Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aaska's specialities > PAEDS > Flashcards

PAEDS Flashcards

1
Q

pneumatosis intestinalis

A

intramural gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

continuous machinery murmur

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diastolic decrescendo murmur

A

aortic or pulmonary regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mid diastolic murmur with opening click

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pansystolic murmur

A

mitral and tricuspid regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ejection systolic murmur left sternal edge

A

pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ASD assoc w which congenital condition

A

downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

downs increases risk of what cancer

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sarnat staging

A

hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
has 3 stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CXR in meconium aspiration

A

asymmetrical patchy opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

level of glucose concerning in neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

<2mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HIE cooling and warming done over how many hrs

A

cooling= 72 hrs
warming= 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HIE cooling temp

A

33-34 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

exchange transfusion in haemolytic disease of newborn when

A

bilirubin rising >8-10 per hr
anaemia, Hb <100
phototherapy refractory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IVIG in haemolytic disease of newborn when

A

bilirubin rising >8.5 per hr
only for immune haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

glucose given in severe neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

2ml/kg 10% glucose bolus
3.6 ml/kg/hr 19% glucose maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BG aim in neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

3-4 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mx for neonatal hypoglycaemia due to hyperinsulinaemia

A

glucagon
diazoxide and chlorthiazide
somatostatin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what time of onset and GA indicates pathological jaundice in neonate

A

<24 hrs birth
<35 weeks GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are 2 lines on normogram for jaundice and how do they guide mx

A

blue and red
above blue below red= phototherapy
above red = exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

paces neonatal jaundice

A

explain its common
explain ix if under 1 week or over 14 days
phototherapy- safe, eyes protected, bloods taken
encourage breastfeeds
stay in after phototherapy to check for rebound hyperbilirubinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

type of ventilation used in neonatal RDS

A

CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

oxygen sat target in neonatal RDS

A

91-95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3 medications given for toxo and their course

A

pyrimethamine
folinic acid
sulfadiazine

for 1 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when is NGT/TPN used for TTN

A

if resp rate >60/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when are abx given in TTN

A

persists for .4-6 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

tracheosophaeal fistula/ oesophageal atresia type A mx

A

stabilisation and gastrostomy
oesophageal replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

tracheosophaeal fistula/ oesophageal atresia type B/D mx

A

suction catheter
surgical correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

tracheosophaeal fistula/ oesophageal atresia type C mx

A

stabilisation
surgical correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

tracheosophaeal fistula/ oesophageal atresia type E mx

A

NBM
division of fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 congential heart disease

A

TGA
TOF
tricuspid atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

hyperoxia test

A

indicates congenital heart disease
low o2 sats in 100% oxygen for 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cause of HF in child

A

PDA
rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

reasons for closing PDA

A

reduce risk of bacterial endocarditis
reduce risk of pulmonary vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PDA closure medications 1/2/3 line

A

1= indomethacin
2= prostacyclin synthetase inhibitor
3= ibuprofen (VLBW or premie)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

blalock taussing shunt

A

for TOF
between subclavian and pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TOF definitive surgery done when

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

age children are dry by day only

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

age children are dry by day and night

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

recurrent UTI definition

A

2x upper UTI/pyelo
1x upper UTI/pyelo plus 1x lower UTI
3x lower UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

red flags for constipation in children

A

present after birth
failure to pass meconium in 48 hrs
abdo distention and vomiting
neurological/developmental abnormality
abnormal looking anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

4 types of laxative with example of each

A

osmotic= lactulose, movicol
bulk forming= fybogel, cellulose
stimulant= senna
stool softner= docusate sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

disimpaction regime for constipation

A

movicol titrating dose up for 2 weeks
may add senna if ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

complications of crohns

A

bloody diarrhoea
cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

clinical dehydration and shock % weight loss

A

clinical dehydration= >5%
shock= >10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 fluid replacements

