Patho Exam 2 Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

What are hormones

A

Hormones are chemical messengers secreted into the blood by specialized epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Hypothalamus

A

Trophic hormones [P,A] - Anterior Pituitary - Phosphorylate proteins. alters channel opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Posterior Pituitary

A

Oxytocin - breasts and uterus - milk ejection, labor and delivery - behavior
Vasopressin - kidney - water reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Anterior pituitary

A

Prolactin - breast - milk production
growth hormone - liver, many tissues - growth factor secretion, growth and metabolism
Corticotropen - adrenal cortex - cortisol release
thyrotropin - throid gland - thyroid hormone synthesis
Follicle-stimulating hormone/ lutienizing hormone - gonads - egg or sperm production, sex hormone production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the thyroid gland

A

triiodothyronine and thyroxine - many tissues - metabolism, growth and development
calcitonin - bone - plasma calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone - kidney - Na and K homeostasis
cortisol - many tissues - stress response
androgens - many tissues - sex drive in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine - many tissues - fight or flight response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What hormone(s), targets and responses come from the Kidney

A

erythropoietin - bone marrow - red blood cell production

1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D3 - intestine - increase calcium reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe a peptide or protein hormone

A

not steroid and not amino acid derived
short half life
dissolved in plasma
Bind to surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe a steriod hormone

A

derived from cholesterol
long half life
bound to carrier proteins
cross membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is synergism

A

when two or more hormones interact at their target yielding a higher response that is greater than additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a permissive hormone

A

when one hormone cannot act unless another is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a antagonistic hormone

A

when two hormones have opposing effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe negative feed back

A

when hormones secreted by peripheral gland loop back and suppresses secretion of a hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is down regulation

A

decrease in protein number or binding affinity that lessens response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is glycogenesis

A

the synthesis of glycogen from glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is lipogenesis

A

the conversion of excess glucose into fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

when plasma glucose decreases and the body converts glycogen to glucose and glucose 6 phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is gluconeogenesis

A

when amino acids are converted to glucose when there is low glucose intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the state of carbohydrates in a fasted and fed state

A

used immediately for energy in aerobic pathways
used for lipoprotein synthesis in liver
stored as glycogen in liver and muscle
excess is stored as fat

glycogen polymers breakdown to glucose in liver of glucose 6 phosphate for use in glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the state of proteins in a fasted and fed state

A

amino acids go to protein synthesis
excess converted to fat

break down into amino acids
proteins consumed for ATP or converted into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the state of fats in a fed and fasted state`

A

stored as triglycerides in liver and adipose tissue
cholesterol used for steroid synthesis or membrane component
fatty acids used for lipoprotein and eicosanoid synthesis

triglycerides broken down into fatty acids and glycerol
fatty acids used for ATP production in beta oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is beta oxidation

A

when protein chains are turned into acetyl CoA for ATP production and may lead to the rise of ketone bodies as a byproduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the differences between type 1 and 2 diabetes

A

type 1
- autoimmune disease resulting in beta cell destruction where insulin cant be secreted by the pancreas because they were destroyed by white blood cells

