PAST PAPERS Flashcards
1
Q
most common parasitic infection in the duodenum
A
giardia
2
Q
what medical procedure can you do to prevent hyperacute ABO rejection in the transfer of an ABO incompatible kidney
A
plasmaphoresis
3
Q
what blood to give if o neg is unavailable
A
o pos
4
Q
most common cause of constricted heart disease with calcifications
A
sarcoidosis
5
Q
mucromyosis antifungal
A
amphotericin B
6
Q
urine dip positive for blood but no red cells what is causing haematuria
A
myoglobin
7
Q
RECOVERY study what steroid is given in COVID with low oxygen
A
dexamethasone
8
Q
MEFV mutation
A
familial mediterranean fever
9
Q
goodpastures what type of hypersensitivity
A
2
10
Q
monitoring LMWH in someone with renal failure
A
anti Xa activity
11
Q
likely histopathology of lung cancer in the peripheries of a female non-smoker
A
adenocarcinoma
12
Q
pegler huet
A
lamin b receptor mutaton
13
Q
pseudo pegler huet
A
myelodysplasia
14
Q
in who do you see murcomyosis infections
A
those with poorly controlled diabetes
15
Q
transfusion immediately develops SOB, 85% O2 Sats, JVP elevated by 3cm
A
ABO incompatibility
16
Q
peripheral blood smear in multiple myeloma what would you see
A
rouleaux bodies
17
Q
bone cancer likely to develop in pagets disease
A
osteosarcoma
18
Q
MGUS m spike
A
<30g/L
19
Q
person with diabetes, atherosclerotic diseases, started ACE inhibitor due to microalbuminuria, develops high creatinine and urea a week later, hasn’t passed urine in 3 days, normal Na and K. What was the underlying condition of the kidney stuff
A
renal artery stenosis
20
Q
animal reservoir of Bartonella henselae
A
cats
21
Q
triple eradication drugs
A
clarith
azithro
PPI
22
Q
CMV meningitis medication
A
ganciclovir
23
Q
Young woman with ovarian tumour, AFP is elevated what tumor type
A
yolk sac tumor
24
Q
yolk sac ovarian tumor is the same as
A
immature teratoma
25
What drug causes hypoglycaemia out of:
Quinine, Thiazide, Statin, Glucagon, prednisone
quinine
26
HTLV1 blood cancer
adult t cell
27
aggressive non hodgkins vs indolent
aggressive= burkitts, DLBC, mantle
indolent= follicular, marginal zone
28
autoimmune TP first line mx
steroids
29
what stage of pregnancy is VTE risk highest
postpartum
30
21-alpha-OH, what would be likely serum levels
low sodium
high potassium
31
low aldosterone effects on sodium and potassium
low sodium
high potassium
32
best antibody for sjorgrens
anti ro
33
A man with HIV, CD4 count under 50, non-compliant with HAART develops diarrhoea and abdo Sxs. Acid and alcohol fast bacilli. Which atypical mycobacterium caused this?
Fortuitum, clodinea, avium complex, marinum, ulcerans
avium complex
34
what hyperlipidaemia causes acute pancreatitis
triglycerides
35
A child with sickle cell comes in SOB, listless. Lo rbc, lo reticulocytes. Most likely diagnosis
parvovirus b19
36
Lady with bronchiectasis known to be colonised with fully sensitive Pseudomonas aeruginosa, what antimicrobial should be used
ceftazidine
37
Guy with a right lobe liver abscess, well rounded and ?hypoechogenic. Most likely causative organism
entamoeba hystolytica
38
Tx for malignant melanoma
nivolumab
39
What drug would be given to a patient with CLL with p53 deletion
ibrutinib
40
Most likely complication of multiple pulmonary thromboemboli
pulmonary infarcts
41
constrictive cardiomyopathy cause
pericarditis, amyloidosis
42
Cortical veins in the brain, which type of haemorrhage does it cause
subdural
43
foxp3 mutation affects what cells
t reg
44
Crohn’s treatment (monoclonal antibody) after no response to steroids and 5-ASA
vedolizumab
45
Question about ulcerative colitis and having used aminosalicylates but without any improvement. What is the next choice of drug
tocilizumab
46
pathological term for a discontinuation in the epithelial surface
ulcer
47
ovarian tumor containing signet ring cells
krukenbergs
48
A 37 year-old man presents with a headache, myalgia and a cough. He is also suffering with nausea, diarrhoea and abdominal pain. On examination he is tachypnoeic and has a pyrexia of 39ºC. Blood tests reveal lymphopenia and hyponatraemia. A gram stain from the patient’s sputum is shown here (Gram negative rods). CXR shows lobar consolidation. Cold agglutinins are negative. What is the organism?
