Path final outline - hemolymph Flashcards

1
Q

Combined Immunodeficiencey Disorders affects _____ (TQ)

A

Humoral (B cell) and Cell Mediated (T cell) Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Viral acquired immunodeficiency causes ______ –> ______

A

Causes Lymphocytolysis leading to loss of architecture of the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inhibit cell division

A

Chemotherapeutic Agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 14 m old heifer presents with a large swelling in the brisket area and dyspnea. What is the most likely diagnosis for this heifer?

A

Bovine Thymic Lymphoma

(Not caused by BLV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Thymic lymphoma targets which age group

A

Young Animals Bovine- 6-24m Feline- ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Agent responsible for causing Feline thymic lymphoma

A

FeLV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thymoma usually affects what age group? Is it benign or malignant?

A

Seen in older animals Usually benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You perform a FNA on a lump. You observe non-neoplastic lymphocytes with lots of round to spindle shaped epithelia cells. What is your dx?

A

Thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Thymoma associated with? (TQ)

A

Myasthenia Gravis and Immune Mediated Polymyositits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

White pulp of spleen refers to __ Red pulp of spleen refers to __

A

White pulp - lymphoid tissue Red pulp - blood filled sinusoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can cause/pre-dispose spleen to rupture? (TQ)

A

Hit by car and splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Little pieces of spleen all over the abdominal cavity

A

Splattered spleen syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathognomonic signs of GDV in the spleen

A

Torsion, congested splenomegaly, and V-shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are Gamna-Gandy bodies? In which pathological condition are they observed?

A

Sidero-calcific plaques of capsule seen with Siderofibrosis of the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does pathologic rupture of the spleen occur? (TQ)

A

Occur at sites of infarction, splenomegaly predisposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Siderofibrosis usually occurs in ___

A

aged dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lesions of Siderofibrosis

A

Fibrosis of capsule; Hemosiderosis (iron overload); granular, white-yellow, firm, dry, encrustations on capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Siderofibrosis indicates ___

A

previous hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Upon necropsy of a 10 yr old mixed, large breed dog, you find hypertrophic nodules of red or white pulp. What could this be?

A

Nodular hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Storage form of iron

A

Hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What condition is known as “meaty spleen”

A

Extramedullary Hematopoiesis (EMH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lesions of Extramedulaary Hematopoiesis

A

Megakaryocytes, Myeloid & Erythroid precursors, “Meaty Spleen”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Uniform splenomegaly w/bloody consistency –> Bloody spleen that oozes on cut surface due to: ____

A

Congestion(torsion or barbiturates); Hyperemia (septicemia or inflammation); Acute Hemolytic Anemias (Babesia or EIA) - Torsion, Barbiturates, Sedation, Euthanasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Uniform splenomegaly w/ firm consistency –> meaty spleen is due to: ___ (TQ)

A

Chronic Hemolytic Anemia (EIA) & EMH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hematomas, HSA, & incomplete contractions cause _____

A

Splenic nodules w/ firm consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lymphoid hyperplasia of PALS may lead to ___

A

disruption of blood flow –> pooling of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Conditions that cause splenic nodules w/firm consistency

A

Lymphoid hyperplastic nodules, primary neoplasia, metastatic neoplasia, abscess (acute infxn), granulomas (chronic infxn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Conditions that cause small spleen

A

Developmental anomalies, Aging changes, Splenic cntrxn, Wasting or Cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does Wasting or Cachexia lead to small spleen (TQ)

A

Atrophy of T-lymphocytes areas, no effect on B-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Conditions that cause small lymph nodes

A

Developmental, Lack of antigenic stimulation, Cachexia & malnutrition, Aging, Viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do Cachexia and Malnutrition cause small lymph nodes? (TQ)

A

Atrophy of T areas –> decrease T-lymphocytes w/little to no effect on B-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do viral infections lead to small lymph nodes and which viruses are associated?

A

Lymphocytolysis (BVD, CDV); Stimulate lymphoid tissue (Maedi-visna, MCF virus); Cause Neoplasm (FLV, BLV, Marek’s dz); Cause Atrophy (FIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lymphoid Hyperplasia (large lymph nodes) are caused by (TQ)

A

Follicular Hyperplasia ( B-lymphocytes); Diffuse Hyperplasia (T-lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dz that causes diffuse lymphadenitis

A

Johnes dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal mucosa

A

Johnes dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dz that causes focal lymphadenitis

A

Pearl’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Nodules w/central core of necrosis (TB)

A

Pearl’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common primary neoplasia of the lymph nodes

A

Lymphosarcoma (LSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

During necropsy, you find an enlarged lymph node. If this were a case of lymphosarcoma, what would you see upon cut surface? (TQ)

A

Loss of architecture (cortex & medulla) and has capsular invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do carcinomas metastasize to regional lymph nodes?

