PAST PAPERS Flashcards

1
Q

most important test for ob cholestasis

A

bile acids

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2
Q

citalopram side effect

A

qt prolongation

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3
Q

what is area affected first in dementia

A

hippocampus

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4
Q

delusion where they are convinced their partner is cheating on them

A

othello

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5
Q

what electrolyte abnormality is associated with antidepressants

A

hyponatraemia

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6
Q

whats the probability of being paralysed from an epidural

A

1 in 50,000

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7
Q

what risk of normal delivery is increased in a water birth

A

PPH

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8
Q

at what GA does parity count

A

24 weeks

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9
Q

what strains of HPV are targeted by the quadrivalent vaccine

A

6
11
16
18

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10
Q

whats the most effective form of emergency contraception

A

copper IUD

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11
Q

paeds fracture fall on outstreched hand

A

suprachondylar

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12
Q

toxic left shift

A

lymphadenitis

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13
Q

what type of haemophilia is more common

A

a

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14
Q

definitive test for cystic fibrosis

A

geentic testing

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15
Q

what causes toxic left shift in paeds

A

lymphadenitis
due to bacterial infection lots of WCs are produced

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16
Q

when were mental health act vs mental capacity act made

A

MHA= 1983
MCA= 2005

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17
Q

who does the MCA apply to

A

those over 16 yrs

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18
Q

what class of medication is mirtazipine

A

noradrenaline and serotoninergic antidepressant

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19
Q

less severe vs more severe depression

A

less: PHq 9 <15 or 15
more: phq 9 >15 ie 16 or more

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20
Q

what medication is preferred in rapid tanquilisation

A

IM lorazepam
use this if not sure what one to give or patient not been on antisychotics before

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21
Q

what 2 medications can be used for rapid tranquilisation

A

IM lorazepam
IM haloperidol with promethazine

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22
Q

differences between pseudodementia and dementia

A

present similarly but no cognitive impairement in pseudodemetia

identify it as having:
more rapid onset, low mood, pt exaggerating sx, identifiable trigger, have insight, psych hx, responsive to questions

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23
Q

under what age is it mandatory to report fgm

A

under 18
must be done within a month

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24
Q

what to do if a child is at risk of fgm

A

make a referral to childrens social care
if at immediate risk call 999

24
Q

hep b surface antigen

A

first antigen to be detected
if present for more than 6 months= chronic infection

24
Q

law on re infibulation

A

it is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstance

25
Q

what is anti hep b core antibody used for

A

this is the one where you get IgM and IgG therefore you can see if someone has acute or chronic/cleared infection

26
Q

what antibody do people vaccinate against hep b have

A

anti hep b surface antibody

27
Q

what is hep b e antigen and anti hep b e antibody used for

A

hep b e is an indicator of how active the infection is

it can therefore be used to see if a chronic infection is active or inactive (its active if e antigen is present)

presence of anti hep b e antibody therefore indicates an inactive status

28
Q

first line for menorrhagia due to fibroids (and when can it be considered)

A

LNG IUS
<3cm
no distortion of uterine cavity
no other pathology
adenomyosis

29
Q

what size uterus may you consider referral

A

> 3cm

30
Q

what GA do foetal movements plateau

A

32 weeks

31
Q

reduced foetal movement order of ix

A

1= doppler to identify heartbeat
2= ultrasound if not identified, CTG if identified and over 28 weeks GA
3= if there is still perception of reduced foetal movements after a reassuring CTG or if any risk factors for stillbirth etc, also do an US within 24hrs

32
Q

when to feel for IUD threads

A

4-6 weeks after insertion
then monthly or after menses

33
Q

how long after CIN is a test of cure smear done

A

6 months

34
Q

if the test of cure after CIN mx is HPV positive whats done

A

immediate colposcopy

35
Q

what antibiotics are given for pprom?

A

erythromycin 250mg Qd for 10 days or until labour established

36
Q

indications for emergency cervical cerclage

A

16-28 weeks GA
dilated cervix and unruptured membranes

37
Q

indications for tocolysis

A

24-25+6 weeks GA

38
Q

how is breast abscess managed

A

urgent referral to general surgeon for aspiration and drainage

39
Q

in a foetus with transverse lie where there is SROM and CTG distress what has likely happened

A

cord prolapse

40
Q

when q is asking for heavy period mx and picking between tranexamic and mefanamic acid pick what

A

tranexamic

41
Q

what BMI is weight loss recommended in incontinence

A

> 30

42
Q

what do you measure at booking for hep B

A

surface antigen

43
Q

most likely cause of azoospermia

A

varicocele

44
Q

what does a lambda sign on US indicate

A

DCDA twin pregnancy

45
Q

when should you aim to dleiver DCDA twins

A

37 weeks

46
Q

if someone comes in for sterilisation but has had protected sex what do you do

A

continue with surgery as long as sex was protected

47
Q

when are serial growth scans offered to women who smoke during pregnancy

A

if they smoke more than 10/day

48
Q

whats first line for candida

A

topical clotrimazole or pessary

49
Q

what antibodies are seen when someone has sacroilitis

A

none

50
Q

what first line for ESBL

A

carbapenam

51
Q

what covers vancomycin resistant enterococcus

A

linezolid

52
Q

Which agent is an Interleukin 6 (IL-6) inhibitor, indicated for treatment of severe COVID-19
infection with hypoxia?
Anakinra
Nafamostat
Palivizumab
Ruxalitinib
Tocilizumab

A

tocilizumab

53
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is resistant to penicillin, by which mechanism?
Alteration of the target that binds the antimicrobial
Bypass of the antimicrobial susceptible step in metabolism
Enhanced efflux of the antimicrobial
Enzymatic inactivation of the antimicrobial
Impaired uptake of the antimicrobial into the bacterial cell

A

Alteration of the target that binds the antimicrobial

54
Q

Which antiviral agent is used for the treatment of Influenza A?
Cidofovir
Foscarnet
Ribavirin
Tenofovir
Zanamivir

A

zanamivir

55
Q

zanamivir moa

A

neuraminidase inhibitor

56
Q

what is haemorrhagic cystitis associated with

A

BK virus
cyclophosphamide

57
Q
A