FINAL Fall 2013 Flashcards
In polycythemia which factor mostly accounts for thrombosis?
A. turbulence
B. increased blood viscosity
C. physical inactivity
D. reductin in rate of blood flow
B. increased blood viscosity
Which clotting factor activates prothrombin and converts it to thrombin?
A. Hagemann factor
B. Stuart-Prower factor
C. Christmas factor
D. None of the above
B. stuart-prower factor
Which factor is mostly responsible for formation of thrombi in the left atrium in mitral stenosis
A. increased viscosity
B. hemodynamic stress
C. reduction in rate of blood flow
D. blood hyper coagulation
C. reduction in rate of blood flow
Activated platelets release the following biologically active substances except ____ ?
A. ATP
B. growth factor
C. TxA2
D. All of the above are released from platelets
A. ATP
Which mediator of inflammation accounts for the endothelial mediation?
A. PGE2
B. PGH2
C. PGD2
D. PGI2
D. PGI2
What is NOT correct for fat emboli?
A. they can’t pass through small cerebral vessels
B. they can cause respiratory failure
C. they can’t pass through capillary beds in alveolar wall
D. they can cause petichial haemorrhages in the brain
C. they can’t pass through capillary beds in alveolar wall
Which types of hemorrhage typically develop (s) in thrombocytopenia’s?
A. ecchymosis B. purpura C. hematoma D. A + B E. B + C
B. purpura
Tissue thromboplastin activates which of the following clotting factors?
A. Hageman factor B. proconvertin C. Stuart- Prower factor D. Christmas factor E. None of the above
B. proconvertin
Which clinical manifestation(s) is (are) typical for Christmas Disease?
A. Metorrhagia B. hemarthrosis C. menorrhagia D. A + B E. B + C
B. hemarthrosis
Which of the following is NOT a component of blood clot?
A. collagen strands B. red blood cells C. platelets D. white blood cells E. all of the above are components of blood clot
A. collagen strands
Which sequela of thrombosis accounts for development of transient ischemic attack (TIA)
A. infarction
B. propogation
C. organization
D. resolution
D. resolution
Which artery (arteries) is (are) usually involved in giant cell arthritis?
A. vertebral artery B. middle meningeal artery C. anterior cerebral artery D. posterior cerebral artery E. A + C
A. vertebral artery
In lines of Zahn, the pale layers consist of which of the following?
A. white blood cells B. fibrinogen C. thrombocytes D. A + B E. All of the above
C. thrombocytes
In paraesophageal hernia, which is the FINAL factor in stopping blood flow to the herniated portion of the stomach?
A. obstruction of arteries within the hernia wall
B. Equalization of hydrostatic pressure in both arteries and veins
C. obstruction of veins within the hernia walls
D. obstruction of lymphatic vessels within the hernia wall
B. Equalization of hydrostatic pressure in both arteries and veins
Which is NOT correct for CREST syndrome?
A. the letter C means calcinosis
B. typically develops in diffuse scleroderma
C. more common in females
D. Letter S means sclerodactyly
E. all of the above are correct for CREST syndrome
B typically develops in diffuse scleroderma
Which autoimmune disease is frequently known as paraneoplastic syndrome?
A. Hashimoto's thryoiditis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Dermatomyositis D. Systemic sclerosis E. Grave's Disease
C. Dermatomyositis
What is the correct order of changes of the skin colour in Raynaud Syndrome?
A. blue, white, red
B. white, red, blue
C. red, blue, white
D. white, blue, red
D. white, blue, red
Ophthalmoplegia results from deficiency of which vitamins?
A. retinal B. retinoid acid C. ascorbic acid D. thiamine E. cobalamin
D. Thiamine
Which of the following is most likely to promote development of dry beriberi?
A. pregnancy
B. alcohol abuse
C. vitamin C deficiency
D. hypocalcemia
B Alcohol abuse
Glossitis develops as a result of the following vitamin deficiency except?
A. folic acid
B. cobalamin
C. niacin
D. pyridoxine
B. cobalamin
What is NOT correct for Sjogren’s Syndrome?
A. it affects the endocrine glands B. it is known as sicca syndrome C. is manifested by xerostomia D. is associated with rheumatic disease very often E. All of the above are correct
A. it affects the endocrine glands
What was the author of a word “vitamins”
A. Elmer McCollum
B. Kazimierz Funk
C. Christian Eijkman
D. Robert Koch
B. Kazimierz Funk
Methotrexate directly blocks:
A. cyanocobalamin
B. reductase
C. tetrahydrofolate
D. monoglutamate
B. reductase
Riboflavin results in the following pathologies except:
A. xerophthalmia
B. Cheilosis
C. dermatitis
D. all of the above result from riboflavin deficiency
A. Xerophthalmia
Which vitamins can be synthesized endogenously?
A. ascorbic acid B. thiamine C. niacin D. alfa-tocopherol E. none of the above
C. niacin
In pernicious anemia, the blocking antibodies result in:
A. blocking of R-binder
B. blocking of parietal cells
C. blocking of receptors for intrinsic factor
D. blocking of receptors for extrinsic factor
E. blocking of intrinsic factor
E. blocking of intrinsic factor
Casal’s necklace develops due to deficiency in which vitamin?
A. riboflavin B. retinoid acid C. folic acid D. pyridoxine E. none of the above
E. none of the above
Nidus forms from the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. retinoid acid and pyridoxine B. retinal and pyridoxine C. retinal and niacin D. pyridoxine and alfa-tocoferol E. riboflavin and folic acid
A. retinoid acid and pyridoxine
Corneal ulcers could develop in the following disorders except:
A. beriberi
B. Vitamin A deficiency
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
D. ariboflavinosis
A. Beriberi
Which of the following is the correct name of the malignant tumour from the tissue of mesodermal origin?
A. chondroma B. chondrosarcoma C. chondrocarcinoma D. A + B E. B + C
B. Chrondrosarcoma
What is NOT typical for angiogenesis in malignant tumours?
A. malignant tumours require additional vascular supply if tumour size is 1mm or more
B. new formed blood vessels may lack basement membranes
C. angiogenesis is stimulated by tumour angiogenesis factor
D. new formed blood vessels are strong and impermeable
D. new formed blood vessels are strong and impermeable
In which neoplasm the majority of tumor mass consists of parenchyma?
A. osteoma
B. leiomyosarcoma
C. chondrocarcinoma
D. none of the above
A. osteoma
What does anaplasia mean?
A. lack of organ development B. reverse of normal differentiation C. change of cell type D. cell enlargement in response to increased demands E. none of the above
B reverse of normal differentiation
What is NOT correct for breast adenocarcinoma?
A. originates from glandular tissue
B. originates from tissue derived from endoderm
C. majority of tissue is made of parenchyma
D. is a scirrhous cancer
C. majority of tissue is made of parenchyma
What does metaplasia mean?
A. lack of organ development
B. reverse of normal differentiation
C. change of cell type
D. development of that is inadequate, so that the resulting structure is immature and functionally deficient
C. change of cell type
What does dysplasia mean?
A. irreversible alteration in the cell’s growth pattern
B. reverse of normal differentiation
C. change of cell type
D. development of that is inadequate, so that the resulting structure is immature and functionally deficient
E. none of the above
E. none of the above
Which timor is most likely to send metastases to the liver?
A. breast adenocarcinoma
B. melanoma
C. osteosarcoma
D. colorectal carcinoma
D. colorectal carcinoma
Ascorbic acid inhibits formation of which carcinogen?
A. aflatoxin
B. nitrosamines
C. benzopyrine
D. aromatic amines
B. nitrosamines
Recruitment of eosinophils typically occurs in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. anaphylactic B. delayed-type hypersensitivity C. complement dependent reaction D. immune complex mediated E. antibody dependent cellular dysfunction
A. anaphylactic
Antibodies of which class of immunoglobulins are NOT able to mediate type 3 hypersensitivity?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgA
D. IgM
B. IgD
Opsonization is an important mechanism of:
A. anaphylactic B. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity C. complement dependent reaction D. immune complex mediated E. antibody dependent cellular dysfunction
C. complement dependent reaction
What is NOT associated with delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions?
A. tuberculin reaction
B. poison ivy dermatitis
C. activation of CD4 Tcells of TH2 type
D. formation of granuloma
C. activation of CD4 Tcells of TH 2 type
Which of the following is NOT a function of interferon-gamma (IFNy)
A. It is a potent activator of macrophages
B. it promotes transformation of macrophages to epitheliod cells
C. it promotes formation of multinucleated giant cells
D. all the above are functions of IFNy
D. all of the above
Antitumorous activity is associated with which of the following?
A. immune complex mediated type of hypersensitivity reaction
B. T-cell mediated
C. antibody-dependent type of hypersensitivity reaction
D. delayed-type hypersensitivity
T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
Which cell plays the most important role in type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
A. neutrophils
B. mast cells
C. fibroblasts
D. endothelial cells
B. mast cells
Erthryblastosis fetalis is associated with which subtype of type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Antibody dependent cell mediated toxicity
B. antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
C. complement mediated reactions
D. is associated with type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
C. complement mediated reactions
In which type or subtype of of hypersensitivity reaction does complement activation play the most important role?
A. cell mediated type
B. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
C. antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
Which disorder is associated with complement-dependent reactions?
A. myasthemia gravis
B. pemphigus vulgaris
C. parasite invasion
D. viral disease
B. pemphigus vulgaris
Which type (s) or subtype (s) of hypersensitivity reactions account (s) for antiviral activity?
A. antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity B. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity C. Immune complex mediated D. A + B E. B + C
B. T cell mediated cytotoxicity