A

resus bolus
dehydration correction
maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

time frame 3 types of fluid are given over

A

resus- within 10 mins
dehydration correction- over 48 hrs
maintenance- 24 hrly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

most accurate measure of dehydration

A

weight loss over course of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

neonate fluids

A

day 1- 50-60ml/kg
day 2-70-80ml/kg
day 3- 80-100ml/kg
day 4-100-120 ml/kg
day 5-28- 120-150 ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

fluid type used for neonates

A

IV crystalloid with 10% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

monitoring for failure to thrive

A

daily= under 1 month
weekly= 1-6 months
fortnightly= 6-12 months
monthly= over 1 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

admission for gastroenteritis when

A

clinically dehydrated or shocked
uncontrollable vomiting
painful bloody diarrhoea
shigella
complications like HUS/sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

abx in gastroenteritis when

A

salmonella under 6 months
immunocompromised salmonella
c diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

school exclusion gastroenteritis

A

48 hrs after last vomit/diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

gastroenteritis recovery

A

diarrhoea lasts 5-7 days should stop in 2 weeks
vomiting lasts 2-3 days should stop in a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

inguinal and umbilical hernia repair when

A

inguinal= based on sx
umbilical= if small and asymptomatic at 4-5 yrs, if large and symptomatic at 2-3 yrs

if incarcerated, manually reduce with pressure and emergency surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

age infantile colic resolves by

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

abx for intussception

A

clindamycin and gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

IBS medications

A

laxatives
anti spasmodics
antimotility- loperamide chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

surgery for malrotation

A

ladds procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

mesenteric adenitis is preceded by

A

a viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

h pylori eradication therapy

A

PPI
clarithromycin 500 mg
amoxicillin 1 g

all BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is diagnosed when endoscopy is normal and peptic ulcer disease was suspected

A

functional dyspepsia- upper GI variant of IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

pyloric stenosis fluids

A

1.5x maintenance with 5% dextrose and 0.45% saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pyloric stenosis surgery

A

ramstedt pyloromyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

UC complications

A

growth
cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

medications for steroid dependant UC

A

thiopurine
infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

surgery for volvulus

A

ladds procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when should steroids not be used in meningitis

A

meningococcal septiciaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

when should steroids be used in meningitis

A

purulent CSF
high WCC in CSF
high protein conc in CSF
bacteria on gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

EBV advice

A

no contact sports or heavy lifting for one month, up to 8 weeks
no school exclusion but avoid kissing and sharing utensils
no amoxicillin, ampicillin or aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

abx to avoid in EBV and why

A

amoxicillin and ampicillin
cause florid macropapular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

medications to decreased raised ICP

A

corticosteroids
mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

HSV1/HSV2 encephalitis medication

A

IV aciclovir
high dose 2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CMV encephalitis medication

A

ganciclovir plus foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

VZV encephalitis medication

A

aciclovir or ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

EBV encephalitis medication

A

cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ix done for paediatric red flags present in a febrile child

A

bloods- FBC, CRP, electrolytes
blood culture
blood gas
CXR
LP
urine test
empirical abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

where are febrile children treated/ within what timeframe if they have red flag sx

A

immediate transfer to a&e by ambulance if lfie threatening features
OR
face to face assessment within 2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

hip US at 6 weeks when

A

breech presentation
even if spontaneously moved to cephalic presentation/ successful ECV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

roseola infantum virus

A

HHV6
HHV7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

vaccine not given to HIV+ve children

A

BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

HIV +ve children medication

A

2x NRTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

parvovirus b19 infection >3weeks mx

A

IVIG 5 days
may need transfusion for anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

localised impetigo mx

A

hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
topical fusidic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

widespread/ bullous impetigo mx

A

oral flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

kawasaki disease mx

A

IVIG single dose, can repeat
high dose aspirin up to 72hrs then low dose for 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

severe malaria mx

A

parenteral artesunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

measles school exclusion

A

4 days after rash onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

measles complication

A

otitis media (most common)
pneumonia
encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

measles mx

A

supportive
vit A for 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

mumps school exclusion

A

5 days after parotitis develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

who do you notify in notifiable disease

A

local health protection unit
public health england

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

rubella school exclusion

A

5 days after rash onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

rubella advice

A

stay away from pregnant women
vaccination if not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

abx for TSS

A

clindamycin plus penicillin usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

typhoid abx

A

ciprofloxacin
add azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

ADHD first line mx

A

watch and wait for 10 weeks
ADHD focused group training programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

ADHD monitor height

A

every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

ADHD monitor weight

A

every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

ADHD medications

A

methylphenidate
lisdexamphetamine
dexamphetamine
guanfacine
always 6 week trial to start
monitor ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

document for children with learning difficulties

A

EHC plan: education, health and care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what age do breath holding attacks resolve by

A

4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

breath holding attack differential

A

anaemia- check FBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what age should a child sit by