A

via blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

You cut into an enlarged lymph node, and you see architecture is preserved and no capsular invasion. What do you suspect?

A

Lymph node hyperplasia

42
Q

Enzootic Bovine Leucosis (lymphoma) is caused by ____ in cattle. Which age is commonly affected? (TQ)

A

BLV in cattle 4-8 yrs old

43
Q

Preferred location of Enzootic Bovine Leucosis (TQ)

A

HAULS + R Heart, Abomasum, Uterus, Lymph nodes, Spinal canal, and retro bulbular proptosis

44
Q

Sporadic Bovine Leucosis (lymphoma) commonly affects which age group? (TQ)

A

Young animals

45
Q

True/False: Sporadic Bovine Leucosis is associated with BLV (TQ)

A

False

46
Q

Give the types and ages associated with Sporadic Bovine Leucosis (TQ)

A

Calf/Juvenile type is up to 6 m old; Thymic type is 1-2 years; Cutaneous type is 2-3 years

47
Q

You cut into an enlarged lymph node –> observe normal architecture but cortex and medulla are obliterated. What do you suspect? (TQ)

A

Lymphosarcoma in a dog due the unusual presentation

48
Q

During necropsy, you observe red soft marrow that should be yellow. This is indicative of

A

Bone Marrow (BM) Hyperplasia

49
Q

What is BM aplasia? (TQ)

A

Aplastic anemia is the absence of a particular cell lineage

50
Q

Agents that cause BM aplasia (TQ)

A

Chemicals (Phenylbutazone, Bracken Fern, Estrogen); Infections (Ehrlichia, Parvo, FIV, FeLV, EIA, Cytauxzoon felis)

51
Q

Replacement of hematopoietic tissue by fibrous tissue, malignant cells, or granulomas (TQ)

A

Myelopthisis

52
Q

Neuropenia

A

deficiency of circulating Neutrophils

53
Q

What can lead to a neutropenia?

A

Increased Use - endotoxemia or shift to the marginating pool pseudoneutropenia

54
Q

Stress leukogram –> Mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, lymphopenia, +/- eosinopenia

A

Eosinopenia/basopenia

55
Q

What does Polycythemia vera refer to?

A

Primary Erythrocytosis

56
Q

Cause of primary erythrocytosis

A

abnormality in bone marrow

57
Q

Amt of EPO seen with primary eyrthrocytosis

A

Normal to decreased EPO

58
Q

EPO mediated (form tumors or chronic hypoxia) increases in RBC

A

Secondary Erythrocytosis

59
Q

Lymphocytosis generally occurs in which age group? What is it mediated by?

A

Young animals; epinephrine- mediated (physiological leukocytosis)

60
Q

What is persistent lymphocytosis? Who gets it? (TQ)

A
  • Non-neoplastic hyperplasia of B-Lymphocytes
  • Cattle with BLV infection
61
Q

Lack of normal segmentation/hypo-segmentation of the nuclei of mature granulocytes

A

Pelger-Huet Anomaly (PHA)

62
Q

Heterozygous form of PHA vs the Homozygous form of PHA

A

Heterozygous form: NOT pathogenic; Homozygous form: + skeletal abnormalities, stillbirths, early mortality

63
Q

IV hemolysis leads to

A

Hemoglobinemia, Hemoglobinuria, Bilirubinemia, Jaundice/Icterus

64
Q

Immune Mediated Disorders of Erythrocytes

A

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) and Neonatal Erythrolysis

65
Q

Which form of IMHA is idiopathic?

A

Primary IMHA

66
Q

What are Heinz bodies? What causes them?

A

Denatured Hb caused by oxidative agents

67
Q

True/False: Oxidative agents can cause both extravascular and intravascular hemolysis

A

True

68
Q

Name protozoal agents that cause disorders of red blood cells. What lesions are generally seen?

A

Babesia, Anaplasma, Hemotropic Mycoplasma; there will be Pallor, Splenomegaly, & a Distended Gallbladder

69
Q

What is a consequence of Theleria?