legionella pnuemonia
49
A 40 year-old woman presents with malaise, muscular pains and diarrhoea with mucus and blood. On examination she has a fever and several distinctive spots on her abdomen (Rose spots). Blood cultures are positive and grow gram negative rods. What is the likely organism?
thyphoid fever
50
Which tumour is caused by Human Herpes virus 8
kaposis sarcoma
51
GS ix for coealiac
duodenal biopsy
52
A 4 year old girl presents to the A&E with a recurrent chest infection that will not clear. On examination, the house officer notices that she has low set ears, a cleft palate and a murmur. Investigations reveal:
Calcium 1.9 mM (NR 2.2 to 2.6); Phosphate 1.4 mM (NR 0.8 to 1.4)
PTH 1.1 pM (NR 1.1 to 6.8)
Di George syndrome
53
A 51-year old man is having investigations for palliative surgery due to gastric adenocarcinoma. He is found to be anaemic, with high a reticulocyte count and fragmented red blood cells on blood smear. What is this anaemia known as
micro angiopathic haemolytic anaemia
54
A patient presents with weakness and is found to have a potassium of 2.4mM (NR 3.5 to 5.0). What is the likely acid-base abnormality if you check the patients arterial blood gas?
metabolic alkalosis
55
what acid base abnormality does hypokalemia cause
alkalosis
56
Name the drug used for patients with type 2 diabetes which inhibits the enzyme alpha glucosidase in the brush border membrane of the small bowel
acarbose
57
Name an example of a drug that inhibits the enzyme dipeptidyl dipeptidase IV (DPP-4)
gliptins eg sitagliptin
58
whats done to blood donations to reduce GvHD
irradiation
59
eczematous nipple rash caused by individual malignant cells
pagets disease of the breast
60
cat scratch disease
bartonella henselae
61
ziehl neelson stain
blue background with purple rods
62
which valve has 2 leaflets and which has 3
only the bicuspid/mitral has 2 leaflets (left side of heart)
63
what cancer is associated with coeliacs
eatl= enteropathy associated t cell lymphoma
64
what are eatl vs malt lymphoma associated with
eatl= enteropathy associated t cell lymohoma
malt lymphoma= chronic h pylori
65
whats the most common cause of acute pancreatitis
gallstones
66
what cancer do you see increased calcitonin
medullary thyroid cancer
67
medullary thyroid cancer secretes what hormone
calcitonin
68
most common type of thyroid cancer to metastasise to lymph node
papillary
69
what viruses are screened for when giving transfusions to pregnant women
HIV
HBV
CMV
70
what cell does cart t cell therapy against cd19 target
b cells
71
if you have contact with someone with TB whats your risk of getting active TB
10%
72
what haemorrhage has a lucid interval
extradural
73
HTLV1 virus is associated with what cancer
adult T cell
74
salmonella typhi abx
ceftriaxone
75
what change in the liver do patients with diabetes get
fatty liver
76
imatinib is used in what leukaemia
chronic myeloid
77
someone with blood group a what naturally occuring antibodies will they have
anti b
78
someone with blood group ab what naturally occuring antibodies will they have
none
79
someone with blood group o what naturally occuring antibodies will they have
anti a
anti b
80
someone with blood group ab what naturally occuring antigens will they have
a and b
81
someone with blood group o what naturally occuring antigens will they have
none
82
in sickle cell disease why is there no splenic sequestration until 3 months
foetal hb present
83
in barrets oesophagus intestinal metaplasia is due to presence of what cell
goblet
84
most common cause of hypercalcaemia in the community
primary hyperparathyroidism
85
what hormone is produced by fat cells and has receptors in the hypothalamus
leptin
86
dihydrorhodamine test lack of oxidation
CGD
87
mutation of cd40 ligand is associated with what primary immunodeficiency
hyper igm
88
what class of antibodies has concentration dependant killing
aminoglycosides
89
which human herpes virus is associated with post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
CMV
90
CT scan halo sign
aspergillus
91
bleeding patient has prolonged APTT and PT, but normal platelet count and normal fibrinogen. What is the most suitable blood component for treatment
