PASSMED WRONG Flashcards

nice guidelines used

1
Q

how long after having a surgical termination can you have an IUD in

A

immediately

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2
Q

what does SSRI+NSAID increase risk of

A

GI bleed
give PPI as cover

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3
Q

ovarian cancer 2ww rules

A

immediate urgent 2w referral if there is a mass or ascites on examination

measure ca125 if suspicious sx

if ca125>35 refer for ultrasound

immediate 2w referral if ultrasound is suspicious

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4
Q

what level of ca125 is suspicious and what do you do

A

> 35
do a pelvic ultrasound

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5
Q

what cancers is OCP protective of vs increases risk of

A

protective of: breast and cervical
increases risk of: endometrial and ovarian

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6
Q

what to do if bilateral undescended testes

A

at birth= urgent 24hr referral
at 6-8 weeks= urgent 2ww referral

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7
Q

what to do if unilateral undescended testes

A

review at 6-8 weeks
if still undescended review at 4-5months
if still undescended referr

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8
Q

reduced foetal movements are concerning after what ga

A

28 weeks

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9
Q

what test is done for reduced foetal movement after doppler

A

ultrasound

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10
Q

if a women is on combined HRT what contraception can you give them

A

progesterone only
this can be pill, implant or injection

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11
Q

what is mirabegron and when is it given

A

for urge incontinence in older people
because duloxetine is an anticholinergic and can cause confusion

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12
Q

what class of drugs are used in urge incontinence

A

anti muscarinincs
aka anti cholinergics

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13
Q

how do gnrh agonists work

A

they increase gnrh production and shut down the gnrh axis

this reduces oestrogen and shrinks fibroids

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14
Q

what is a side effect of gnrh agonists and why

A

reduced bone mineral density

they shut down the gnrh axis and cause low oestrogen so bone density decreases

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15
Q

how long can you take a gnrh agonist for

A

6 monthd

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16
Q

SSRI plus what drug increases risk of serotonin syndrome

A

triptans
MAOIs

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17
Q

SSRI use in pregnancy effect

A

1st trimester= increased risk of congenital heart defect

3rd trimester= increased risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension

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18
Q

role of thiamine vs chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal

A

chlordiazepoxide= reduces the withdrawal sx
thiamine= reduces progression to wernickes encephalopathy, does not improve sx

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19
Q

paediatric red flag HR

A

> 140

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20
Q

what class of medication is duloxetine

A

SNRI

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21
Q

what class of medication is mirtazipine

A

noradrenaline and serotonin selective antidepressant

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22
Q

complete vs incomplete molar pregnancy

A

complete= egg has no genetic material, both sets of DNA from dad (remember like completely dad)