A

IMHA b/c it infects RBC precursors

70
Q

Extracellular parasites that cause immune mediated hemolysis

A

Trypanosomes

71
Q

Causes fatal hemolytic anemia (TQ)

A

Clostridium hemolyticum and Clostridium novyi type D associated with liver fluke

72
Q

Bacillary hemoglobinemia/red water dz is associated with ____ (TQ)

A

Liver fluke larval migration tracts –> release C. hemolytica and C. novyi type D

73
Q

Agent of yellow lamb dz

A

Clostridium perfringens type A

74
Q

Pathogenesis of Yellow lamb dz

A

C. perfringens type A is a normal inhabitant of GIT –> poor diet –> overgrowth –> enterotoxemic jaundice

75
Q

What is seen with acute Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)? (TQ)

A

Thrombocytopenia and Anemia

76
Q

What is seen with chronic EIA? (TQ)

A

Thrombocytopenia and Aneima + Icterus + Lymphadenopathy “meaty spleen”

77
Q

Oncogenic, immunosuppressive lentivirus (TQ)

A

Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)

78
Q

Which cells does FeLV infect? What are the consequences? (TQ)

A

Infects hematopoietic precursor cells –> NONREGENRATIVE ANEMIA Consequences: Immunosuppression, Infections, Bone Marrow Disorders, Lymphosarcoma

79
Q

Etiology of Congenital erythrocytic porphyria

A

enzyme missing that promotes the formation of porphyrin which is a precursor to Hb = disorder of porphyrin synthesis

80
Q

C/S of congenital erythrocytic porphyria

A

Discolored teeth (red-brown), Hemolytic anemia, and photosensitization

81
Q

C/S of Bovine erythropoietic protoporphyria

A

PHOTOSENSITIZATION ONLY!!!

82
Q

Final result of Phosphofructokinase (PFK) Deficiency vs Pyruvate Kinase (PK) Deficiency (TQ)

A

PFK = No Anemia or Regenerative anemia PK = ANEMIA!!!

83
Q

Agent of Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis (EGE)

A

1Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted by ticks

84
Q

Consequences of EGE

A

Seasonal necrotizing vasculitis (edema, icterus, petechiae)

85
Q

A horse presented for necropsy. Your finding are: inclusion bodies (Morulae) in neutrophils, icterus, petichia, and had history of undulating fever. What do you suspect?

A

Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis

86
Q

Etiology of Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD)

A

Inherited fatal condition Deficiency of beta 2 chain of leukocyte Integrin –> severely impaired migration

87
Q

You are working up a Holstein or Irish setter dog,and you observe severe Neutrophilia in the blood. What do you suspect?

A

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD) Bovine LAD= BLAD

88
Q

Etiology of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

A

Inherited –> mutated gene encoding beige or LYST (Lysosomal Trafficking Regulator) protien

89
Q

Result of Chediak- Higashi Syndrome

A

NEUTROPENIA Ineffective migration of neutrophils –> poor chemotaxis –> poor phagocytic ability

90
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Potomac Horse Fever

A

Ehrlichia risticii infects monocytes and enterocytes of intestines –> Diarrheal Dz

91
Q

Etiopathogenesis of canine ehrlichiosis (TQ)

A

Ehrlichia canis infected mononuclear cells adhere to endothelium –> vasculitis –> clot formation increases consumption

92
Q

If you see Thrombocytopenia, Non-regenerative anemia, and Leukopenia in a dog, what do you suspect? (TQ)

A

Ehrlichia canis

93
Q

Most common inherited disorder of platelets? (TQ)

A

von Willebrand Dz (vWD)

94
Q

vWB does not cause ___ (TQ)

A

Thrombocytopenia

95
Q

Function of vWF

A

Stabilized coagulation factor-8 which mediates binding of platelets to sub endothelial collagen

96
Q

Lymphosarcoma arises which tissues

A

from lymphoid tissues outside the BM

97
Q

Gross lesions of LSA

A

Organomegaly –> enlarged lymph nodes (normal architecture obliterated); Small well differentiated cells –> low mitotic rates –> slowly progressive dz; Large poorly differentiated cells –> high mitotic rates –> aggressively rapidly progressive dz

98
Q

X- linked inherited dz

A

Hemophilia

99
Q

Lack of coagulation factor VIII and species affected

A

Hemophilia A; cattle, dogs, cats

100
Q

Lack of factor IX and species affected

A

Hemophilia B; dogs, cats