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MIcrobiology Exam > Past Test Questions > Flashcards

Past Test Questions Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what process includes sterilization to 60 degrees for 30 minutes and kills bacteria but not spores?

A

pasteurization

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2
Q

what kind of solution modifies both lipids and proteins?

A

phenolic compounds

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3
Q

what filter size is needed for filtering bacteria and viruses?

A

0.2 mm

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4
Q

which antibiotic is an aminoglycoside?

A

kanamycin

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5
Q

What preparation modifies DNA?

A

malachite green

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6
Q

Which solution cannot be used to clean skin?

A

hydrogen peroxide

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7
Q

What virus creates decoy particles?

A

Hepatitis B

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8
Q

Which virus replicates in the cytoplasm?

A

small pox

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9
Q

If a virus has a double capsid, it’s nucleic material is most likely (RNA or DNA)

A

RNA

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10
Q

A positive ssRNA with no reverse transcription is most likely (enveloped or naked?)

A

naked

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11
Q

What is characteristic of CMV?

A

enlargement of cells

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12
Q

Which viral disease has a characteristic cheep slap appearance,and patients have few RBCs

A

Parvo B19

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13
Q

What disease is related to Herpes 8

A

Kaposi Disease

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14
Q

Which viral disease has a characteristic finger lesion?

A

Whitlow

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15
Q

HH4 Virus is latent in what kind of cell?

A

lymphocyte

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16
Q

Outer sugars are characteristic for gram ____ bacteria

A

gram negative

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17
Q

If an antibiotic is targeting a pentaglycine bridge, the bacteria must be gram____

A

gram positive

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18
Q

A bacterial genome is called a _______

A

nucleoid

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19
Q

What part of a bacterial cell maintains osmotic conditions

A

cell wall

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20
Q

The Fc portion of the antibody is important in…

  • T cell activation.
  • Complement activation.
  • Binding antigen.
  • Two of the above are correct.
A

complement activation

Fc=fraction that activates complement

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21
Q

What are the main differences between IFNa and IFNb; and IFNg? Similarities?

A

IFNa and IFNb – produced by most virally infected cells and direct anti-viral effects
IFNg – produced by immune cells (T cells and NK cells)
All of these cytokines direct anti-viral effects

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22
Q

fungi are considered ___morphic because

A

dimorphic, can change forms (spore/mold/yeast)

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23
Q

neutralization is involved with what kind of immune response?

A

humoral;

neutralization= antibodies prevent bacterial adherence

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24
Q

If one has an allergic reaction, you see an increase in

A

eosinophils/ IgE

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25
Q

IgM is involved in _________

A

complement activation

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26
Q

If someone has no thymus, you expect

A

decreased immunoglobin, increased inflammation, and more intracellular infections

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27
Q

This is part of the secondary immunity in blood

A

IgG

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28
Q

What are 3 kinds of granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils – phagocytic; most abundant
Eosinophils – parasitic worms and allergies
Basophils – inflammatory

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29
Q

CD4 is found on____

A

T Helper cell

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30
Q

CD8 is found on

A

cytotoxic t cell

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31
Q

T cells recognize what kind of antigens?

A

T cells recognize processed Antigens presented with the MHC; .

  • good against intracellular Antigens (virus/protozoan/bacteria)
  • antigens are mostly protein/peptide
32
Q

B cells recognize what kind of antigens?

A

B cells recognize cell bound or soluble antigens, often in conformational configuration (i.e. not processed)

  • good against extracellular Ags
  • B cell Ags can be: protein or carbohydrate (most common), nucleic acid or lipid (rare)
33
Q

which of the following would be recognized as antigen by a B cell, but not a T cell?

  • protein
  • single amino acid
  • lipid
  • glucose
A

lipid

34
Q 
Generally, the surface of B cells contain all of the following except:
MHC class I
MHC class II
Membrane Ig
CD4
A

CD4

35
Q 
Which of the following cytokine is most closely associated with Th1 cells?
IL-1
IFN-gamma
IL-6
IL-10
A

IFN-gamma

36
Q

MHC Class I is found on…

A

all nucleated cells (not on RBCs because no nucleus)

recognized by CD8 T cells (cytotoxic t cell)

37
Q

MHC Class II is found on….