fresh frozen plasma
92
what clotting factor decreases in pregnancy
protein s
93
whats the commonest glial cell in CNS
astrocytes
94
most common skin cancer
BCC
95
young person with obstructive jaundice most common cause
gallstones
96
in a histology slide showing antibody mediated rejection of a renal allograft, where is the inflammatory infiltrate seen
capillaries
97
what is a mixed pattern auto-inflammatory auto-immune disease characterised by sacroiliac joint inflammation
ankylosing spondylitis
98
standard immunosuppressive regimen for patients who received an allograft
mycophenolate mofetil
tacrolimus
prednisolone
99
what type of hypersensitivity can you do plasmapheresis
2 eg goodpastures
100
what bone lesions do you get in multiple myeloma
osteolytic lesions
101
what does alcohol consumption cause a rise in
HDL
102
non functioning pituitary adenoma
is a rise in prolactin only
103
prolactinoma is
high prolactin
104
conjugate vaccines are for what organisms
encapsulated
105
are men or women more likely to get VTE
men
106
what falls when starting warfarin
factor 7
protein c
107
clopidogrel monitoring
no monitoring
108
does LMWH usually require monitorinfg
no
109
person who had a DVT many years ago (or recurrent DVTs), presents with recurrent dark bruising, and swelling over the course of 5 years, and now had pain in their leg. What is the possible cause
chronic venous insufficiency
110
whats the worst b cell NHL prognosis
burkitts
111
what does hypogranular, hypolobated neutrophils signify
CML
112
when do you see hypersegmented neutrophils
b12
113
if you have low kappa ratio and no band on electrophoresis what do you have
AL amyloidosis
114
which amyloidosis is primary
AL
115
Elderly woman has fever and productive cough in GP. She has pleural rub. Spleen is not palpable, no lymphadenopathy. Her WBC is 15x10^9 with neutrophilia. The Hb concentration is slightly low and platelet count is normal. Blood film - toxic granulation, left shift. CRP is high. What is the diagnosis?
a. AML
b. Aplastic anaemia
c. CML
d. Infectious mononucleosis e. Reactive neutrophilia
reactive neutrophilia
116
what is stage 3 ann arbor hodgkins lymphoma
both sides of the diaphragm but no extra nodal involvement
NOTE: the spleen is nodal
117
Patients with IgM paraprotein and visual disturbances
waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia
118
other name for waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia
lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
119
what blood group plasma should be used when someone needs an emergency transfusion
AB
120
transfusion level for platelets after trauma
<10bn
121
if someone has macrocytic anaemia and coeliacs what is the macrocytic anaemia due to
folate deficiency
122
where is iron absorbed
jejunum
123
b12 absorbed in
terminal ileum
124
whats the test for hereditary spherocytosis
eosin 5 malemide
125
if a baby is born and has haemolytic disease what is this due to
ABO incompatibility
because if it was rhesus disease the baby would not survive and be born the pregnancy would end in uetro
126
whats the mechanism of allograft rejection hyperacute vs acute
hyperacute: HLA mismatch or ABO
acute: T cell mediated
127
what cells have foxp3
t reg
128
what cytokine promotes eosinophil maturation
IL5
129
what cell does HIV target
cd4+
130
what gene for brutons agama
BTK
131
what cell deficient in digeorge
t cell
132
t cells low b cells normal what immunodeficiency
SCID
133
what cell affected in IPEX
t reg
134
common gamma chain mutation what immunodeficiency
SCID
135
what cytokine can be targeted in ank spond
tnf alpha
136
failure to regulate cryopyrin driven activation of neutrophils is characteristic of
familial mediterannean fever
137
what type of hypersensitivity causes serum sickness
3
138
what cytokine is needed for eosinophil differentiation
IL5
139
hot t bone steak
hot= il1= fever
t=il2=tcells
bone=il3=bone marrow
st
e=il4=IgE and b cells
a=il5=IgA and eosinophils
k=il6= akute phase reaction
140
What immune cell detects MHC1 and kills virus infected/cancerous cells and is inhibited by MHC1
