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TRI 1 - Patho > Patho Exam 2 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are hormones

A

Hormones are chemical messengers secreted into the blood by specialized epithelial cells

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2
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Hypothalamus

A

Trophic hormones [P,A] - Anterior Pituitary - Phosphorylate proteins. alters channel opening

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3
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Posterior Pituitary

A

Oxytocin - breasts and uterus - milk ejection, labor and delivery - behavior
Vasopressin - kidney - water reabsorption

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4
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Anterior pituitary

A

Prolactin - breast - milk production
growth hormone - liver, many tissues - growth factor secretion, growth and metabolism
Corticotropen - adrenal cortex - cortisol release
thyrotropin - throid gland - thyroid hormone synthesis
Follicle-stimulating hormone/ lutienizing hormone - gonads - egg or sperm production, sex hormone production

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5
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the thyroid gland

A

triiodothyronine and thyroxine - many tissues - metabolism, growth and development
calcitonin - bone - plasma calcium levels

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6
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone - kidney - Na and K homeostasis
cortisol - many tissues - stress response
androgens - many tissues - sex drive in females

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7
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine - many tissues - fight or flight response

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8
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Kidney

A

erythropoietin - bone marrow - red blood cell production

1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D3 - intestine - increase calcium reabsorption

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9
Q

Describe a peptide or protein hormone

A

not steroid and not amino acid derived
short half life
dissolved in plasma
Bind to surface

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10
Q

describe a steriod hormone

A

derived from cholesterol
long half life
bound to carrier proteins
cross membrane

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11
Q

what is synergism

A

when two or more hormones interact at their target yielding a higher response that is greater than additive

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12
Q

what is a permissive hormone

A

when one hormone cannot act unless another is present

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13
Q

what is a antagonistic hormone

A

when two hormones have opposing effects

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14
Q

describe negative feed back

A

when hormones secreted by peripheral gland loop back and suppresses secretion of a hormone

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15
Q

what is down regulation

A

decrease in protein number or binding affinity that lessens response

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16
Q

what is glycogenesis

A

the synthesis of glycogen from glucose

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17
Q

what is lipogenesis

A

the conversion of excess glucose into fat

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18
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

when plasma glucose decreases and the body converts glycogen to glucose and glucose 6 phosphate

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19
Q

what is gluconeogenesis

A

when amino acids are converted to glucose when there is low glucose intake

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20
Q

What is the state of carbohydrates in a fasted and fed state

A

used immediately for energy in aerobic pathways
used for lipoprotein synthesis in liver
stored as glycogen in liver and muscle
excess is stored as fat

glycogen polymers breakdown to glucose in liver of glucose 6 phosphate for use in glycolysis

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21
Q

what is the state of proteins in a fasted and fed state

A

amino acids go to protein synthesis
excess converted to fat

break down into amino acids
proteins consumed for ATP or converted into glucose

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22
Q

what is the state of fats in a fed and fasted state`

A

stored as triglycerides in liver and adipose tissue
cholesterol used for steroid synthesis or membrane component
fatty acids used for lipoprotein and eicosanoid synthesis

triglycerides broken down into fatty acids and glycerol
fatty acids used for ATP production in beta oxidation

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23
Q

what is beta oxidation

A

when protein chains are turned into acetyl CoA for ATP production and may lead to the rise of ketone bodies as a byproduct

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24
Q

what are the differences between type 1 and 2 diabetes

A

type 1
- autoimmune disease resulting in beta cell destruction where insulin cant be secreted by the pancreas because they were destroyed by white blood cells

type 2
- known as insulin resistant diabetes, lifestyle disease

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25
Q

what is the difference between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus

A

mellitus is common diabetes but insipidus has to do with fluid levels and water also vasopressin and ADH by posterior pituitary

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26
Q

How is Diabetes tested for

A

Blood glucose tests

2 hour oral glucose tolerance test (above 200mg/dl after 2 hours )

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27
Q

what are the levels of a prediabetic

A

hemoglobin A1c - 5.7% - 6.4%
Fasting glucose - 100-125 ml/dl
two hour random plasma - 140-199 mg/dl glucose

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28
Q

what are the levels of a diabetic

A

hemoglobin A1c - > 6.5%
Fasting glucose - > 126 mg/dl
two hour random plasma - 200 mg/dl glucose

