
runs from motor cortex to the spinal cord
descending pathways cross to other side of the body in a region of the medulla called the pyramids

47
Q

What hormones increase in concentration with exercise

A

Glucagon
Cortisol
Catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine)

48
Q

What hormones promote conservation of triglycerides

A

Glaucon
Cortisol
Catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine)

49
Q

What happens to insulin with exercise

A

Secretion decreases, probably due to sympathetic inhibition

50
Q

What does GLUT4 transporter do

A

performs the function of insulin but in muscle only

51
Q

What is EPOC

A

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption, represents oxygen being used to metabolize lactate and restore ATP and phosphocreatine levels

52
Q

What are the energy yields of the macronutrients

A

Carbs and proteins - 4 cal

Fat - 9 cal

53
Q

How does exercise affect immunity

A

It affects it like a J curve

54
Q

What are all the steps of actin in contraction

A 
Ca increase in cytosol
Ca binds to troponin
Troponin-Ca complex pulls tropomyosin away from actin’s myosin-binding site
Myosin binds to actin and power strokes
Actin moves
55
Q

What is the role of tropomyosin

A

Blocks the myosin binding sites on action, moves when calcium binds to troponin

56
Q

What is ECC and SFT

A

ECC - action potentials are converted into calcium signals

SFT - actin and myosin slide past one another

57
Q

What are the healthy vital sign responses to exercise

A

HR - goes up with intensity
SPB - goes up with intensity
DPB - may go up or down by 10 degrees

58
Q

What are some vital sign red flags

A

If HR or BP goes down with increased intensity

If HR or BP goes up with constant intensity

59
Q

What is osteomyelitis

A

bacterial inflammation of the bone, makes bones weak and open to fracture

60
Q

What is exogenous osteomyelitis

A

organism enters from outside, possibly from a surgical procedure

61
Q

What is hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

spreads from inside the body from a preexisting infection

62
Q

Why is it of concern when children develop osteomyelitis

A

If periosteum is displaced-blood supply is compromised- bone infarct

63
Q

How do you diagnose osteomyelitis

A

Children present with acute pain and high fever
If the process is unattended for a week or 10 days, permanent bone structure damage
almost always occurs
early diagnosis is crucial

64
Q

What is Myositis offificans

A

abnormal bone deposits in muscle

can be caused by trauma or repeated trauma

65
Q

Describe prosthesis and implant fever

A

Painful joint, fever, risk of implant failure, possibly death
70% locally introduced

66
Q

What are the stages if implant/ prosthesis infection

A

early - < 3 months
Delayed 3 - 24 months
Late > 24 months

67
Q

Describe the 4 types of fractures

A

Traumatic - sudden impact
Stress fatigue - partial break as a result of repeated rhythmic stress
Insufficiency - result from normal force as a result of weakened bone
pathologic - fracture that occurs in a bone that is fragile by pathological means

68
Q

What is a sprain and a strain

A

sprain - ligamentous tear

Strain - muscular tear

69
Q

What are the sprain and strain classifications

A

first degree - minor tearing, no integrity loss
second degree - partial tearing, clear loss of function
Third degree - severe tear, complete loss of function

70
Q

What is osteoarthritis and how do you rule out rheumatoid arthritis

A

wear and tear of cartilage on joints

Rule out RH by RH factor, proteins outside of RBC

71
Q

Describe degenerative disk disease

A

wear down if IV disks

repeated loading, repetitive injury

72
Q

Describe the plateau phase of heart excitation

A

Open calcium channels remaining open and potassium channels not opening right away are responsible for cardiac action potential repolarization plateau

73
Q

What is the conduction pathway in the heart

A 
SA node
Internodal Pathway
Atrioventricular node
AV bundle
left and right bundle branches
74
Q

What are the ions in cardiac impulse generation

A

Depolarization - sodium entry

Repolarization - potassium exit

75
Q

What do the waves on an EKG correspond to

A

P - atrial depolarization
QRS - ventricular depolarization, also atrial repolarization happens here
T - ventricular repolarization

76
Q

What are the 5 stages of the cardiac cycle

A

Atrial and ventricular diastole, atria are filling, AV valves open, blood flows via gravity
Atrial systole, atrias contract to fill ventricles, EDV is observed here as the ventricles hold their largest amount of blood
Early ventricular contraction, isovolumetric ventricular contraction, atria begin to fill again, first heart sound as the AV valves close
Ventricular ejection, pressure overcomes the semilunar valves and blood is ejected into the arteries, EDV is observed here as these is a small amount of blood left in the heart
Ventricular relaxation, second heart sound

77
Q

What causes the heart sounds

A

S1 -Closure of Mitral and Tricuspid

S2- closure of semilunar valves

78
Q

What is cardiac output

A

Volume of blood pumped by one ventricle in a given time, (heart rate x stroke volume)

79
Q

What is stroke volume

A

The amount of blood per systole

80
Q

What are some factors that affect venous return

A

Contraction or compression of veins returning blood to the heart
Pressure changes in the abdomen and thorax during breathing
Sympathetic innervation of veins

81
Q

What causes congenital heart defects

A

Environmental factors - Infections, medication, alcohol, smoking drugs
Genetic - Heredity, mutations, linked with other issue

82
Q

Differentiate between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis

A

Art
Thickening of the middle layers of small arteries, loss of elasticity, arterial hardening
Ath
Lipids and calcium deposit below the medium and large vascular endothelium
Caused by elevated cholesterol and triglycerides
Large contributor to cardiovascular disease in US

83
Q

Risk factors for atherosclerosis

A

High cholesterol and triglycerides

84
Q

Types Angina

A

Chronic stable - predictable level of physical activity
Unstable - unpredictable with exercise
Vasospastic - occurs at rest, vasospasm of coronary arteries

85
Q

Healing process for MI and medications

A

Surgical options to re vascularize the area of infarct

Nitroglycerine, beta blockers, anticoagulants

86
Q

S/s of Myocardial infarction and healing duration

A

Chest pain, heavy arms, shortness of breath, coughing, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, clammy and sweaty
5-6 weeks

87
Q

What is Heart failure: s/s of heart failure – left heart failure, right sided heart failure

A

Left
Shortness of breath, coughing, especially during exercise, most common
Right
Buildup of fluid in legs, genitals and abdomen, also cyanosis, enlargement of jugular veins, hepatomegaly and elevated venous pressure

88
Q

Action of the medications used to treat heart failure

A

Diuretics - ACE inhibitors

Vasodilators - inotropes

89
Q

describe Orthostatic hypotension

A

Low blood pressure when going from sitting down to standing up

90
Q

What is Active hyperemia, reactive hyperemia

A

Locally mediated increased blood flow to organs

TRI 1 - Patho (5 decks)

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