Eye & Ear Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Term for abscence of the eye?

A

Anopthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Term for presence of a singla medial globe

w/in a single median orbit?

What can cause this?

A
  • Cyclopia
  • Veratrum alkaloids ingested @ d 14 of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Term for incomplete seperation, or early fusion, of paired globes.

A

Synophthalamia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Term for an abonormally small eye?

Inherited defect in whom?

A
  • Microphthalmia
  • Collies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Term for inversion of the eyelids?

A

Entropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Term for eversion of the eyelids?

A

Ectropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Term for rubbing of the eyelashes against the eye surface, resulting in local inflammation & possible ulceration.

A

Trichiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathogenesis of Coloboma?

(seen in Charolais cattle)

A
  • failure of complete fusion of the lips of the embryonic fissure resulting in a notchlike defect of the optic cup
  • often occurs @ the caudal pole or ventral to the optic disc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Collie Eye Anomaly (CEA)?

A
  • Inherited (autosomal recessive) → Collies & Shetland sheepdogs
  • Abnormal choroid & retina (mesenchyme) due to improper development of the optic cup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 Lesions of Collie Eye Anomaly (CEA)?

(TQ)

A
  • Abnormal retinal vessels
  • Chorio-rentinal dysplasia/hypoplasia (TQ)
  • Sceral ectasia or posterior staphyloma
  • + visual impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sequela of CEA?

A
  • Retinal degeneration & detachment (frequent)
  • Intraocular hemorrhage → hyphema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What condition causes bloodless strands crossing the pupil to form?

Pathogenesis?

A
  • Persistent Pupillary Membrane
  • atrophy of anterior perilenticular vascular network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 Lesions of Persistent Pupillary Membrane

A
  • Obstruct vision
  • Corneal/lens opacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lesions & Sequela of Coloboma?

A
  • Sceleral ectasia → outpouching of neuroectoderm
  • improper developement of optic cup
  • Only causes visual defects in very severe cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An external hordeolum (stye) is due to suppurative adenitis of what 2 parts of the eye?

(TQ)

A
  • apocrine glands of Moll
  • sebaceous glands of Zeis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An Internal Herdeolum (stye) is due to suppurative adenitis of what part of the eye?

(TQ)

A

Meilbomian gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sequela of a Hordeotum?

A

stimulates a granulomatous response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A Hordeolum is an example of what type of eyelid disease?

A

Focal blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathogenesis of Chalazion?

DDX?

(form of focal blepharitis)

A
  • Sterile granulomatous inflammation of the Meibomian gland
  • Meibomian gland adenoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the 5 types of Diffuse Blepharitis?

A
  • Ulcerative
  • Allergic
  • Seborrheic
  • Actinic
  • Parasitic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Characteristics of Dermatomyositis of

Shetland sheepdogs?

A
  • Idiopathic & autoimmune
  • Erythema, crusting of nose, ears, mouth, & eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common tumor of the K9 eyelid?

(accounts for 80%)

A

Meibomian gland adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the 2nd most common tumor of the K9 eyelid?

Malignant or Benign?

A
  • Melanocytoma
  • always benign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which species/breeds get conjunctival dermoids?

A
  • Dogs → St. Bernard & Dalmation
  • Cattle → Herefords
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are dermoids commonly located in dogs?

(TQ)

A
  • lateral canthus
  • lateral limbus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are dermoids commonly located in cattle?

A
  • 3rd eyelid
  • Medial canthus
  • Eyelid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Etiology of Conjunctivitis?

(TQ)

A
  • Trauma
  • Allergens
  • Viral → FHV-1 & IBR
  • Bact → Moraxella (pink eye) TQ
  • Parasites → Thelazia & Habronema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lesions of Conjunctivitis?

A
  • Chemosis → corneal/conjunctival edema
  • Epiphora → overflow of tears
  • Ocular discharge
  • + keratitis (depends on duration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List the 3 types of Conjunctivitis.

