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PATHOLOGY > PATH 2- MT 1 > Flashcards

PATH 2- MT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which substance is not secreted by the kidneys

A. leukotrienes
B. renin
C. erythropoietin
D. All of the above are secreted by the kidney

A

A. leukotrienes

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2
Q

In nephrotic syndrome there is a selective significant increase of glomerular permeability to which of the following?

A. water
B. protein
C. RBC’s
D. WBC’s

A

B. protein

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3
Q

Which disease is characterized by formation of cavities in the lungs?

A. Acute pyelonephritis
B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
D. Good Pastures syndrome

A

C. Wegener’s granulomatosis

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4
Q

Which protein - to - protein ratio is typical for nephrotic syndrome?

A. albumin to globulin ratio is more than 1
B. globulin to fibrinigen ratio is more than 1
C. albumin to globulin ratio is less than 1
D. albumin to fibrinogen ratio is more than 1

A

C. albumin to globulin ratio is less than 1

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5
Q

During regular annual exam of a symptom free patient the high blood level of BUN was found. Which term describes this abnormality?

A. Creatinemia
B. Uremia
C. Oliguria
D. Azotemia

A

D. Azotemia

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6
Q

Which pathogenic mechanism of GMN is associated with immune complex formation outside the kidney?

A. Heymann’s
B. Circulating immune complex deposition
C. anti-glomerular basement membrane
D. None of the above

A

B. Circulating immune complex deposition

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7
Q

Anti- GBM pathogenic mechanism of GMN corresponds to which subtype and antibody-dependent type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A. antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
B. complement-mediated reactions
C. cell-mediated
D. antibody-dependent, cell mediated cytotoxicity

A

A. Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A. Buerger’s disease
B. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous GMN
D. All of the above are associated with nephrotic syndrome

A

A. Buerger’s disease

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9
Q

Which acute GMN associated with nephritic syndrome most often turns into chronic GMN

A. acute post-streptococcal GMN
B. membranous GMN
C. crescent GMN
D. focal glomerulosclerosis

A

C. Crescent GMN

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10
Q

Necrotizing papillitis in the kidney develops more often in which of the following disorders

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Goodpasture’s Syndrome

A

A. Diabetes mellitus

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11
Q

Kimmelstiel- Wilson disease is characterized morphologically by which of the following?

A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B. Ball-like depositions within the mesangium
C. Glomerular basement membrane thickening
D. Atherosclerosis

A

B. Ball-like depositions within the mesangium

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12
Q

Which of the following is the most common glomerular disease?

A. Alport's Syndrome
B. Buerger's Disease
C. Acute proliferative post-streptococcal GMN
D. Focal glomerulosclerosis
E. Berger's Disease
A

E. Berger’s disease (IgA Nephropathy)

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13
Q

In crescentric GMN the crescents in the glomeruli are formed by which of the following?

A. Hypertroph of visceral epithelial cells
B. Proliferation of endothelial cells
C. Hyperplasia of parietal epithelial cells
D. depositied IgA- immune complexes

A

C. Hyperplasia of parietal epithelial cells

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14
Q

Pathogenesis of kidney involvement in Goodpasture’s syndrome corresponds to which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A. antibody-dependent
B. delayed-type hypersensitivity
C. anaphylactic 
D. Immune complex mediated
E. None of the above
A

**A. Anti-body dependent

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15
Q

Which of the following is the most common disorder (s) eventually resulting in ischemic heart disease?

A. Cardiomyopathies
B. Congestive cardiac failure
C. Arrythmia’s
D. Atherosclerosis

A

D. Atherosclerosis

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16
Q

Which organ(s) is (are) NOT typically reservoir of the chronic infection in the body

A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Prostate
D. Tooth Cavity

A

A. Liver

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17
Q

Which kind of angina pectoris is also known as pre-infarction angina?

A. variant
B. crescendo
C. typical
D. stable

A

B. Crescendo

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18
Q

Long term hypertension eventually leads to congestive heart failure, in this case which of the following signs and consequences of this transformation comes to the clinical attention first?

A. Hepatomegaly
B. Pitting Edema
C. Lung edema
D. cor pulmonale
E. cyanosis
A

** dunno

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19
Q

Posterior deviation of the esophagus on the x-ray film testifies to ____?