A

8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what age should a child walk by

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

medications for cerebral palsy

A

stiffness= baclofen
drooling= anticholinergic
constipation= laxative
sleeping= melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

medications for duchennes muscular dystrophy

A

glucocorticoids
nocturnal CPAP
ataluren

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

discontinue antiepileptics in children when they havent had a seizure for

A

2 yrs

110
Q

tonic clonic seizure first line anti epileptic

A

sodium valproate

111
Q

absence seizure first line anti epileptic

A

ethosuximide

112
Q

focal seizure first line anti epileptic

A

levitiracetam or lamotrigine

113
Q

myoclonic seizure first line anti epileptic

A

valproate or lamotrigine

114
Q

driving is allowed in epilepsy when you havent had a seizure for

A

1 yr

115
Q

age for febrile convulsions

A

6months-6yrs

116
Q

advice during seizure

A

cushion head
dont put anything in mouth
remove harmful objects

117
Q

advice after seizure

A

check airway
put in recovery position

118
Q

recurrence rate of febrile convulsions

A

1/3

119
Q

preventing febrile seizure advice

A

immunise even if it was after an im
reducing fever doesnt change risk of recurrence
use paracetamol or ibuprofen when febrile
hydrate child well

120
Q

headache urgent neuro assessment if under what age

A

4 yrs

121
Q

headache red flags

A

present in morning
wakes them up at night
worse on bending down, sneezing or coughing
ataxia
meningism
new onset focal deficit
squinting or cant look up
vomiting
changes in levels of consciousness
worsens

122
Q

hydrocephalus mx

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

123
Q

medication for myotonia in muscular dystrophy

A

mexelitine

124
Q

phenytoin dose in status

A

20mg/kg infusion over 20 mins

125
Q

what should you think when you see subdural haematoma

A

NAI- must be considered/ruled out

126
Q

DKA glucose, ketones and blood pH

A

glucose >11
ketones >3 or +++
pH <7.3

127
Q

which fluids are used in DKA

A

0.9% saline only until glucose <14
0.9% saline plus 5% glucose when glucose <14
all fluids should have 40mmol/L potassium chloride added

128
Q

mild/moderate/severe DKA ranges

A

mild= pH 7.2-7.29
moderate= pH 7.1-7.19
severe= pH <7.1

129
Q

fluid deficit in mild/moderate/severe DKA

A

mild= 5%
moderate= 7%
severe= 10%

130
Q

insulin dose/started when in DKA

A

1-2 hrs after fluid therapy
0.05-0.1 units/kg/hr

131
Q

what is done with long acting insulin for a child with DKA

A

continued throughout treatment

132
Q

insulin therapies for T1DM

A

mutiple daily injections w basal bolus regime
continuous subcut pump

133
Q

glucose targets T1DM fasting and after meals

A

fasting= 4-7
after meals= 5-9

134
Q

hba1c target T1DM

A

<48

135
Q

CBG monitoring T1DM

A

5x daily

136
Q

diabetes complication monitoring regime for children

A

nephropathy/retinopathy/ hypertension annually from 12 onwards
thyroid function from diagnosis anually

137
Q

hyperthyroid medication

A

carbimazole or propylthiouracil

138
Q

carbimazole/propylthiouracil side effecs

A

neutropenia
go to hospital if they have a sore throat

139
Q

medications given in anaphylaxis

A

adrenaline 1:1000
chlorphenamine 10mg
hydrocortisone 200mg

140
Q

specific things to look for in skin/mouth anaphylaxis

A

urticaria
angioedema

141
Q

sepsis what level of lactate is high risk

A

> 2

142
Q

pulses to check for circulation in children

A

femoral
radial
brachial

143
Q

sepsis abx

A

IV ceftriaxone
under 3 months add ampillicin/amox for listeria
neonate <72hrs benzylpenicillin and gentamicin

144
Q

sepsis lactate levels and fluids

A

> 4= give fluids, consider ionotropes and vaspressors
2-4= give fluids
<2= consider fluids

145
Q

what BG to treat neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

<1

146
Q

gastroenteritis in children most common organism

A

rotavirus

147
Q

induction chemo for ALL

A

prednisolone
vincristine
anthracyclines
(if no CNA involvement)

if CNS involvement= give intrathecal chemo too (triple therapy)