NK cell
141
what gene is mutated in hyper IgM
cd40
142
IPEX affects what cell
t reg
143
what allergy is it when you can eat cooked fruits but not fresh
oral allergy syndrome
144
what is c1 inhibitor deficiency
hereditary angioedema
145
what cells infiltrate the parotid in sjogrens
lymphocytes
146
what can you target in ankylosing spondylitis after you try nsaid and tnf alpha
Il17 (teenage boy is 17 gets ank spond)
147
in what autoimmune condition is the Fas pathway involved
ALPs
148
16yoF has pleuritic chest pain, joint pain positive ANA and Anti-SM, no liver enzyme derangement, raised ESR. Dx
SLE
149
Woman who has mouth/lip swelling following a dental procedure, and her mother reports a similar hx in the past
c1 inhibitor deficiency- hereditary angioedema
150
what is etanercept
anti tnf alpha
151
monoclonal antibodies that are involved in t cell checkpoints
ipilimumab, nivolumab, pembrolizumab
152
In a histology slide showing cell mediated rejection of a renal allograft, where is the inflammatory infiltrate seen
interstitium
153
mechanism of hyperacute transplant rejection
preformed antibodies activate complement
154
mechanism of acute cellular transplant rejection
type 4 reaction, cd4+ cells activated
155
mechanism of acute antibody mediated transplant rejection
b cells activated and make antibodies
156
mechanism of gvhd
donor cells attack host
157
how does cushings affect sodium and potassium
high sodium
low potassium
158
Publican with diabetes, fatty stools, weight loss, ‘slate grey skin’ and joint pains.
What is the underlying diagnosis causing this?
haemochromatosis
159
What cells does Nivolumab (PD1 Inhibitor) target
t reg cells
160
subdural haemorrhage vessels
bridging veins
161
PKD cerebral bleed type
SAH
162
cerebellar tumor in child type
medulloblastoma
163
what comes first out of metaplasia and dysplasia
metaplasia
164
What is the most common histological type of oesophageal cancer in the UK
SCC
165
what happens to body of stomach in pernicious anaemia
atrophy
166
White plaques are seen lining the oesophagus on an OGD of an alcoholic man
with recurrent bleeding varices, what are they most likely to be
candida oesophagitis
167
what organism causes lung cancer in fungus exposure
alfa toxin
made by aspergillus
168
AMA antibody
PBC
169
inheritance of alpha 1 antitripsin
autosomal dominant
170
Histopathological change that occurs to liver in patients with diabetes
NAFLD
171
Pt with pancreatic mass following acute pancreatitis. Dx?
pseudocyst
172
Pt w. Hx of severe abdominal pain, during cholecystectomy the surgeons noticed
grey specks around and on the pancreas. Dx?
necrosis
173
What cancer is associated with Crohn’s Disease
colorectal adenocarcinoma
174
A plain chest X-ray of a 47 year old male reveals a 2.5 cm "coin lesion" in the
upper lobe of his left lung. The lesion is removed. The pathology report describes
Pathology PPQs 76
a clear cell carcinoma. What is the most likely primary site of origin for this
carcinoma?
kidney
cannon ball metst
175
type of cells in renal cell carcinoma
canon ball mets
176
Pulmonary oedema due to liver disease is an example of which type of cause of
pulmonary oedema
increased hydrostatic pressure
oncotic is ascites
177
Breast Fibro-epithelial tumour with abundant stromal elements
phyllodes
178
Healing of an acute myocardial infarction follows an ordered sequence of events.
Rank the following events in chronological order starting from earliest (1) to latest
(5)
a. Flocculent densities form within mitochondria
b. Macrophages begin to arrive at the area of coagulative necrosis
c. Collagen is deposited, forming a fibrous scar
d. Neutrophils begin to arrive at the area of coagulative necrosis
e. Granulation tissue begins to form
d b e a c
179
whats the most common cause of mitral stenossi
rheumatic fever
180
what shunt in TOF
right to left (same as eisenmengers)
181
what cause htn in upper half of body
coarctation of aorta
182
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults that is a
glomerular pathology
membranous
183
20 year old with a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of his leg, pain alleviated by
aspirin. Dx?