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29
Q

how do you diagnose metabolic syndrome

A 
3 of the following 5
- serum triglycerides - > 150 mg/dl 
- Serum HDL - M < 40mg/dl, F 50mg/dl
BP - > 130/85 mmHg
fasting blood glucose - > 100mg/dl
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30
Q

what can metabolic syndrome progress to and how can you change it

A

type 2 DM

lifestyle changes like diet and exercise

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31
Q

if there is ketosis in blood or urine of a diabetic what does this mean

A

not to exercise a diabetic because they are not managing their diabetes

32
Q

exercise precautions with hypoglycemia

A

Avoid exercise at peak insulin time, avoid injection in exercising muscle

33
Q

exercise precautions with autonomic neuropathy

A

exaggerated HR and blood pressure with exercise

orthostatic and postural hypotension

34
Q

exercise precautions with peripheral neuropathy

A 
regular self exam of feet
proper footwear, alternate
never soak feet
strait cut toe nails
no tape on feet
35
Q

exercise precautions with Diabetic retinopathy

A

avoid anaerobic exercise

avoid straining and Valsalva like maneuvers

36
Q

what are signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

`

37
Q

describe an endocrine gland

A

ductless

secretions carried in blood to distant target cells

38
Q

what type of feedback pathway controls blood glucose

A

negative, with insulin

39
Q

what type of feedback pathway controls oxytocin

A

positive

40
Q

how does aging affect hormone function

A

loss of regulation can lead to autoimmune disorders
altered hormone metabolism
secretory responses

41
Q

what do releasing hormones do

A

stimulate synthesis and secretion

42
Q

what do inhibiting hormones do

A

prevent synthesis and secretion

43
Q

what is primary pathology

A

last gland in pathway

44
Q

what is secondary pathology

A

anterior pituitary

45
Q

what is tertiary pathology

A

hypothalamus

46
Q

What are the three types of hypercortisolism

A

1 - primary - adrenal tumor secretes cortisol autonomously
2 - secondary - Cushing’s disease - pituitary tumor secretes ACTH
3 - Cushing syndrome - physician caused, cortisol from the outside

47
Q

Describe Cushing’s disease

A 
excessive cortisol
hyperglycemia
hypertension
muscle wasting
osteoporosis
poor wound healing
moon face and red cheeks
48
Q

describe Addison’s diseasegluconeogenesisop

A

adrenal insufficiency, hyposecretion of steroid hormones
hypoglycemia
autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex
results in widespread metabolic disturbances

49
Q

what is pheochromocytoma

A

a rare tumor that usually starts in the cells of one of your adrenal glands that can cause the adrenal gland to make too many hormones.

50
Q

What are the 3 types of divisions of the nervous system

A

CNS - brain spinal cord / PNS - afferent and efferent nerves

Efferent

  • Somatic - voluntary
  • visceral - involuntary

Visceral / autonomic - parasympathetic vs sympathetic

51
Q

What are the parts of the nerve cell and their function

A 
Dendrites - receive information
Axons - carry outgoing info
Cell Bodies - contain nucleus
Collaterals - terminal branches of axon 
Axon terminals - where synapse occurs
52
Q

What is the flow of information in the CNS

A 
Stimulus
sensor
input signal
integrating center
output signal
target response
53
Q

Production of myelin in CNS and PNS. Difference in transmission of nerve impulse in myelinated versus nonmyelinated fibers

A

CNS - oligodendrocytes
PNS - Schwan cells
myelinated is fast

54
Q

Generation of Action potential- absolute or relative refractory period, know electrolyte values that trigger depolarization, repolarization. Which ions contributes to the resting membrane potential

A

Absolute - time required for NA channel to reset to resting positions
Relative - some but not all Na channels have reset, K channels still open
depolarization -55
repolarization +30
K contributes most to resting potential

55
Q

Saltatory conduction- role of myelin

A

when action potential jumps from node to node

56
Q

convergence, divergence, fast and slow postsynaptic responses, excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, temporal and spatial summation, and synaptic inhibition

A

convergence - more presynaptic neurons into less post synaptic neurons
Divergence - branches pf presynaptic neuron synapse with multiple targets
Fast - opens channels directly and quickly, but last milliseconds
Slow - activate second messengers
excitatory - depolarizing
Inhibitory - hyperpolarizing
temporal - overlapping in time
spatial - several nearly simultaneous potentials
inhibition - when a neuron is modulated resulting in inhibited neurotransmitter release

57
Q

What is UMN and LMN disease, how to distinguish?