148
Q

prophylactic drugs given in ALL

A

abx
antiviral
antifungals
haemopoeitic factors for febrile neutropenia

149
Q

drug given in philadelphia chromosome +ve ALL patients

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors- imatinib

150
Q

hodgkins lymphoma chem regime

A

ABVD
2 cycles if favorable disease
4 cycles if non favorable or BEACOPP followed by 2x ABVD and radiotherapy

151
Q

relapse ALL mx

A

high dose chemo
bone marrow transplant

152
Q

medications for tumor lysis prevention

A

rasbicurase or allopurinol

153
Q

retinoblastoma common age of presentation

A

18 months

154
Q

retinoblastoma how is treatment guided

A

is gross vitreous seeding present: cells floating in vitreous humor

155
Q

what type of tumor is wilms tumor

A

nephroblastoma

156
Q

egg on side appearance of heart shadow

A

TGA

157
Q

TGA mx

A

prostaglandin E1 to maintain PDA
balloon atrial septostomy

158
Q

difference in timing of presentation between TOF and TGA

A

TGA= immediately at birth
TOF= 1-2 months, up to 6 months

159
Q

whats the diff between viral induced wheeze and croup

A

viral wheeze= wheeze, responsive to salbutamol
croup= stridor, not responsive to salbutamol

160
Q

orkambi is used to treat and comprises

A

CF with delta F508 mutation
lumacaftor/ivacaftor

161
Q

chromosome for beta thalassaemia mutation

A

11

162
Q

beta thalassaemia mx

A

blood transfusions plus desferroxamine

163
Q

common cause of DIC

A

sepsis

164
Q

medication do not give in DIC

A

antithrombin

165
Q

platelet disorder characteristics

A

superficial bleeding (skin, gums, nose)
petechiae
immediately after surgery
after cuts/scratches
mild

166
Q

coagulation factor disorder characteristics

A

deep bleeding (haemarthrosis)
no petechaie
delayed bleeding after surgery, not after cuts/scratches
severe

167
Q

how to replace platelets

A

platelet transfusion

168
Q

how to replace coagulation factors

A

FFP

169
Q

signs of acute haemoylsis

A

jaundice
pallor
dark urine

170
Q

condition fava bans avoided in

A

G6PD deficiency

171
Q

in haemophilia and vWD avoid

A

IM injections
aspirin
NSAIDs

172
Q

difference between thalassaemia and haemophilia

A

thalassaemia= deficient alpha or beta globin production
haemophillia= deficiency of factor 8 or 9

173
Q

medication given in haemophilia A to induce factor 8 and vWF release

A

desmopressin

174
Q

complications of haemophilia treatment

A

antibodies to factor 8/9
tranfusion related infections
veins

175
Q

parvovirus B complication

A

aplastic crisis

176
Q

chronic ITP mx

A

mycophenolate mofetil
rituximab
eltrombopag

177
Q

ferrrous sulphate continue for how long once IDA corrected

A

3 months

178
Q

FBC checked how long after starting ferrous sulphate in IDA

A

2-4 weeks
should rise by 2g/100 mL over 4 weeks
if rising normally check again at 2-4 months

179
Q

day to day mx of sickle cell

A

immunise against encapsulated organisms
daily folic acid
daily penicillin
avoid stress (cold, dehydration, hypoxia, excessive exercise)
hydroxycarbamide (if >3 admissions in a year)

180
Q

mx of acute sickle cell crisis

A

oral/IV analgesia
IV fluids
abx if infection
exchange transfusion if acute chest syndrome/priapism/stroke

181
Q

side effect of desmopressin in vWD

A

hyponatraemia

182
Q

position leg is in in split/pavlik harness

A

flexed
abducted

183
Q

follow up how long after split/pavlik harness

A

6 months

184
Q

US 6 weeks for DDH when

A

breech at any point
family hx

185
Q

imaging for DDH after 6 weeks

A

x ray
better than US

186
Q

admit all children with what fracture

A

femoral shaft

187
Q

observation for DDH until what age

A

6 months

188
Q

JIA mx by what team

A

paediatric rheumatology MDT

189
Q

what is osgood schlatter disease

A

swelling and inflammation at growth plate at top of shin bone

190
Q

ergocalciferol

A

vit D2

191
Q

cholecalciferol

A

vit D3

192
Q

pseudo vitamin D deficiency is caused by

A

defect in 1 alpha hydroxylase
mx with calcitriol

193
Q

septic arthritis abx

A

IV 2 weeks then oral 4 weeks

<3 months= IV cefotaxime
3 months -5 years= IV ceftriaxone
over 6 yrs= IV flucloxacillin
if allergic to penicillin= clindamycin