A
  • Idiopathic Eosinophilic Conjunctivitis
  • Nodular Granulomatous Episcleritis (NGE)
  • Necrotic Scleritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which breeds of dog get

Nodular Granulomatous Episcleritis (NGE)?

A
  • Collie
  • Shetland sheepdog
  • Cockerspaniels
  • Rotties
  • Labs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where does NGE like to occur?

A
  • Lateral limbus → most frequent
  • 3rd eyelid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What lesions are seen with NGE?

A
  • nodular accumulation of MØs, fibroblasts
  • No collagenolysis
  • Not many granulocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What lesions are seen in Necrotic Scleritis?

A
  • Destructive lesions
  • Collagenolysis
  • Numerous eosinophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which neoplasm of the conjuctiva

is most common in cattle?

A

SCC

(Herefords)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is SCC often located in the Equine eye?

(most common conjunctival neoplasia of horses)

A
  • limbal region
  • leading edge of the 3rd eyelid → progresses to conjunctiva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Characteristics of Ocular Dermoids?

A
  • Congenital → affects the mucous membrane
  • Most common in dogs
  • frequently located @ the temporal limbus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pathology of an Ocular Dermoid?

(TQ)

A

defective induction of corneal epithelium by invading corneal stromal mesenchyme induces formation of islands of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Lesions of an Ocular Dermoid?

A
  • Raised islands of skin w/ long, soft hair OR
  • flattened plaque-like areas w/ short, stiff hair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Etiology of Keratisis

(inflammation of the cornea)

A
  • Injury → physical, chemical or microbial
  • Extension of inflammatatory dz’s deeper in the eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Give the sterotypical sequence leading to Keratitis.

TQ

A
  1. Edema
  2. Leukocyte immigration
  3. Corneal stromal vascularization
  4. Fibrosis
  5. Epithelial metaplasia w/ pigmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List the 4 forms & causes of the different types of Keratitis.

A
  • Acute→ corneal injury, bacT/mycotic infection
  • Chronic
  • Superficial → corneal ulceration
  • Deep → infection or intraocular inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List the 2 infections commonly associated with Ulcerative keratitis & the species affected.

A
  • Moraxella bovis → “pink eye” → cattle (TQ)
  • FHV-1 → “dendritic” ulcers → cats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lesions of Ulcerative keratitis?

(TQ)

A
  • loss of epithelium
  • tear imbibition- TQ
  • production of cytokines
  • proteases → suppurative keratomalacia (melting ulcer)
  • Ring abscess → cattle
  • Stromal vascularization
  • Fibrosis
  • Epithelial metaplasia + pigmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List the progression of Ulcerative keratitis.

A
  1. Descemetocele (keratocele) → transparent center of an ulcer TQ
  2. Anterior synechiae → adhesion of iris to cornea
  3. Corneal perforation
  4. Anterior staphyloma
  5. Corneal melanosis (Pigmentary keratitis)
  6. Corneal fistula (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Equine Keratomycosis?

(Mycotic keratitis)

A
  • opportunistic Aspergillus infxn
  • prolonged Abs or corticosteroids use
  • Superficial stroma infected → no inflammation
  • Deep stroma infected → corneal perforation/iris prolaspe if left untreated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Give 2 examples of

superficial stromal non-ulcerative keratitis

A
  • K9 Pannus Keratitis
  • Eosinophilic Keratitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Etiopathogenesis of K9 Pannus Keratits?

(“Chronic Superficial Keratitis”

“Uberreiter’s Syndrome”)

A
  • GSD
  • Immune mediated cell injury following prolonged exposure to UV light
  • Exacerbated by dust & high altitudes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3 Lesions of K9 Pannus Keratitis?

A
  • Marked pigmentation
    • (NO ULCERS)
  • Bilateral vascularized opacity
  • Intenses mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lesions of Eosinophilic Keratitis?

(Cats > horses)

A
  • granular WHITE proliferative lesions on the cornea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What species get KCS most?

A

Toy breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pathogenesis of KCS (“dessication keratitis”)?