A 
UMN 
 - increased muscle tone
 - hyper reflexes
 - no atrophy
LMN
 - reduced muscle tone
 - reduced deep tendon reflexes
 - atrophy
58
Q

What is neuropraxia, axonotmesis, Wallerian degeneration, neurotmesis?

A

Wallerian degeneration - when the terminal dies
neuropraxia - demyelination, compression
axonotmesis - demyelination and axon loss, crash injuries and displacements
Wallerian degeneration - when the axon terminal dies due to proximal injury
neurotmesis - demyelination, axon loss as well as damage to endoneurium, perineurium or epineurium

59
Q

Characteristics of polyneuropathy

A

diffuse disfunction of nerves
- lower motor neuron, somatosensory or autonomic abnormalities

Demyelination or Axonal loss

tends to start low and move up

may be caused by
- Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Guillain-Barre Syndrome or Diabetes Mellitus

60
Q

What is lateral inhibition

A

when sensors sensitive to a stimulus close to make the stimulus more intense

61
Q

Characteristics of Gillian Barre

A

immune system attacks myelin of peripheral nerves

caused by infectious illness stomach flu or lung infection

weakness that progresses to the upper body, pins and needles, difficulty with eye or facial movements, balance is challenged, pain, cramps, difficulty retaining urine and sluggish bowel movements, tachycardia, rapid respiration rate, blood pressure fluctuations

62
Q

Characteristics of Poliomyelitis

A

Invades intestines and attacks motor neurons in the nervous system

63
Q

Where is CSF produced, circulated, absorbed, function of CSF, CSF tapping

A

choroid plexus on the walls of the ventricles
absorbed into blood by special villi
physical and chemical protection
Spinal tap removes fluid from subarachnoid space

64
Q

Reflexes and integration of the brain- spinal reflex- integration is at the SC

A

spinal cord generates its own action potentials when interneurons turn sensory info into muscle action

65
Q

Parts of the CNS: Cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, hypothalamus

A

Cerebrum -
Brainstem - oldest, gray and white matter
Cerebellum - second largest,
hypothalamus -

66
Q

Parts of the CNS: Cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, hypothalamus

A

Cerebrum - largest part, responsible for higher functions of brain
Brainstem - oldest, gray and white matter
Cerebellum - second largest, process sensory information and control movement
hypothalamus - maintains homeostasis

67
Q

thalamus- functions

A

relay station that receives and modifies information from below

68
Q

first 6 cranial nerves name and function

A

Olfactory - smell
Optic - vision
Oculomotor - eye movement, pupil constriction, lens shape
Trochlear - eye movement
trigeminal - senses from face and mouth, motor signals for chewing
abducens - eye movement

69
Q

last 6 cranial nerves

A

Facial - taste, tear and salivary glands, facial expressions
Vestibulocochlear - hearing and equilibrium
glossopharyngeal - oral sensory, baro and chemoreceptors in blood, swallowing, parotid salivary gland secretion
Vagus - sensory and efferent to organs muscles and glands
spinal accessory - muscles in shoulder and neck
hypoglossal - tongue

70
Q

Describe Wernicke’s area

A

Speech center - junction of parietal, temporal and occipital lobes
damage to this area referred to as receptive aphasia, may result in nonsense speech and difficulty understanding com

71
Q

Describe Broca’s area

A

Speech center - posterior frontal lobe

damage to this area referred to as expressive aphasia, difficulty understanding complex explanations

72
Q

Where are spatial and verbal language skills found in the brain

A

Spatial - right

verbal - left

73
Q

Describe spina bifida

A

Folic acid deficiency
Occulta -
Meningocele -
myelomeningocele -

74
Q

What are the types of receptors and what do they sense

A

Chemo - ligands that bind to it
Mechano - pressure, vibration, gravity, acceleration and sound
Thermo - temperature
Photo - light
Baro - mechano reseptor sensitive to pressure

75
Q

Polydipsia, polyphagia

A

polydipsia - thirst

Polyphagia - hunger

TRI 1 - Patho (5 decks)

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