A. enlargement of the right atrium
B. enlargement of the right ventricle
C. enlargement of the left atrium
D. enlargement of the left ventricle

A

C. enlargement of the left atrium

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20
Q

What is NOT part of atheroma?

A. connective tissue cap
B. smooth muscle cells
C. siderophages
D. lipids

A

C. siderophages

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21
Q

Migratory arthritis is typically a manifestation in which disease?

A. subacute bacterial endocarditis
B. henoch-schonlein purpura
C. rheumatic fever
D. thromboangitis obliterans

A

C. rheumatic fever

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22
Q

What is the best term describing the compensatory reaction of the left atrial myocardium in mitral stenosis?

A. compensatory hyperplasia
B. eccentric hyperplasia
C. concentric hypertrophy
D. eccentric hypertrophy
E. compensatory hypertrophy
A

D. eccentric hypertrophy

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23
Q

Ortopnea means the development of dyspnea in congestive heart failure in which change of patient’s position?

A. change from standing to sitting position
B. change from standing to lying position
C. change from sitting to standing position
D. change from lying to standing position
E. all of these changes are known as ortopnes

A

B. change from standing to laying position

24
Q

Prinzmetal’s angina means the obstruction of coronary artery because of ______?

A. bacterial colonies
B. atheroma
C. thrombus
D. spasm

A

D. spasm

25
Q

“Onion-skinning” is typically accompanied by which pathology?

A. diabetes mellitus
B. bacterial endocarditis
C. necrotizing arteriolitis
D. benign nephrosclerosis

A

C. necrotizing arteriolitis

26
Q

Pathogenesis of which disease is known as “molecular mimicry”

A. Monckeberg’s medical calcific sclerosis
B. subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
D. rheumatic fever

A

D. rheumatic fever

27
Q

Pulmonary artery stenosis develops in which disease?

A. atherosclerosis
B. rheumatic fever
C. acute bacterial endocarditis
D. Monckeberg’s medical calcific sclerosis
E. pulmonary artery is not involved in all of the above

A

B. rheumatic fever

28
Q

Which of the following is associated with right-sided cardiac failure?

A. brown induration of lungs
B. exertional dyspnea
C. heart failure cells
D. pleural effusion

A

D. pleural effusion

29
Q

Cor pulmonale is NOT associated with _____?

A. ascities
B. nutmeg-like liver
C. pedal edema
D. exudate accumulation in pericardial cavity
E. all of the above are typical for cor pulmonale

A

E. all of the above are typical for cor pulmonale

30
Q

Left ventricular failure is usually cause by the following disease except______

A. myocardiopathies
B. ischemic heart disease
C. aortic stenosis
D. bronchiectasis

A

D. bronchiectasis

31
Q

Left ventricular failure is usually cause by the following disease except ______?

A. myocardiopathies
B. lung emphysema
C. aortic stenosis
D. ischemic heart disease

A

B. Lung emphysema

32
Q

Which pathology may often be complicated by venous infarction?

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. paraesophageal hernia
D. Barrett esophagus
E. achalasia
A

** dunno

33
Q

Smoking compromises which component of the stomach mucous barrier?

A. mucosal blood flow
B. elaboration of prostaglandins
C. epithelial regeneration capacity
D. gastrin secretion into the mucus

A

A. mucosal blood flow

34
Q

Boerhaave syndrome is characterized by which of the following?

A. stomach bleeding
B. esophageal rupture
C. esophageal bleeding
D. perforation of the stomach peptic ulcer

A

B. esophageal rupture

35
Q

H. pylori is found in ____ patients with duodenal peptic ulcer and in ____ of ones with stomach peptic ulcer:

A. 100% / 70%
B. 50% / 50%
C. 70% / 100%
D. 100% / 100%

A

A. 100% / 70%

36
Q

Which disease is most commonly in alcoholics?

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. paraesophageal hernia
D. Barrett esophagus
E. achalasia
A

** dunno

37
Q

What is NOT correct for gastrinomas?
A. is also known as Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
B. Eventually results in an overproduction of HCl
C. Arise in pancreas
D. do not metastasize
E. Diarrhea is common clinical manifestation

A

** ??

38
Q

Which disease is considered the major cause of esophageal varicose?

A. esophageal cancer
B. liver cirrhosis
C. Barrett esophagus
D. gallbladder stones

A

**??

39
Q

Aspirin leads to gastrointestinal side-effects by suppression of which component of the mucous barrier?

A. Mucosal blood flow
B. Elaboration of prostaglandins
C. Epithelial regeneration capacity
D. Gastrin secretion into the mucous

A

B. Elaboration of prostaglandins

40
Q

Traction diverticulum results from _____?

A. mediastinal lymphadenitis
B. esophageal ulceration
C. superficial multiple erosion
D. overproduction of gastrin

A

A. mediastinal lymphadenitis

41
Q

Which disorder is known to develop multiple peptic ulcers?

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
C. Paraesophagel hernia
D. Barrett Esophagus
E. Achalasia
A

B. Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

42
Q

Chagas disease is associated with development of which pathology

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
C. Paraesophagel hernia
D. Barrett Esophagus
E. Achalasia
A

E. Achalasia

43
Q

Metaplasia in Barrett Esophagus is characterized by replacement of ____ epithelial cells to ______ epithelial cells

A. columnar / squamous
B. squamous / cuboid
C. columnar / cuboid
D. squamous / columnar

A

D. squamous / columnar

44
Q

Which disease could result in ischemic-hemorrhagic stroke?

A. Monckeberg’s medical calcific stenosis
B. rheumatic fever
C. hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
D. subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

D. subacute bacterial endocarditis

45
Q

In nephritic syndrome there is a selective increase of glomerular permeability of which of the following?

A. water
B. globulins
C. RBC’s
D. WBC’s

A

C. RBC’s

46
Q

Which of the following is the most common glomerular disease?

A. Alport’s syndrome
B. IgA nephropathy
C. acute proliferative post-streptococcal GMN
D. focal glomerulosclerosis

A

B. IgA nephropathy

47
Q

In nephritic syndrome, which substance eventually resulting in hypertension is secreted primarily?

A. renin
B. angiotensin
C. aldosterone
D. epinephrine

A

A. Renin

48
Q

In crescentic GMN the crescentsin the glomeruli are formed by which of the following?

A. proliferation of visceral epithelial cells
B. proliferation of parietal epithelial cells
C. proliferation of endothelial cells
D. deposited immune complex

A

A. proliferation of visceral epithelial cells

49
Q

During regular annual exam of a symptom free patient the high blood level of creatine was found. Which term describes this abnormality best?

A. creatinemia
B. uremia
C. oliguria
D. azotemia

A

B. uremia

50
Q

In Heymann’s nephritis, in which layer of the glomerular arteriole wall will the immune complexes be formed and deposited?

A. space between podocyte and GBM
B. GBM
C. JG apparatus
D. sunintimal layer

A

A. space between podocyte and GBM

51
Q

A characteristic sign of nephritic syndrome is _____?

A. lipiduria
B. azotemia
C. pleural effusion

A

B. azotemia

52
Q

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease is characterized morphologically by which of the following?

A. necrotizing papillitis
B. formation of crescents
C. hyaline arteriolosclerosis
D. ball like depositions within the mesangium

A

D. ball like depositions within the mesangium

53
Q

Which organ(s) is (are) NOT involved in polyarteritis nodosa?

A. kidneys
B. lungs
C. heart
D. liver

A

B. Lungs

54
Q

Which of the following diseases more often predisposes to development of pyelonephritis?

A. suppurative abscess of kidney parenchyma
B. acute bacterial endocarditis
C. lung abscess
D. acute cystitis

A

D. acute cystitis

55
Q

What is NOT typical for stomach ulcer?

A. deep damage of the stomach mucosa
B. could lead to “hourglass” stomach
C. tendency to to multiple
D. all of the above are typical

A

** ??

56
Q

What is NOT a complication of duodenal peptic ulcer?

A. perforation
B. malignancy
C. hemorrhage
D. penetration

A

B. malignancy

57
Q

The location of which esophageal diverticulum is near the midpoint of the esophagus?

A. traction diverticulum
B. zenker diverticulum
C. mallory diverticulum
D. chagas diverticulum

A

** ??

PATHOLOGY (5 decks)

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