A
  • Xeropthalmia (dry eye due to decreased tear production)
  • Dacryoadenopathy (lacrimal atrophy)
  • Idiopathic, chronic & progressive → requires TX
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the difference btwn 1° & 2° KCS?

A

Primary:

  • congenital lack of lacrimal secretions
  • senile atrophy

Secondary:

  • Destruction or degeneration of lacrimal or accesory lacrimal gland
    • inflammation, infection, trauma, IM, Hypovitaminosis A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lesions and Sequela of KCS?

A
  • decreased tear production
  • thick, white, sticky, ropy mucoid exudates
  • ulceration, melanosis, lipoidal dystrophy
  • predisposes to developement of pannus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

$5 word for Non-ulcerative keratitis?

A

Irdocyclitits

55
Q

Which 2 parts of the eye are affected by

Anterior uveitis or Iridocyclitis?

A
  • Iris
  • Ciliary body
56
Q

Which 2 parts of the eye are affected by

Posterior Uveitits or Choroiditis?

A
  • Choroid
  • Ciliary body
57
Q

Etiology of Anterior Uveitis?

A
  • 1° entry following toxic damage
  • localization of hematogenous infections
  • extension from neighboring structures (deep corneal ulceration)
58
Q

Pathogenesis of Anterior Uveitits (Iridocyclitits)?

A
  • Neutrophil damage leading to a range of responses
  • Corneal opacity (blue eye)
59
Q

Lesions of Anterior Uveitis (Iridocyclitits)?

(TQ)

A
  • Keratitis puncta → stippled appearance
  • Hypopyon → yellow/white/pink floccular sediment in the anterior chamber (
  • Hyphema → presence of blood or neutrophils in anterior chamber
  • Aqueous fare → accumulation of fibrin & inflamm cells → cloudy appearance
60
Q

Sequela of Iridocyclitits (Anterior Uveitis)?

TQ

A
  • Glaucoma → increased IOP
  • Lens luxation
  • Anterior synechia → adhesion of iris to cornea
  • Posterior synechia → adhesion of iris to lens
  • Atrophy of iris
  • Cataract
61
Q

Characteristics of Granulomatous uveitis?

A
  • “mutton-fat” keratic precipitates
  • localized exudative response
  • adheres to corneal epithelium
62
Q

What are the characteristics of Phthisis bulbi?

A
  • “end stage eye” → severe opthalmitis
  • hypotonic
  • shrunken
  • disorganized
63
Q

Lesions of Posterior Uveitits (Choroiditis)?

A
  • Marked exudation
  • Retinal degeneration/detachment
  • Atrophy/proliferation of chorodial pigment cells
64
Q

Give 3 examples of Idiopathic Lymphonodular Uveitis

& their characteristics.

A
  • Feline Idiopathic Lymphonodular Uveitis
    • most frequent histo pattern seen in cats
    • FIV, FIP, FeLV & Toxoplamsa
  • K9 Lymphocytic Uveitis
    • most frequent histo pattern seen in dogs
  • Uveodermatologic Syndrome
    • Akitas, Siberian huskies, Samoyeds
    • T-lymphoctes mediated destruction
65
Q

What is the route of normal aqeuous flow in the eye?

A

ciliary body → posterior chamber → pupil → anterior chamber → iridocorneal angle

66
Q

Pathogenesis of Congenital glaucoma?

A

Abnormal development of anterior chamber

67
Q

Characteristics of Primary Glaucoma?

A
  • Cocker spaniels
  • malformation of the filtration angle
  • Goniodysgenesis → detectable maldevelopment of Trabecular meshwork
  • Open-angle glaucoma → beagles
68
Q

Characteristics of Secondary Glaucoma?

A
  • 2° to obstruction of aqueous flow through the pupil
    • Papillary block
    • Trabecular occlusion
69
Q

Sequela of Glaucoma?

A
  • Buphthalmos → thinning of sclera
  • corneal changes
  • atrophy of iris & ciliary processes
  • problems w/ the lens
  • retinal degeneration
  • optic n. changes
70
Q

Pathogenesis of Retinal Dysplasia?

