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MIcrobiology Exam > Past Test Questions > Flashcards

Past Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

what process includes sterilization to 60 degrees for 30 minutes and kills bacteria but not spores?

A

pasteurization

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2
Q

what kind of solution modifies both lipids and proteins?

A

phenolic compounds

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3
Q

what filter size is needed for filtering bacteria and viruses?

A

0.2 mm

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4
Q

which antibiotic is an aminoglycoside?

A

kanamycin

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5
Q

What preparation modifies DNA?

A

malachite green

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6
Q

Which solution cannot be used to clean skin?

A

hydrogen peroxide

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7
Q

What virus creates decoy particles?

A

Hepatitis B

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8
Q

Which virus replicates in the cytoplasm?

A

small pox

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9
Q

If a virus has a double capsid, it’s nucleic material is most likely (RNA or DNA)

A

RNA

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10
Q

A positive ssRNA with no reverse transcription is most likely (enveloped or naked?)

A

naked

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11
Q

What is characteristic of CMV?

A

enlargement of cells

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12
Q

Which viral disease has a characteristic cheep slap appearance,and patients have few RBCs

A

Parvo B19

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13
Q

What disease is related to Herpes 8

A

Kaposi Disease

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14
Q

Which viral disease has a characteristic finger lesion?

A

Whitlow

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15
Q

HH4 Virus is latent in what kind of cell?

A

lymphocyte

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16
Q

Outer sugars are characteristic for gram ____ bacteria

A

gram negative

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17
Q

If an antibiotic is targeting a pentaglycine bridge, the bacteria must be gram____

A

gram positive

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18
Q

A bacterial genome is called a _______

A

nucleoid

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19
Q

What part of a bacterial cell maintains osmotic conditions

A

cell wall

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20
Q

The Fc portion of the antibody is important in…

  • T cell activation.
  • Complement activation.
  • Binding antigen.
  • Two of the above are correct.
A

complement activation

Fc=fraction that activates complement

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21
Q

What are the main differences between IFNa and IFNb; and IFNg? Similarities?

A

IFNa and IFNb – produced by most virally infected cells and direct anti-viral effects
IFNg – produced by immune cells (T cells and NK cells)
All of these cytokines direct anti-viral effects

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22
Q

fungi are considered ___morphic because

A

dimorphic, can change forms (spore/mold/yeast)

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23
Q

neutralization is involved with what kind of immune response?

A

humoral;