ewings sarcoma
184
Which thyroid cancer most commonly metastasises to the lymph nodes?
papillary
185
whats the most common kind of thyroid cancer
follicular
186
What infection is associated with P1104A variant of the TYK2
TB
187
A woman presents with a 4 month history of weight loss, hamoptysis and night sweats. CXR shows an upper lobe cavitation mass and there are hard palpable lymph nodes superclavicularly. What type of sideroom would you place her in.
negative pressure
188
Patient has been admitted with severe influenza A pneumonia and is intubated in ITU. Given that she can’t have any oral medication, what is the most appropriate antiviral to start?
olsetamivir
189
low potassium causes what acid base imbalance
alkalosis
190
What can be done to prevent overwhelming bacterial sepsis in a sickle cell patient with Howell-jolly bodies on blood film. Name one of the two possible medical interventions
daily penicillin V
pneumococcal vaccine
191
reasons for in surgery abx
bleeding
prolonged (>4hrs)
192
What condition predisposes people to cholangiocarcinoma most in the UK
PSC
193
Patient with myeloma, with high urea and creatinine - what is most likely cause of renal failure
cast nephropathy
194
A patient presents with breathlessness, bibasal lung craps, raised JVP and bilateral pitting oedema. He has a pastmedical history of treated refractory myeloma. On heart ausuclatation you hear a loud heart sound. Bloods show proBNP in 400s, electrolytes normal, urine 24h sodium 7g. Light chains and IgG levels were low (below reference range). What is the most likely diagnosis?
constrictive pericarditis
195
Diabetic patient recently started ACEi/ARB, now has high creatinine and urea. What is the underlying cause? (repeat)
renal artery stenosis
196
Which vaccine preventable infection causes coryzal symptoms, a grey coating on the back of the throat followed by swallowing/breathing problems? (REPEAT)
Diptheria
197
Which vaccine preventable disease presents initially with mild fever, swollen neck glands, anorexia, malaise and cough. After 2-3 days a membrane of dead cells forms in the throat, tonsils, larynx or nose which may narrow or occlude the airway leading to respiratory distress? (repeat)
diptheria
198
inheritance of APCKD
autosomal dominant
199
What causes low calcium in CKD
increased tubular loss of ca
200
What condition is IL-17 (secukinumab) used for
psoriasis
201
What infections other than HIV are routinely screened for in blood products
HTLV1
202
young person with CJD what type is it
variant
203
most common type of CJD
sporadic
204
Patient with high calcium, back pain, very low kappa/lambda ratio, no serum protein. History of difficulty micturating. PTH was low, phosphate normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?
bony mets
205
Patient has knee/bone/joint abscess drained. Shows gram positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative organism?
staph aureus
206
What is the most likely finding in coeliac disease?
a. Increased epithelial T lymphocytes
b. Increased epithelial B lymphocytes
c. Increased epithelial neutrophils
d. Increased epithelial macrophages
a
207
most common receptor presentation in breast cancer
triple positive
208
2cm pituitary mass. Prolactin level: 1400 (REPEAT). What’s the diagnosis?
a. Non functional macro pituitary adenoma
b. Prolactinoma
prolactinoma
209
Which drug do you give patients with pseudomonas infection?
a. Ceftazidime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Cefotaxime
d. Cefalexin
ceftazidime
210
What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency in the developed world
autoimmune
211
CAR-T cell against CD19 can be used in the treatment of what disease? (Repeat?)
a. T-cell Lymphoma
b. Another T-cell lymphoma
c. AML
d. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
d and ALL
212
Mom has ITP and gives birth to a healthy baby. What do you measure/ monitor in the baby once born? (repeat)
a. One time cord FBC
b. One time cord bilirubin (?)
c. Five days FBC
d. Five days bilirubin
e. Perform DAT
e its autoimmune
213
What is the likely cause of a ward sister who gets diarrhoea after an outbreak on
the ward?
norovirus
214
cocci in clusters
ANY staphylococcus
215
A 69 year old man presents with a red, hot swollen knee. He has type 2 diabetes
mellitus and osteoarthritis but it is a native joint. In this case of septic arthritis,
rank the causative organisms below in order of likelihood, with (1) being the most
likely and (5) being the least likely.
a. Brucella melitensis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d, c, b, e a
216
Woman has hot, swollen and painful left knee. Gram stain of joint aspirate - gram
+ve cocci in clusters. Patient has no drug allergies and MRSA screen is -ve.