This dz is spontaneous in what breeds?

A
  • faulty differentiation of the retina (photoreceptor cells) w/ proliferation of 1 or more of its constintuents
  • Terriers & spaniels
71
Q

What are the lesions of retinal dysplasia?

A
  • Rosettes of neuronal retinal cells
  • retinal folds
72
Q

Eitology of 2º (acquired) Retinal Dysplasia

A
  • Hypovitaminosis A
  • In-utero viral infections (BVD, Blue tongue)
  • intra-uterine trauma
  • X-ray irradation
  • some drugs
73
Q

Etiology of Retinitis?

A
  • Systemic infection → K9 Distemper
  • Ocular toxoplasmosis
  • Choroidal infection → Chorioretinitis → retinal detachment
74
Q

Lesions of Retinitits

A
  • Neuronal degeneration
  • Gliosis
  • Pervascular cuffing
  • Blindness
75
Q

Pathogenesis of Retinal detachment?

A
  • Degenerative changes in the retina → loss of photoreceptors
  • Formation of spaces w/in the retina
  • Decreased thickness of neurosensory retina = “retinal atrophy”
76
Q

What is the etiology of Retinal Degeneration?

A
  • Nutritional
    • Hypo Vit. A→ night blindness
    • Hypo Vit. E→ lipid peroxidation + lipofuscin
    • Taurine (CATS) → membrane integrity
  • Hereditary → most important in DOGS
77
Q

Describe the differences btwn:

Photoreceptor DYSPLASIA &

Photoreceptor DEGENERATION

A
  • Dysplasia
    • Early onset
    • Generalized PRA
  • Degeneration
    • Late onset
    • Central PRA
78
Q

Etiology of K9 Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

A
  • Inherited (recessive)
    • Irish setters, Min/Toy Poodles, Cocker spaniels
  • Photoreceptors never reach maturity
79
Q

What is the Etiology of

Central K9 Progressive Rential Atrophy?

A
  • Inherited (dominant)
    • Collies, Labs, English Springers
  • Abnormality in retinal pigment epithelium
  • Defective phagocytosis of photoreceptor outer segment → Lipofuscin
80
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of

Generalized K9 Progressive Retinal Atrophy?

A
  1. Rods → outer, nuclear layer → night blindess
  2. Progressive loss of inner nuclear cells
  3. Degeneration of pigment epithelium
  4. Disappearance of retinal vessels → total blindness
81
Q

Describe that pathogenesis of

Central K9 Progressive Retinal Atrophy.

A

(defective phagocytosis→ lipfuscin deposits)

  1. Pigmented epithelial cells → Macules
  2. Lesions in the center of eye
    • peripheral vision is maintained
  3. Disappearance of retinal vessels → total blindness
82
Q

Pathogenesis of Retinal Detachment?

A
  • seperation of the neurosensory retina (inner) from the RPE (retinal pigment epithelium; outside)
    • Retina is ONLY attached @ the optic disk & ora serrata
83
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Retinal Detachment?

A
  • Congenital → non-attachment → microphthalmia
  • Tractional → pulled away due to contraction of cyclitic membrane
  • Exudative → fluid or inflammatory exudate acculumates
  • Rhegmatogenous→ neurosensory retina tares away leakage of liquefied vitreous
84
Q

Lesions of Retinal Detachment?

A
  • posteriorly affected “funnel”
  • Separation of neurosensory retina from RPE
  • Degeneration/necrosis
85
Q

What are the effects of Hypo Vit A
on young and adult animals?

A
  • Young→ bone proplems
  • Adult → photoreceptor degeneration → poor night vision or night blindness
    • retinol + opsin = rhodopsin (visual pigment)
86
Q

Taurine is essential for what in Cats?

A

membrane integrity of the retina

87
Q

What type of blindness does

Bracken fern toxicity cause?

Why?

A
  • Bright blindness
  • due to degeneration of rods, cones, & outer nuclear layer of the retina
88
Q

What is the term describing complete abscence of the lens?

A

Aphakia

89
Q

What is the term describing an abnormally small lens?

A

Microphkia

90
Q

What is the term for an abnormal spherical lens?

A

Spherophakia

91
Q

What is the term for abnormal location of the lens?

A

Ectopic lens

92
Q

What is the term for absence of a portion of the lens?

A

Lenticular coloboma

93
Q

What is the term for localized bulging of the lens capsule and underlying cortex?

A

Lenticonus or Lentiglobus

94
Q

Increased lens opacity (catarct) is the result of increased hydration due to alterations in what 3 things?

A
  • nutrition
  • metabolism
  • osmotic balance of the lens
95
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Congenital Cataracts.

A
  • Inherited or prenatal dz (BVD)
  • adherance of vascular structures to posterior lens capsule
96
Q

What is a common way that an animal gets

Aquired Catarcts?

A
  • Due to Diabetes mellitus
  • excessive glucose → sorbitol → sucks H2O into the lens
97
Q

Herefords get what type ocular neoplasm?

A

SCC

98
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumor in dogs?

A

Anterior Uveal Melanocytoma

99
Q

What ocular neoplasm accounts for

50% of eyelid tumors in dogs?

A

Meibomian Gland Adenoma/Epithelioma

100
Q

What species gets the ocular form of Lymphosarcoma?

What can it cause?

A
  • Cats
  • exophthalmos (proptosis)
101
Q

Eye disorders associated with Equines?

(3)

A
  • Equine keratomycosis (mycotic keratitis)
  • Eosinophilic keratitis
  • Equine recurrent uveitis
102
Q

Eye disorders associated with Ruminants?

(2)

A
  • Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivits
  • SCC
103
Q

Eye disorders associated with Dogs?

(5)

A
  • K9 pannus keratitis
  • Collie eye anomaly
  • K9 Progressive Retinal Atrophy
    • photoreceptor dysplasias
    • photoreceptor degenerations
  • K9 Anterior Uveal Melanocytomas
  • Meibomian adenomas
104
Q

Eye disorders of Cats?

(3)

A
  • Feline herpetic keratitis
  • Eosinophilic keratitis
  • FIP-associated uveitits
105
Q

Etiology of Otitis externa?

(TQ)

A
  • Parasites
    • Sarcoptes → dogs
    • Otodectes → cats
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi→ Malassezia, Pachydermatitis
  • FBs
  • Metabolic disorders→ chronic ceruminous otitis externa
  • Chronic inflammation→ distortion of pinna
  • Autoimmune → Pemphigus foliaceus
106
Q

How do parasites cause Otitis externa?

A

local trauma, mechanical irritation or hypersensitivity→

  • hair loss
  • thickening/fissuring of pinna
  • pruritis
107
Q

Chronic Ceruminous Otitis externa

is due to what 2 metabolic disorders?

Lesions seen?

A
  • HYPOthyroidism → decreased immune response
  • HYPERestrogenism → alopecia, hyperpigmentation, myelotoxicity
108
Q

Lesions of Pemiphigus folaiceus in relation to the ear?

A

pustules & crusts

109
Q

List the 6 predisposing factors to Otitis externa?

A
  • Excessive moisture
  • Nature of ear canal
  • Impeded drainage
  • FBs
  • Lipid-rich environment
  • Inappropriate TX of Otitis media
110
Q

Gross lesions of Chronic Otitis externa?

(3)

TQ

A
  • Exudative
  • Fibrosis
  • Narrowed lumen
111
Q

Lesions of Severe Otitis externa?

TQ

A
  • partial deafness
  • infection spreads to the middle ear
112
Q

Auricular necrosis is due to what?

(necrosis of the tip of the pinna)

A
  • Ergot poisioning→ cattle
  • Thrombois during septicemia → pigs
  • Trauma
113
Q

What is a common sequela to solar dermatitis in cats?

A

SCC

(white eared are more susceptible)

114
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the ear?