neutralization= antibodies prevent bacterial adherence

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24
Q

If one has an allergic reaction, you see an increase in

A

eosinophils/ IgE

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25
IgM is involved in _________
complement activation
26
If someone has no thymus, you expect
decreased immunoglobin, increased inflammation, and more intracellular infections
27
This is part of the secondary immunity in blood
IgG
28
What are 3 kinds of granulocytes?
Neutrophils – phagocytic; most abundant Eosinophils – parasitic worms and allergies Basophils – inflammatory
29
CD4 is found on____
T Helper cell
30
CD8 is found on
cytotoxic t cell
31
T cells recognize what kind of antigens?
T cells recognize processed Antigens presented with the MHC; . - good against intracellular Antigens (virus/protozoan/bacteria) - antigens are mostly protein/peptide
32
B cells recognize what kind of antigens?
B cells recognize cell bound or soluble antigens, often in conformational configuration (i.e. not processed) - good against extracellular Ags - B cell Ags can be: protein or carbohydrate (most common), nucleic acid or lipid (rare)
33
which of the following would be recognized as antigen by a B cell, but not a T cell? - protein - single amino acid - lipid - glucose
lipid
34
``` Generally, the surface of B cells contain all of the following except: MHC class I MHC class II Membrane Ig CD4 ```
CD4
35
``` Which of the following cytokine is most closely associated with Th1 cells? IL-1 IFN-gamma IL-6 IL-10 ```
IFN-gamma
36
MHC Class I is found on...
all nucleated cells (not on RBCs because no nucleus) | recognized by CD8 T cells (cytotoxic t cell)
37
MHC Class II is found on....
macrophages, b cells, dendritic cells | recognized by CD4 T cells (t helper cell)
38
Th1 cell are involved in____ and controls these cytokines____
Th1- intracellular infections (viral) | IL-12, il-2, IFN-gamma
39
Th2 cells are involved in____and controls these cytokines____
Th2- extracellular infections (bacterial), activates B cells | IL--4, 5, 6, 10
40
During an immune response to a particular antigen, it is typical to see both Th1 and Th2 cell activation.
false- ifn-gamma inhibits Th2, rarely see both Th1 and Th2 at the same time
41
which cytokines are important for inflammation?
IL-1, IL-6, TFN-alpha
42
Antibodies stimulate opsonization via binding to the FcR on macrophages. True or False?
True | opsonization=stimulates phagocytosis
43
What are four ways that antibodies protect us from infection?
1. opsonization- antibody promotes phagocytosis 2- neutralization- antibody prevents bacterial adherence 3-- complement activation- antibody activates complement, enhancing opsonization and lysis 4- antibody stimulates inflammation/agglutination
44
What is “special” about igM and IgG ?
IgM and IgG are 2 of five antibodies that can activate complement
45
Highest concentration of IgG is____
in the blood
46
IgA is found in____
secretions, like saliva, perspiration and tears, made by mucous membrane cells
47
IgE is associated with
allergic reactions, worm infections
48
What is a lymphocyte that is NOT antigen specific?
Natural killer cell
49
Which of the following will have no MHC Class II: - T cell - B cell - Natural killer cell - macrophage - neutrophil
neutrophil
50
If one has liver damage you might expect an (increase or decrease) in complement?
decrease in complement
51
C3b is related to...
opsonization
52
Fever is a symptom of staph food poisoning (t/f)
false, no fever in staph
53
Hecktoen agar measures presence of...
H2S
54
lipo-oligosaccharide results in gram___ and oxidase _____. LOS is found in ____
gram negative oxidase positive LOS in neisseria
55
Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in: | gram negative, diarrhea, no leukocytes, lactose positive, oxidase negative, and sorbitol negative?
EHEC
56
Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in: gram negative, lactose negative, H2S positive, oxidase negative?
salmonella typhi
57
Which enteric, gram negative bacteria results in: lactose positive and lactose negative labs?
shigella sonei
58
Which enteric, gram negative bacteria shows A/E binding?
EPEC
59
silver nitrate is used to cure...
Neisseria ghonnorhea
60
The mycobacteria cell wall includes...
cord factor mycolic acid arabinogalactan peptidoglycan
61
The BCG vaccine is derived from...
mycbacterium bovis
62
If someone had a hip replacement with a catheter placed, and then developed symptoms, which bacterial infection could they possibly have?
mycobacterium fortuitum
63
Lymphadenopathy can be caused by which mycobacterium?
M. scrofulaceum
64
If one is identifying the index case, it is a _____ study
descriptive
65
Strep dental carries are related to...
streptococcus mutans
66
Otitis media can cause meningitis in kids and is a result of which gram positive cocci?
streptococcus pneumoniae
67
inflammation that leads to damage of heart valves muscle is common in _____
Rheumatic fever (starts from group a strep)
68
Life threatening colitis is found in which gram positive bacteria?
Clostridium difficile
69
Gram positive bacteria that grows in pairs, bile salt tolerant and non-hemolytic
enterococcus faecalis
70
Virulence of this gram positive, non-spore forming bacteria is directly related to the bacteria’s ability to live within cells
listeria
71
Which gram positive, spore forming bacteria is non-motile?
bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
72
Which gram positive rod bacteria is associated with drinking non-pasteurized milk and no fever?
listeria
73
A child presents to the hospital with a pseudomembrane on his larynx. The bacteria involved is most likely a ____
gram positive rod (Corynebacterium diphtheriae)
74
Protein M is involved in what aspect of the immune response?
protein M prevents opsonization
75
Which picornavirus is acid-labile and does not grow at temperatures above 33 degrees?
rhinovirus
76
A maculopapular rash and syncitial formation refers to which disease?
measles (paramyoxyviridae)

MIcrobiology Exam (11 decks)

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