type 2
- known as insulin resistant diabetes, lifestyle disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the difference between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
mellitus is common diabetes but insipidus has to do with fluid levels and water also vasopressin and ADH by posterior pituitary
26
How is Diabetes tested for
Blood glucose tests | 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test (above 200mg/dl after 2 hours )
27
what are the levels of a prediabetic
hemoglobin A1c - 5.7% - 6.4% Fasting glucose - 100-125 ml/dl two hour random plasma - 140-199 mg/dl glucose
28
what are the levels of a diabetic
hemoglobin A1c - > 6.5% Fasting glucose - > 126 mg/dl two hour random plasma - 200 mg/dl glucose
29
how do you diagnose metabolic syndrome
``` 3 of the following 5 - serum triglycerides - > 150 mg/dl - Serum HDL - M < 40mg/dl, F 50mg/dl BP - > 130/85 mmHg fasting blood glucose - > 100mg/dl ```
30
what can metabolic syndrome progress to and how can you change it
type 2 DM | lifestyle changes like diet and exercise
31
if there is ketosis in blood or urine of a diabetic what does this mean
not to exercise a diabetic because they are not managing their diabetes
32
exercise precautions with hypoglycemia
Avoid exercise at peak insulin time, avoid injection in exercising muscle
33
exercise precautions with autonomic neuropathy
exaggerated HR and blood pressure with exercise | orthostatic and postural hypotension
34
exercise precautions with peripheral neuropathy
``` regular self exam of feet proper footwear, alternate never soak feet strait cut toe nails no tape on feet ```
35
exercise precautions with Diabetic retinopathy
avoid anaerobic exercise | avoid straining and Valsalva like maneuvers
36
what are signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia
`
37
describe an endocrine gland
ductless | secretions carried in blood to distant target cells
38
what type of feedback pathway controls blood glucose
negative, with insulin
39
what type of feedback pathway controls oxytocin
positive
40
how does aging affect hormone function
loss of regulation can lead to autoimmune disorders altered hormone metabolism secretory responses
41
what do releasing hormones do
stimulate synthesis and secretion
42
what do inhibiting hormones do
prevent synthesis and secretion
43
what is primary pathology
last gland in pathway
44
what is secondary pathology
anterior pituitary
45
what is tertiary pathology
hypothalamus
46
What are the three types of hypercortisolism
1 - primary - adrenal tumor secretes cortisol autonomously 2 - secondary - Cushing's disease - pituitary tumor secretes ACTH 3 - Cushing syndrome - physician caused, cortisol from the outside
47
Describe Cushing's disease
``` excessive cortisol hyperglycemia hypertension muscle wasting osteoporosis poor wound healing moon face and red cheeks ```
48
describe Addison's diseasegluconeogenesisop
adrenal insufficiency, hyposecretion of steroid hormones hypoglycemia autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex results in widespread metabolic disturbances
49
what is pheochromocytoma
a rare tumor that usually starts in the cells of one of your adrenal glands that can cause the adrenal gland to make too many hormones.
50
What are the 3 types of divisions of the nervous system
CNS - brain spinal cord / PNS - afferent and efferent nerves Efferent - Somatic - voluntary - visceral - involuntary Visceral / autonomic - parasympathetic vs sympathetic
51
What are the parts of the nerve cell and their function
``` Dendrites - receive information Axons - carry outgoing info Cell Bodies - contain nucleus Collaterals - terminal branches of axon Axon terminals - where synapse occurs ```
52
What is the flow of information in the CNS
``` Stimulus sensor input signal integrating center output signal target response ```
53
Production of myelin in CNS and PNS. Difference in transmission of nerve impulse in myelinated versus nonmyelinated fibers
CNS - oligodendrocytes PNS - Schwan cells myelinated is fast
54
Generation of Action potential- absolute or relative refractory period, know electrolyte values that trigger depolarization, repolarization. Which ions contributes to the resting membrane potential
Absolute - time required for NA channel to reset to resting positions Relative - some but not all Na channels have reset, K channels still open depolarization -55 repolarization +30 K contributes most to resting potential
55
Saltatory conduction- role of myelin
when action potential jumps from node to node
56
convergence, divergence, fast and slow postsynaptic responses, excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, temporal and spatial summation, and synaptic inhibition
convergence - more presynaptic neurons into less post synaptic neurons Divergence - branches pf presynaptic neuron synapse with multiple targets Fast - opens channels directly and quickly, but last milliseconds Slow - activate second messengers excitatory - depolarizing Inhibitory - hyperpolarizing temporal - overlapping in time spatial - several nearly simultaneous potentials inhibition - when a neuron is modulated resulting in inhibited neurotransmitter release
57
What is UMN and LMN disease, how to distinguish?
``` UMN - increased muscle tone - hyper reflexes - no atrophy LMN - reduced muscle tone - reduced deep tendon reflexes - atrophy ```
58
What is neuropraxia, axonotmesis, Wallerian degeneration, neurotmesis?
Wallerian degeneration - when the terminal dies neuropraxia - demyelination, compression axonotmesis - demyelination and axon loss, crash injuries and displacements Wallerian degeneration - when the axon terminal dies due to proximal injury neurotmesis - demyelination, axon loss as well as damage to endoneurium, perineurium or epineurium
59
Characteristics of polyneuropathy
diffuse disfunction of nerves - lower motor neuron, somatosensory or autonomic abnormalities Demyelination or Axonal loss tends to start low and move up may be caused by - Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Guillain-Barre Syndrome or Diabetes Mellitus
60
What is lateral inhibition
when sensors sensitive to a stimulus close to make the stimulus more intense
61
Characteristics of Gillian Barre
immune system attacks myelin of peripheral nerves caused by infectious illness stomach flu or lung infection weakness that progresses to the upper body, pins and needles, difficulty with eye or facial movements, balance is challenged, pain, cramps, difficulty retaining urine and sluggish bowel movements, tachycardia, rapid respiration rate, blood pressure fluctuations
62
Characteristics of Poliomyelitis
Invades intestines and attacks motor neurons in the nervous system
63
Where is CSF produced, circulated, absorbed, function of CSF, CSF tapping
choroid plexus on the walls of the ventricles absorbed into blood by special villi physical and chemical protection Spinal tap removes fluid from subarachnoid space
64
Reflexes and integration of the brain- spinal reflex- integration is at the SC
spinal cord generates its own action potentials when interneurons turn sensory info into muscle action
65
Parts of the CNS: Cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, hypothalamus
Cerebrum - Brainstem - oldest, gray and white matter Cerebellum - second largest, hypothalamus -
66
Parts of the CNS: Cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, hypothalamus
Cerebrum - largest part, responsible for higher functions of brain Brainstem - oldest, gray and white matter Cerebellum - second largest, process sensory information and control movement hypothalamus - maintains homeostasis
67
thalamus- functions
relay station that receives and modifies information from below
68
first 6 cranial nerves name and function
Olfactory - smell Optic - vision Oculomotor - eye movement, pupil constriction, lens shape Trochlear - eye movement trigeminal - senses from face and mouth, motor signals for chewing abducens - eye movement
69
last 6 cranial nerves
Facial - taste, tear and salivary glands, facial expressions Vestibulocochlear - hearing and equilibrium glossopharyngeal - oral sensory, baro and chemoreceptors in blood, swallowing, parotid salivary gland secretion Vagus - sensory and efferent to organs muscles and glands spinal accessory - muscles in shoulder and neck hypoglossal - tongue
70
Describe Wernicke's area
Speech center - junction of parietal, temporal and occipital lobes damage to this area referred to as receptive aphasia, may result in nonsense speech and difficulty understanding com
71
Describe Broca's area
Speech center - posterior frontal lobe | damage to this area referred to as expressive aphasia, difficulty understanding complex explanations
72
Where are spatial and verbal language skills found in the brain
Spatial - right | verbal - left
73
Describe spina bifida
Folic acid deficiency Occulta - Meningocele - myelomeningocele -
74
What are the types of receptors and what do they sense
Chemo - ligands that bind to it Mechano - pressure, vibration, gravity, acceleration and sound Thermo - temperature Photo - light Baro - mechano reseptor sensitive to pressure
75
Polydipsia, polyphagia
polydipsia - thirst | Polyphagia - hunger