Does it metastasize?
(TQ)

A
  • Ceruminous gland adenomas/carcinomas
    • common in cats
  • it can
115
Q

Eitology of Otitis media

(TQ)

A
  • Extension of infection from external ear
    • through tympanic membrane
    • from nasopharynx (URT) =TQ
  • Hematogenous (uncommon)
  • Bacteria
    • A. pyogenes
    • Pasteurella
    • Pseudomonas
116
Q

Lesions of Otitis media?

A

congestion/exduate into tympanic cavity

117
Q

Lesions associated with Otitis media?

A
  • Eustachitits/Salpingitis → inflammation of Eustachian tubes
  • Nasopharyngeal polyps
  • Fibrosis of ear ossicles → deafness
  • Vestibular dz.
  • Guttural pouch mycosis (horses)
  • Osteomyelitis & osteolysis of osseous septa (calf/pig)
118
Q

Sequela of Guttaral Pouch Mycosis in Equines?

A
  • adjacent INTERNAL carotid artery → arteritis & rupture → hemorrhage into guttarl pouch
119
Q

Etiology of Otitis interna (labyrinthitis)?

(TQ)

A
  • Suppurative infection
    • otitis media
    • URT infection
  • Hematogenous
    • Bacteria
120
Q

Sequela of Otits interna (labyrinthitis)?

5

A
  • deafness
  • nystagmus
  • meninoencephalitis
  • neuritis of portions of CrN7
  • Temporal osteomyelitis
121
Q

Characteristics of Vestibular Dz?

(TQ)

A
  1. head tilt
  2. falling TOWARD affected side
  3. Ataxia W/O weakness
  4. Nystagmus
122
Q

Etiology of Central Vestibular Dz?

A
  • Brain
    • Listeriosis
    • K9 distemper
  • Vestibular apparatus
  • Both
123
Q

Etiology of Peripheral Vestibular Dz?

(7)

A
  • Uncontrolled otitis externa
  • Labyrinthitis (sequela to otitis media)
  • trauma
  • invasive neoplasms
  • drugs
  • congenital
  • idiopathic (old dogs/cats)
124
Q

What 2 genes are linked to

Congenital/Hereditary Deafness?

Which breeds?

A
  • Merle gene (DOMINANT gene)
    • Collie, Shelties, Harlequin Great Dane
  • Piebald gene
    • White Bull terries, white cats, dalmations
125
Q

Etiology of absence/degeneration of the Organ of Corti (most prevalent type of deafness in animals)?

A

associated with white coat color due to lack of pigment

(NOT albinism)

126
Q

Lesions of Congenital/Hereditary Deafness?

A
  • Atrophy → cochleosaccular degeneration
  • Collaspe of walls of chochlea & saccular membrane
  • 2° degeneration of neurons
127
Q

Etiology of Conductive Deafness (aquired)

A
  • Otitis externa
  • otitis media
128
Q

List the 4 Toxic causes of

Peripheral Aquired deafness which lead to loss of inner/outer hair cells on the cochlea?

(TQ)

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Loop diuretics
  • Salicylates
  • Analgesics
129
Q

How does loud noise lead to

peripheral aquired deafness?

A

degeneration/necrosis of hair cells on the cochlea

130
Q

What is the term for loss of sensory hair cells that leads to peripheral acquired deafness?

A

Presbyacusis

131
Q

How does B-mannosidosis in Goats lead to

peripheral acquired deafness?

A

accumulation of oligosaccharides w/in lysosomes of tissues in the middle/inner ear→ vacuolation of hair cells

132
Q

Etiology of Ototoxicity?

(6)

A
  • Chemical agents
  • Aminoglycoside antibiotics → CATS
  • Diurectics → CATS & DOGS
  • Aspirin
  • Hygromycin B
    • permanent deafness → dogs
    • catarcts → pigs
  • Savlon
    • dogs or cats W/ a ruptured tympanic membrane
133
Q

Which areas of the ear are especially suspectible to ototoxicity?

A
  • Vestibular epithelium
  • organ of Corti
134
Q

Lesions of Ototoxicity?

A
  • deafness
  • vestibular dysfunction