oral step down= co amox and fluclox

194
Q

trethowans sign

A

line of klein doesnt intersect upper femoral epiphysis or there is asymmetry between either side

seen in SUFE

195
Q

surgical repair for SUFE

A

in situ screw fixation across growth plates

196
Q

best marker of liver failure

A

PT

197
Q

mx of acute liver failure

A

prevent hypoglycaemia: IV dextrose
prevent cerebral oedema: fluid restrict and mannitol diuresis
prevent bleeding= IV vit K and H2 antagonists

198
Q

PSC mx

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

199
Q

autoimmune hep mx

A

prednisolone
azothioprine

200
Q

biliary atresia mx

A

kasai procedure within 60 days of life
transplant if refractory
also give: fat soluble vitamins, prophylactic abx for one yr, ursodeoxycholic acid to promote bile flow if needed

201
Q

ascites mx

A

sodium and fluid restriction
drainage
of refractory albumin infusion

202
Q

babies born to mums w hep B are given

A

vaccination and immunoglobulin

203
Q

acute otitis media mx

A

conservative
if abx needed amoxicillin 5-7 days

204
Q

acute epiglottitis mx

A

ceftriaxone when intubated
co amox when stable

205
Q

acute epiglottitis household prophylaxis

A

rifampicin

206
Q

plan everyone with asthma should have

A

personalised asthma action plan

207
Q

how is blue inhaler used

A

up to 10 puffs every 30-60 seconds

208
Q

SABA nebs dose for asthma attack

A

5mg >5yrs
2.5mg 2-5 yrs

209
Q

o2 sats target acute asthma attack

A

> 94%

210
Q

ipatropium bromide nebs dose for asthma attack

A

1-11yrs: 250mcg every 20-30 mins first 2 hrs then every 4-6 hrs

12-17yrs: 500mcg every 4-6hrs

211
Q

prednisolone dose acute asthma attack

A

1-2mg/kg/day
40mg max

212
Q

asthma attack follow up within what time

A

48hrs of presentation if not admitted
2 working days of discharge if admitted

213
Q

mag sulf nebs dose astham attack

A

150mg

214
Q

gold standard ix for bronchiectasis diagnosis

A

high resolution CT

215
Q

signet ring sign on high resolution CT

A

bronchiectasis
when diameter of bronchus is bigger than bronchial artery

216
Q

CF bronchiectasis organism

A

pseudomonas

217
Q

non CF bronchiectasis acute exacerbation mx

A

airway clearance w saline
abx

218
Q

bronchiolitis prophylaxis when high risk

A

pavilizumab

219
Q

IgE vs non IgE mediated cows milk protein allergy

A

IgE mediated= onset within 2 hrs of ingestion
not IgE mediated= onset within 2-72 hrs of ingestion

220
Q

dex dose croup

A

0.15mg/kg

221
Q

what are recessions

A

skin between the ribs pulling in between every breath

222
Q

medications for CF

A

CFTR modulators: kaftrio if over 2, funding now stopped
mucolytics: rhDNAse, hyeprtonic saline, dry mannitol inhalation
pancreatic enzyme replacement: creon
if liver disease: ursodeoxycholic acid

223
Q

prophylactic abx for pseudomonas in CF

A

azithromycin

224
Q

GS diagnosis for food allergy

A

food challenge

225
Q

what ages can you do heimlich manouvre

A

> 1

226
Q

high pitched inspiratory stridor worse when lying flat or exertion

A

laryngomalacia

227
Q

abx for paediatric pneumonia

A

moderate= amoxicillin (clarith if allergic)
severe= co amoxiclav (clarith if severe)

228
Q

scarlet fever abx

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin QDS 10 days

229
Q

scarlet fever complications

A

acute glomerulonephritis
rheumatic fever

230
Q

scarlet fever school exclusion

A

until 24 hrs after abx

231
Q

scores for sore throat giving abx

A

feverPAIN
centor

232
Q

abx given when centor score is

A

3 or 4

233
Q

whooping cough abx

A

<1 month= clarithromycin
>1 month= axithromycin

give if presenting within 21 days of cough onset

234
Q

what age are all those with whooping cough admitted

A

<6 months

235
Q

whooping cough school exclusion

A

until 48hrs after abx started
until 21 days after cough onset if abx not given

236
Q

where a competent child refuses treatment

A

a person w parental responsibility or the court can authorise investigation or treatment if in the childs best interests