A

macrophages, b cells, dendritic cells

recognized by CD4 T cells (t helper cell)

38
Q

Th1 cell are involved in____ and controls these cytokines____

A

Th1- intracellular infections (viral)

IL-12, il-2, IFN-gamma

39
Q

Th2 cells are involved in____and controls these cytokines____

A

Th2- extracellular infections (bacterial), activates B cells

IL–4, 5, 6, 10

40
Q

During an immune response to a particular antigen, it is typical to see both Th1 and Th2 cell activation.

A

false- ifn-gamma inhibits Th2, rarely see both Th1 and Th2 at the same time

41
Q

which cytokines are important for inflammation?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TFN-alpha

42
Q

Antibodies stimulate opsonization via binding to the FcR on macrophages.
True or False?

A

True

opsonization=stimulates phagocytosis

43
Q

What are four ways that antibodies protect us from infection?

A
  1. opsonization- antibody promotes phagocytosis
    2- neutralization- antibody prevents bacterial adherence
    3– complement activation- antibody activates complement, enhancing opsonization and lysis
    4- antibody stimulates inflammation/agglutination
44
Q

What is “special” about igM and IgG ?

A

IgM and IgG are 2 of five antibodies that can activate complement

45
Q

Highest concentration of IgG is____

A

in the blood

46
Q

IgA is found in____

A

secretions, like saliva, perspiration and tears, made by mucous membrane cells

47
Q

IgE is associated with

A

allergic reactions, worm infections

48
Q

What is a lymphocyte that is NOT antigen specific?

A

Natural killer cell

49
Q

Which of the following will have no MHC Class II:

  • T cell
  • B cell
  • Natural killer cell
  • macrophage
  • neutrophil
A

neutrophil

50
Q

If one has liver damage you might expect an (increase or decrease) in complement?

A

decrease in complement

51
Q

C3b is related to…

A

opsonization

52
Q

Fever is a symptom of staph food poisoning (t/f)

A

false, no fever in staph

53
Q

Hecktoen agar measures presence of…

A

H2S

54
Q

lipo-oligosaccharide results in gram___ and oxidase _____. LOS is found in ____

A

gram negative
oxidase positive
LOS in neisseria

55
Q

Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in:

gram negative, diarrhea, no leukocytes, lactose positive, oxidase negative, and sorbitol negative?

A

EHEC

56
Q

Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in: gram negative, lactose negative, H2S positive, oxidase negative?

A

salmonella typhi

57
Q

Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in: lactose positive and lactose negative labs?

A

shigella sonei

58
Q

Which enteric, gram negative bacteria shows A/E binding?

A

EPEC

59
Q

silver nitrate is used to cure…

A

Neisseria ghonnorhea

60
Q

The mycobacteria cell wall includes…

A

cord factor
mycolic acid
arabinogalactan
peptidoglycan

61
Q

The BCG vaccine is derived from…

A

mycbacterium bovis

62
Q

If someone had a hip replacement with a catheter placed, and then developed symptoms, which bacterial infection could they possibly have?

A

mycobacterium fortuitum

63
Q

Lymphadenopathy can be caused by which mycobacterium?

A

M. scrofulaceum

64
Q

If one is identifying the index case, it is a _____ study

A

descriptive

65
Q

Strep dental carries are related to…

A

streptococcus mutans

66
Q

Otitis media can cause meningitis in kids and is a result of which gram positive cocci?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

67
Q

inflammation that leads to damage of heart valves muscle is common in _____

A

Rheumatic fever (starts from group a strep)

68
Q

Life threatening colitis is found in which gram positive bacteria?

A

Clostridium difficile

69
Q

Gram positive bacteria that grows in pairs, bile salt tolerant and non-hemolytic

A

enterococcus faecalis

70
Q

Virulence of this gram positive, non-spore forming bacteria is directly related to the bacteria’s ability to live within cells

A

listeria

71
Q

Which gram positive, spore forming bacteria is non-motile?

A

bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

72
Q

Which gram positive rod bacteria is associated with drinking non-pasteurized milk and no fever?

A

listeria

73
Q

A child presents to the hospital with a pseudomembrane on his larynx. The bacteria involved is most likely a ____

A

gram positive rod (Corynebacterium diphtheriae)

74
Q

Protein M is involved in what aspect of the immune response?

A

protein M prevents opsonization

75
Q

Which picornavirus is acid-labile and does not grow at temperatures above 33 degrees?

A

rhinovirus

76
Q

A maculopapular rash and syncitial formation refers to which disease?

A

measles (paramyoxyviridae)

MIcrobiology Exam (11 decks)

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