incomplete= egg has genetic material from mum but also 2 sets from dad

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23
Q

edinburgh depression scale over what indicates depression

A

10

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24
Q

what criteria is used for septic arthritis

A

kocher

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25
what does kocher criteria use
non weight bearing joint fever WCC raised ESR raised
26
patau syndrome
trisomy 13 small eyes cleft palate polydactyly
27
edwards syndrome
trisomy 18 micrognathia low set ears rocker bottom feet overlapping fingers
28
noonan syndrome
short stature webbed neck pectus excavatum pulmonary stenosis
29
pierre robertson syndrome
micrognathia posterior tongue displacement cleft palate
30
fragile x syndrome
large long head large ears large testes learning difficulty
31
williams syndrome
friendly/extroverted learning difficulty transient neonatal hypercalcaemia supravalvular aortic stenosis
32
prader willi syndrome
hypotonia hypogonadism obesity
33
what marker is raised in abdominal wall defects
alpha fetoprotein
34
tamoxifen increases risk of what cancer
endometrial
35
what is continuous incontinence after a prolonged labour suggestive of
vesicovaginal fistula
36
how do you investigate vesicovaginal fistula
urinary dye studies this dyes urine so will show a fistula
37
antisocial vs schizoid personality disorder
schizoid= withdrawn, prefers to be alone, reduced interest in sex antisocial= can develop form conduct, disruptive, agressive, doesnt conform to social rules etc (is more disruptive then schizoid)
38
what medication may reduce risk of future febrile seizures
rectal diazepam
39
how will paracetamol affect febrile seizures
while it may lower the fever, it does not reduce the incidence of seizures
40
what are the 2 medications in orkambi how do they work
ivacaftor and lumacaftor ivacaftor= keeps CFTR channels open for longer lumacaftor= increases amount of CFTR protein that is correctly synthesised
41
mutation in what gene in cystic fibrosis?
delta F508
42
how do you identify a benzodiazepine
ends in 'pam'
43
how do benzos work
enhance GABA
44
where do babies get atopic eczema
face and trunk
45
at what age should a child have palmar grasp
5-6 months
46
at what age should a child build a tower of 3-4 blocks
18 months
47
how do you differentiate between ITP and ALL on bloods
ITP= only platelets will be low ALL= Hb, platelets will be low, WCC will be high look at platelets first then to differentiate check Hb and WCC
48
what booking bloods are done
FBC, blood group, rhesus status
49
how many routine antenatal appts will a nulliparous woman have
10
50
how many routine antenatal appts will a multiparous woman have
7
51
what 3 screening programmes are offered to women at booking
maternal infections: hep b, HIV, syphilis haemoglobinopathy fetal anomaly note: all of these are optional
52
dating scan date and purpose
11+2 to 14+1 weeks date pregnancy identify multiple pregnancy fetal anomaly screen
53
anomaly scan date and purpose
18+0 to 20+6 weeks identify fetal anomalies determine placental location
54
what urine tests are done at booking
dip AND culture (even if dip is normal) to look for asymptomatic bactiuria
55
when do most women with endometrial cancer present
stage 1
56
in termination of pregnancy when is anti D given
for any termination after 10 weeks ga for surgical terminations before 10 weeks ga
57
how do you identify overflow incontinence
bladder outlet obstruction- signs are straining, poor flow, incomplete emptying this all causes a high voiding pressure with a poor flow rate
58
what are a gs and cs that rise in anorexia nervosa
gs: growth hormone glands (salivary) glucose cs: cortisol cholesterol carotinaemia
59
is HIV a notifiable disease
NO
60
peak exp flow rate in life threatening asthma
<33%
61
what antibiotic covers for listeria
amoxicillin ampicillin (penicillin)
62
when adding insulin to metformin for gestational diabetes what is done to metformin
nothing- continue it alongside insulin
63
how does cows milk protein allergy present
vomitting mucus diarrhoea colic episodes hx of eczema/skin changes might have lrti sx
64
2 types of cows milk protein allergy and when they resolve
IgE mediated= resolves by 5 months non IgE mediated= resolves by 3 months
65
cows milk allergy mx
if breastfeeding: continue and mum exclude all milk from her diet, give her calcium supplements if formula: use extensively hydrolysed formula
66
what medication is a deterrant given in alcohol detoxification and causes agressive vomitting when someone drinks alcohol on it
disulfram
67
out of caput succadaneum and cephalohaematoma what heals quicker
caput succadaneum (takes a few weeks) cephalohaematoma (may take months)
68
how are caput succadaneum and cephalohaematoma managed
conservatively
69
when is 2 thumb encircling technique vs one hand on lower sternum used for paediatric BLS
2 thumb= under 1yr old one hand on lower sternum= over 1 yrs
70
what medication that an elderly person might be on causes anterograde amnesia that may cause a dementia like present
benzodiazepine
71
how can you differentiate wernickes and korsakoffs
wernickes= triad of opthalmoplegia, confusion and ataxia korsakoffs= additional anterograde amnesia and confabulation
72
in alcohol withdrawal what is the role of chlordiazepoxide lorazepam acamprosate naltrexone thiamine
chlordiazepoxide= first line for alleviating withdrawal sx, usually given over week with dose reductions to assist detox lorazepam= first line for delirium tremens acamprosate= anti craving medication to help with abstinence naltrexone= anti craving medication to help with abstinence thiamine= given in suspected wernickes encephalopathy to help reduce progression to korsakoffs syndrome
73
link between malrotation and volvulus
volvulus is when a part of the malrotated bowel twists on itself
74
out of duchenne and becker which is more severe
duchenne
75
definitive diagnosis of duchenne/beckers
genetic testing
76