What narrow spectrum antibiotic is indicated?
fluclox
217
more specific amox or fluclox
fluclox
218
Rank the following causative organisms for Osteomyeltis from least to most likely
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp
c d a b
219
Rank the following causative organisms for Septic arthritis from least likely to
most likely
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.
c d a b
220
Rank the following causative organisms for a Surgical Site infection from most to
least likely?
a. E. coli
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.
c a b d
221
Rank the following causative organisms for Prosthetic joint infection
a. E. coli
b. Staph epidermis
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.
b c d a
222
most common cause of HAP
enterbacteriaciae
staph aureus
223
crabapenam how broad spec
a lot
more than pip taz
224
Which class of antibiotics has concentration dependent killing (i.e. the goal of
therapy is to maximise peak > MIC)
aminoglycosides
225
Which antibiotics would be used for a young woman with cystitis and full
sensitive E. coli
trimethoprim
226
what abx class is dna synth inhibitor
fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin)
227
Which of the following antivirals is used for Child with comorbidities and RSV
treatment?
a. Aciclovir
b. Ganciclovir
c. Oseltamivir
d. Ribavirin
ribivarin
228
Which would be the most useful test in confirming acute EBV infection 2 weeks
after possible exposure in an immunocompetent patient?
Pathology PPQs 105
a. EBV IgM
b. EBV IgG
c. EBV PCR
d. Viral Culture
e. heterophile test
e
its GS
229
most common cause of fever in returning traveller
malaria
230
Virus that resides in pharynx and GIT - 1:100 encephalitis. 1:1000 destruction of
motor neurones
a. Diptheria
Pathology PPQs 110
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Polio
e. Tetanus
polio
231
9. Lockjaw is a Sx
a. Diptheria
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Polio
e. Tetanus
e
232
tetanus causative organism
clostridium tetani
233
which syphilis tests are non treponemal
VDRL and RPR
234
non treponemal vs treponemal in acute syphillis
non treponemal
235
when to use treponemal over non treponemal
treponemal
236
which syphilis tests are treponemal
EIA
FTA
(assays)
237
smear cells
CLL
238
what do you see in myelodysplasia
myeloids immature
eg hyposegmented neutrophil
239
ann arbor 1/2/3/4
1=one group of LN (can include spleen)
2= two or more LN groups same side of diaphragm
3= two or more LN diff sides of diaphragm
4= extra nodal
240
in hogdkins lymphoma the spleen counts as
one group of lymph nodes
241
when do you get tear drop poikilocytes
any infiltration of the bone marrow, can be bony mets or myelofibrosis
242
what is a side effect of carbimazole
agranulocytosis
243
what liver enzyme suggests obstructive jaundice
GGT
244
describe the acid base imbalance in aspirin OD
transient respiratory alkalosis which turns into a metabolic acidosis
245
what cytokine is targeted first in ankylosing spondylitis
tnf alpha
246
salmonella enterides vs typhi
enterides= diarrhoea
typhi= constipation and rose spots
247
what helminth causes infection through open skin
strongyloides
248
rapid test for cryptococcus pneumonia
cryptococcal antigen
249
neonatal meningitis gram neg rod
e coli
250
Renal transplant recipients on long term immunosuppression have an increased risk of which lymphoid cancer?
Cutaneous T cell lymphoma.
EBV associated Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma
H.Pylori associated gastric marginal zone lymphoma
HTLV1 associated Adult T cell lymphoma (ATLL)
DLBCL
251
ANA positive conditions
SLE
RA
CREST
sjogrens
poly/dermatomyositis
252
SLE antibodies
ANA
anti sm
anti ds dna
253
antibodies in drug induced SLE
anti histone
254
fluid status in SIADH
euvolemic
255
predictive value is about what vs specificty is about what
predictive value= the test
specificity= the population with the condition
256
in what immunodeficiency do you get increased TB infections
interferon gamma receptor deficiency
257
how does alum work
enhances innate immune response
258
what are the seronegative arthropathies
PEAR
psoriatic arthritis
enteropathic (IBD)
ank spond
reactive arthritis
259
what abx used for mycoplasma
doxycycline
260