237
Q

family law reform act

A

those over 16 can consent to treatment
those under 18 cannot refuse treatment unless one parent agrees with them (even if other parent diagrees)

238
Q

MMR contraix

A

dont get pregnant for 1 month
IgG therapy past 3 months
infant who has had another live vaccine in past 4 weeks
severe immunosupression
allergic to neomycin

239
Q

who to get involved for NAI

A

senior colleague
named doctor for child protection
consider involving police (CAIT= child abuse investigation team)
consider involving MASH (multi agency safeguarding hub)

240
Q

ix for NAI

A

skeletal survey
MRI/CT head
bloods
bone profile
opthalmology referral (fundoscopy for retinal haemorrhages)

241
Q

counselling for NAI

A

I am going to speak to you about the next steps for your child medically and non medically

Medically we would like to do these ix

Non medically, we are not sure how this injury has occurred, because of this we would like to admit your child
Sometimes, when injuries like this present they do not happen by accident and are caused by someone else
When this happens, we have to routinely involve some teams including social services, the child safeguarding team and maybe the police
Our aim is to keep your child safe

242
Q

school exclusion for 24 hrs after abx start

A

scarlet fever

243
Q

school exclusion for 48 hrs after abx start

A

whooping cough

244
Q

school exclusion for 5 days after parotitis

A

mumps

245
Q

school exclusion until rash crusts over

A

impetigo
VZV

246
Q

school exclusion for 4 days from rash onset

A

measles
rubella

247
Q

school exclusion until treated

A

scabies

248
Q

school exclusion until recovered

A

influenza

249
Q

school exclusion until sx settled for 48 hrs

A

diarrhoea/vomitting

250
Q

normal resp rate
<1
1-5
5-12
>12

A

<1= 30-40
1-5= 20-30
5-12= 15-20
>12= 12-16 (adult)

251
Q

normal HR
<1
1-5
5-12
>12

A

<1= 110-160
1-5= 95-140
5-12= 80-120
>12= 60-100 (adult)

251
Q

normal systolic BP
<1
1-5
5-12
>12

A

<1= 70-90
1-5= 80-100
5-12= 90-110
>12= 100-120 (adult)

252
Q

clinically dehydrated (5%) fluid mx

A

continue milk
oral rehydration solution 50ml/kg over 4 hrs plus maintenance fluids

253
Q

clinically shocked (>10% dehydration) mx

A

iv fluid bolus 0.9% saline 10ml/kg
when resolved IV 0.9% saline 100ml/kg over 4 hrs plus maintenance

254
Q

maintenence fluids infusion rate
first 10 kg
second 10 kg
anything over 20kg

A

first 10 kg= 4ml/kg/hr
second 10 kg= 2ml/kg/hr
anything over 20kg= 1ml/kg/hr

255
Q

vaccines given at 8 weeks

A

6 in 1
rotavirus
men B

256
Q

vaccines given at 12 weeks

A

6 in 1
rotavirus
PCV

257
Q

vaccines given at 16 weeks

A

6 in 1
men B

258
Q

vaccines given at 1 yr

A

Hib/men C
men B
PCV
MMR

259
Q

vaccines given at 2yrs annually

A

nasal flu

260
Q

vaccines given at 3yrs 4 months

A

4 in 1 preschool booster
MMR

261
Q

vaccines given at 12-13yrs

A

HPV

262
Q

vaccines given at 14 yrs

A

3 in 1 teenage booster
men ACWY

263
Q

whats in 6 in 1 vaccine

A

diptheria
pertussis
polio
tetanus
HIB
Hep B

264
Q

whats in 4 in 1 vaccine

A

diptheria
tetanus
pertussis
polio

265
Q

whats in 3 in 1 vaccine

A

diptheria
polio
tetanus

266
Q

cellulitis vs erysipelas
mx for both

A

erysipelas= very well demarcated, mx with penicillin v
cellulitis= oral flucoxacillin if severe otherwise conservative mx

267
Q

what infection causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell

A

erythema infectiosum

268
Q

edwards syndrome karyotype

A

trisomy 18

269
Q
A

Aaska's specialities (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions