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Aaska's path > PAST PAPERS > Flashcards

PAST PAPERS Flashcards

1
Q

most common parasitic infection in the duodenum

A

giardia

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2
Q

what medical procedure can you do to prevent hyperacute ABO rejection in the transfer of an ABO incompatible kidney

A

plasmaphoresis

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3
Q

what blood to give if o neg is unavailable

A

o pos

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4
Q

most common cause of constricted heart disease with calcifications

A

sarcoidosis

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5
Q

mucromyosis antifungal

A

amphotericin B

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6
Q

urine dip positive for blood but no red cells what is causing haematuria

A

myoglobin

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7
Q

RECOVERY study what steroid is given in COVID with low oxygen

A

dexamethasone

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8
Q

MEFV mutation

A

familial mediterranean fever

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9
Q

goodpastures what type of hypersensitivity

A

2

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10
Q

monitoring LMWH in someone with renal failure

A

anti Xa activity

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11
Q

likely histopathology of lung cancer in the peripheries of a female non-smoker

A

adenocarcinoma

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12
Q

pegler huet

A

lamin b receptor mutaton

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13
Q

pseudo pegler huet

A

myelodysplasia

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14
Q

in who do you see murcomyosis infections

A

those with poorly controlled diabetes

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15
Q

transfusion immediately develops SOB, 85% O2 Sats, JVP elevated by 3cm

A

ABO incompatibility

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16
Q

peripheral blood smear in multiple myeloma what would you see

A

rouleaux bodies

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17
Q

bone cancer likely to develop in pagets disease

A

osteosarcoma

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18
Q

MGUS m spike

A

<30g/L

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19
Q

person with diabetes, atherosclerotic diseases, started ACE inhibitor due to microalbuminuria, develops high creatinine and urea a week later, hasn’t passed urine in 3 days, normal Na and K. What was the underlying condition of the kidney stuff

A

renal artery stenosis

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20
Q

animal reservoir of Bartonella henselae

A

cats

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21
Q

triple eradication drugs

A

clarith
azithro
PPI

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22
Q

CMV meningitis medication

A

ganciclovir

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23
Q

Young woman with ovarian tumour, AFP is elevated what tumor type

A

yolk sac tumor

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24
Q

yolk sac ovarian tumor is the same as

A

immature teratoma

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25
Q

What drug causes hypoglycaemia out of:
Quinine, Thiazide, Statin, Glucagon, prednisone

A

quinine

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26
Q

HTLV1 blood cancer

A

adult t cell

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27
Q

aggressive non hodgkins vs indolent

A

aggressive= burkitts, DLBC, mantle
indolent= follicular, marginal zone

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28
Q

autoimmune TP first line mx

A

steroids

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29
Q

what stage of pregnancy is VTE risk highest

A

postpartum

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30
Q

21-alpha-OH, what would be likely serum levels

A

low sodium
high potassium

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31
Q

low aldosterone effects on sodium and potassium

A

low sodium
high potassium

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32
Q

best antibody for sjorgrens

A

anti ro

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33
Q

A man with HIV, CD4 count under 50, non-compliant with HAART develops diarrhoea and abdo Sxs. Acid and alcohol fast bacilli. Which atypical mycobacterium caused this?
Fortuitum, clodinea, avium complex, marinum, ulcerans

A

avium complex

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34
Q

what hyperlipidaemia causes acute pancreatitis

A

triglycerides

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35
Q

A child with sickle cell comes in SOB, listless. Lo rbc, lo reticulocytes. Most likely diagnosis

A

parvovirus b19

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36
Q

Lady with bronchiectasis known to be colonised with fully sensitive Pseudomonas aeruginosa, what antimicrobial should be used

A

ceftazidine

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37
Q

Guy with a right lobe liver abscess, well rounded and ?hypoechogenic. Most likely causative organism

A

entamoeba hystolytica

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38
Q

Tx for malignant melanoma

A

nivolumab

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39
Q

What drug would be given to a patient with CLL with p53 deletion

A

ibrutinib

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40
Q

Most likely complication of multiple pulmonary thromboemboli

A

pulmonary infarcts

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41
Q

constrictive cardiomyopathy cause

A

pericarditis, amyloidosis

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42
Q

Cortical veins in the brain, which type of haemorrhage does it cause

A

subdural

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43
Q

foxp3 mutation affects what cells

A

t reg

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44
Q

Crohn’s treatment (monoclonal antibody) after no response to steroids and 5-ASA

A

vedolizumab

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45
Q

Question about ulcerative colitis and having used aminosalicylates but without any improvement. What is the next choice of drug

A

tocilizumab

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46
Q

pathological term for a discontinuation in the epithelial surface

A

ulcer

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47
Q

ovarian tumor containing signet ring cells

A

krukenbergs

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48
Q

A 37 year-old man presents with a headache, myalgia and a cough. He is also suffering with nausea, diarrhoea and abdominal pain. On examination he is tachypnoeic and has a pyrexia of 39ºC. Blood tests reveal lymphopenia and hyponatraemia. A gram stain from the patient’s sputum is shown here (Gram negative rods). CXR shows lobar consolidation. Cold agglutinins are negative. What is the organism?

A

legionella pnuemonia

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49
Q

A 40 year-old woman presents with malaise, muscular pains and diarrhoea with mucus and blood. On examination she has a fever and several distinctive spots on her abdomen (Rose spots). Blood cultures are positive and grow gram negative rods. What is the likely organism?

A

thyphoid fever

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50
Q

Which tumour is caused by Human Herpes virus 8

A

kaposis sarcoma

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51
Q

GS ix for coealiac

A

duodenal biopsy

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52
Q

A 4 year old girl presents to the A&E with a recurrent chest infection that will not clear. On examination, the house officer notices that she has low set ears, a cleft palate and a murmur. Investigations reveal:

Calcium 1.9 mM (NR 2.2 to 2.6); Phosphate 1.4 mM (NR 0.8 to 1.4)

PTH 1.1 pM (NR 1.1 to 6.8)

A

Di George syndrome

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53
Q

A 51-year old man is having investigations for palliative surgery due to gastric adenocarcinoma. He is found to be anaemic, with high a reticulocyte count and fragmented red blood cells on blood smear. What is this anaemia known as

A

micro angiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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54
Q

A patient presents with weakness and is found to have a potassium of 2.4mM (NR 3.5 to 5.0). What is the likely acid-base abnormality if you check the patients arterial blood gas?

A

metabolic alkalosis

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55
Q

what acid base abnormality does hypokalemia cause

A

alkalosis

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56
Q

Name the drug used for patients with type 2 diabetes which inhibits the enzyme alpha glucosidase in the brush border membrane of the small bowel

A

acarbose

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57
Q

Name an example of a drug that inhibits the enzyme dipeptidyl dipeptidase IV (DPP-4)

A

gliptins eg sitagliptin

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58
Q

whats done to blood donations to reduce GvHD

A

irradiation

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59
Q

eczematous nipple rash caused by individual malignant cells

A

pagets disease of the breast

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60
Q

cat scratch disease

A

bartonella henselae

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61
Q

ziehl neelson stain

A

blue background with purple rods

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62
Q

which valve has 2 leaflets and which has 3

A

only the bicuspid/mitral has 2 leaflets (left side of heart)

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63
Q

what cancer is associated with coeliacs

A

eatl= enteropathy associated t cell lymphoma

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64
Q

what are eatl vs malt lymphoma associated with

A

eatl= enteropathy associated t cell lymohoma
malt lymphoma= chronic h pylori

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65
Q

whats the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones

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66
Q

what cancer do you see increased calcitonin

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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67
Q

medullary thyroid cancer secretes what hormone

A

calcitonin

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68
Q

most common type of thyroid cancer to metastasise to lymph node

A

papillary

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69
Q

what viruses are screened for when giving transfusions to pregnant women

A

HIV
HBV
CMV

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70
Q

what cell does cart t cell therapy against cd19 target

A

b cells

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71
Q

if you have contact with someone with TB whats your risk of getting active TB

A

10%

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72
Q

what haemorrhage has a lucid interval

A

extradural

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73
Q

HTLV1 virus is associated with what cancer

A

adult T cell

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74
Q

salmonella typhi abx

A

ceftriaxone

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75
Q

what change in the liver do patients with diabetes get

A

fatty liver

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76
Q

imatinib is used in what leukaemia

A

chronic myeloid

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77
Q

someone with blood group a what naturally occuring antibodies will they have

A

anti b

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78
Q

someone with blood group ab what naturally occuring antibodies will they have

A

none

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79
Q

someone with blood group o what naturally occuring antibodies will they have

A

anti a
anti b

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80
Q

someone with blood group ab what naturally occuring antigens will they have

A

a and b

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81
Q

someone with blood group o what naturally occuring antigens will they have

A

none

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82
Q

in sickle cell disease why is there no splenic sequestration until 3 months

A

foetal hb present

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83
Q

in barrets oesophagus intestinal metaplasia is due to presence of what cell

A

goblet

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84
Q

most common cause of hypercalcaemia in the community

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

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85
Q

what hormone is produced by fat cells and has receptors in the hypothalamus

A

leptin

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86
Q

dihydrorhodamine test lack of oxidation

A

CGD

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87
Q

mutation of cd40 ligand is associated with what primary immunodeficiency

A

hyper igm

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88
Q

what class of antibodies has concentration dependant killing

A

aminoglycosides

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89
Q

which human herpes virus is associated with post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

A

CMV

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90
Q

CT scan halo sign

A

aspergillus

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91
Q

bleeding patient has prolonged APTT and PT, but normal platelet count and normal fibrinogen. What is the most suitable blood component for treatment

A

fresh frozen plasma

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92
Q

what clotting factor decreases in pregnancy

A

protein s

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93
Q

whats the commonest glial cell in CNS

A

astrocytes

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94
Q

most common skin cancer

A

BCC

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95
Q

young person with obstructive jaundice most common cause

A

gallstones

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96
Q

in a histology slide showing antibody mediated rejection of a renal allograft, where is the inflammatory infiltrate seen

A

capillaries

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97
Q

what is a mixed pattern auto-inflammatory auto-immune disease characterised by sacroiliac joint inflammation

A

ankylosing spondylitis

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98
Q

standard immunosuppressive regimen for patients who received an allograft

A

mycophenolate mofetil
tacrolimus
prednisolone

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99
Q

what type of hypersensitivity can you do plasmapheresis

A

2 eg goodpastures

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100
Q

what bone lesions do you get in multiple myeloma

A

osteolytic lesions

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101
Q

what does alcohol consumption cause a rise in

A

HDL

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102
Q

non functioning pituitary adenoma

A

is a rise in prolactin only

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103
Q

prolactinoma is

A

high prolactin

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104
Q

conjugate vaccines are for what organisms

A

encapsulated

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105
Q

are men or women more likely to get VTE

A

men

106
Q

what falls when starting warfarin

A

factor 7
protein c

107
Q

clopidogrel monitoring

A

no monitoring

108
Q

does LMWH usually require monitorinfg

A

no

109
Q

person who had a DVT many years ago (or recurrent DVTs), presents with recurrent dark bruising, and swelling over the course of 5 years, and now had pain in their leg. What is the possible cause

A

chronic venous insufficiency

110
Q

whats the worst b cell NHL prognosis

A

burkitts

111
Q

what does hypogranular, hypolobated neutrophils signify

A

CML

112
Q

when do you see hypersegmented neutrophils

A

b12

113
Q

if you have low kappa ratio and no band on electrophoresis what do you have

A

AL amyloidosis

114
Q

which amyloidosis is primary

A

AL

115
Q

Elderly woman has fever and productive cough in GP. She has pleural rub. Spleen is not palpable, no lymphadenopathy. Her WBC is 15x10^9 with neutrophilia. The Hb concentration is slightly low and platelet count is normal. Blood film - toxic granulation, left shift. CRP is high. What is the diagnosis?
a. AML
b. Aplastic anaemia
c. CML
d. Infectious mononucleosis e. Reactive neutrophilia

A

reactive neutrophilia

116
Q

what is stage 3 ann arbor hodgkins lymphoma

A

both sides of the diaphragm but no extra nodal involvement

NOTE: the spleen is nodal

117
Q

Patients with IgM paraprotein and visual disturbances

A

waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia

118
Q

other name for waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia

A

lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

119
Q

what blood group plasma should be used when someone needs an emergency transfusion

A

AB

120
Q

transfusion level for platelets after trauma

A

<10bn

121
Q

if someone has macrocytic anaemia and coeliacs what is the macrocytic anaemia due to

A

folate deficiency

122
Q

where is iron absorbed

A

jejunum

123
Q

b12 absorbed in

A

terminal ileum

124
Q

whats the test for hereditary spherocytosis

A

eosin 5 malemide

125
Q

if a baby is born and has haemolytic disease what is this due to

A

ABO incompatibility

because if it was rhesus disease the baby would not survive and be born the pregnancy would end in uetro

126
Q

whats the mechanism of allograft rejection hyperacute vs acute

A

hyperacute: HLA mismatch or ABO

acute: T cell mediated

127
Q

what cells have foxp3

A

t reg

128
Q

what cytokine promotes eosinophil maturation

A

IL5

129
Q

what cell does HIV target

A

cd4+

130
Q

what gene for brutons agama

A

BTK

131
Q

what cell deficient in digeorge

A

t cell

132
Q

t cells low b cells normal what immunodeficiency

A

SCID

133
Q

what cell affected in IPEX

A

t reg

134
Q

common gamma chain mutation what immunodeficiency

A

SCID

135
Q

what cytokine can be targeted in ank spond

A

tnf alpha

136
Q

failure to regulate cryopyrin driven activation of neutrophils is characteristic of

A

familial mediterannean fever

137
Q

what type of hypersensitivity causes serum sickness

A

3

138
Q

what cytokine is needed for eosinophil differentiation

A

IL5

139
Q

hot t bone steak

A

hot= il1= fever
t=il2=tcells
bone=il3=bone marrow
st
e=il4=IgE and b cells
a=il5=IgA and eosinophils
k=il6= akute phase reaction

140
Q

What immune cell detects MHC1 and kills virus infected/cancerous cells and is inhibited by MHC1

A

NK cell

141
Q

what gene is mutated in hyper IgM

A

cd40

142
Q

IPEX affects what cell

A

t reg

143
Q

what allergy is it when you can eat cooked fruits but not fresh

A

oral allergy syndrome

144
Q

what is c1 inhibitor deficiency

A

hereditary angioedema

145
Q

what cells infiltrate the parotid in sjogrens

A

lymphocytes

146
Q

what can you target in ankylosing spondylitis after you try nsaid and tnf alpha

A

Il17 (teenage boy is 17 gets ank spond)

147
Q

in what autoimmune condition is the Fas pathway involved

A

ALPs

148
Q

16yoF has pleuritic chest pain, joint pain positive ANA and Anti-SM, no liver enzyme derangement, raised ESR. Dx

A

SLE

149
Q

Woman who has mouth/lip swelling following a dental procedure, and her mother reports a similar hx in the past

A

c1 inhibitor deficiency- hereditary angioedema

150
Q

what is etanercept

A

anti tnf alpha

151
Q

monoclonal antibodies that are involved in t cell checkpoints

A

ipilimumab, nivolumab, pembrolizumab

152
Q

In a histology slide showing cell mediated rejection of a renal allograft, where is the inflammatory infiltrate seen

A

interstitium

153
Q

mechanism of hyperacute transplant rejection

A

preformed antibodies activate complement

154
Q

mechanism of acute cellular transplant rejection

A

type 4 reaction, cd4+ cells activated

155
Q

mechanism of acute antibody mediated transplant rejection

A

b cells activated and make antibodies

156
Q

mechanism of gvhd

A

donor cells attack host

157
Q

how does cushings affect sodium and potassium

A

high sodium
low potassium

158
Q

Publican with diabetes, fatty stools, weight loss, ‘slate grey skin’ and joint pains.
What is the underlying diagnosis causing this?

A

haemochromatosis

159
Q

What cells does Nivolumab (PD1 Inhibitor) target

A

t reg cells

160
Q

subdural haemorrhage vessels

A

bridging veins

161
Q

PKD cerebral bleed type

A

SAH

162
Q

cerebellar tumor in child type

A

medulloblastoma

163
Q

what comes first out of metaplasia and dysplasia

A

metaplasia

164
Q

What is the most common histological type of oesophageal cancer in the UK

A

SCC

165
Q

what happens to body of stomach in pernicious anaemia

A

atrophy

166
Q

White plaques are seen lining the oesophagus on an OGD of an alcoholic man
with recurrent bleeding varices, what are they most likely to be

A

candida oesophagitis

167
Q

what organism causes lung cancer in fungus exposure

A

alfa toxin
made by aspergillus

168
Q

AMA antibody

A

PBC

169
Q

inheritance of alpha 1 antitripsin

A

autosomal dominant

170
Q

Histopathological change that occurs to liver in patients with diabetes

A

NAFLD

171
Q

Pt with pancreatic mass following acute pancreatitis. Dx?

A

pseudocyst

172
Q

Pt w. Hx of severe abdominal pain, during cholecystectomy the surgeons noticed
grey specks around and on the pancreas. Dx?

A

necrosis

173
Q

What cancer is associated with Crohn’s Disease

A

colorectal adenocarcinoma

174
Q

A plain chest X-ray of a 47 year old male reveals a 2.5 cm “coin lesion” in the
upper lobe of his left lung. The lesion is removed. The pathology report describes
Pathology PPQs 76
a clear cell carcinoma. What is the most likely primary site of origin for this
carcinoma?

A

kidney
cannon ball metst

175
Q

type of cells in renal cell carcinoma

A

canon ball mets

176
Q

Pulmonary oedema due to liver disease is an example of which type of cause of
pulmonary oedema

A

increased hydrostatic pressure

oncotic is ascites

177
Q

Breast Fibro-epithelial tumour with abundant stromal elements

A

phyllodes

178
Q

Healing of an acute myocardial infarction follows an ordered sequence of events.
Rank the following events in chronological order starting from earliest (1) to latest
(5)
a. Flocculent densities form within mitochondria
b. Macrophages begin to arrive at the area of coagulative necrosis
c. Collagen is deposited, forming a fibrous scar
d. Neutrophils begin to arrive at the area of coagulative necrosis
e. Granulation tissue begins to form

A

d b e a c

179
Q

whats the most common cause of mitral stenossi

A

rheumatic fever

180
Q

what shunt in TOF

A

right to left (same as eisenmengers)

181
Q

what cause htn in upper half of body

A

coarctation of aorta

182
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults that is a
glomerular pathology

A

membranous

183
Q

20 year old with a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of his leg, pain alleviated by
aspirin. Dx?

A

ewings sarcoma

184
Q

Which thyroid cancer most commonly metastasises to the lymph nodes?

A

papillary

185
Q

whats the most common kind of thyroid cancer

A

follicular

186
Q

What infection is associated with P1104A variant of the TYK2

A

TB

187
Q

A woman presents with a 4 month history of weight loss, hamoptysis and night sweats. CXR shows an upper lobe cavitation mass and there are hard palpable lymph nodes superclavicularly. What type of sideroom would you place her in.

A

negative pressure

188
Q

Patient has been admitted with severe influenza A pneumonia and is intubated in ITU. Given that she can’t have any oral medication, what is the most appropriate antiviral to start?

A

olsetamivir

189
Q

low potassium causes what acid base imbalance

A

alkalosis

190
Q

What can be done to prevent overwhelming bacterial sepsis in a sickle cell patient with Howell-jolly bodies on blood film. Name one of the two possible medical interventions

A

daily penicillin V
pneumococcal vaccine

191
Q

reasons for in surgery abx

A

bleeding
prolonged (>4hrs)

192
Q

What condition predisposes people to cholangiocarcinoma most in the UK

A

PSC

193
Q

Patient with myeloma, with high urea and creatinine - what is most likely cause of renal failure

A

cast nephropathy

194
Q

A patient presents with breathlessness, bibasal lung craps, raised JVP and bilateral pitting oedema. He has a pastmedical history of treated refractory myeloma. On heart ausuclatation you hear a loud heart sound. Bloods show proBNP in 400s, electrolytes normal, urine 24h sodium 7g. Light chains and IgG levels were low (below reference range). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

constrictive pericarditis

195
Q

Diabetic patient recently started ACEi/ARB, now has high creatinine and urea. What is the underlying cause? (repeat)

A

renal artery stenosis

196
Q

Which vaccine preventable infection causes coryzal symptoms, a grey coating on the back of the throat followed by swallowing/breathing problems? (REPEAT)

A

Diptheria

197
Q

Which vaccine preventable disease presents initially with mild fever, swollen neck glands, anorexia, malaise and cough. After 2-3 days a membrane of dead cells forms in the throat, tonsils, larynx or nose which may narrow or occlude the airway leading to respiratory distress? (repeat)

A

diptheria

198
Q

inheritance of APCKD

A

autosomal dominant

199
Q

What causes low calcium in CKD

A

increased tubular loss of ca

200
Q

What condition is IL-17 (secukinumab) used for

A

psoriasis

201
Q

What infections other than HIV are routinely screened for in blood products

A

HTLV1

202
Q

young person with CJD what type is it

A

variant

203
Q

most common type of CJD

A

sporadic

204
Q

Patient with high calcium, back pain, very low kappa/lambda ratio, no serum protein. History of difficulty micturating. PTH was low, phosphate normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

bony mets

205
Q

Patient has knee/bone/joint abscess drained. Shows gram positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative organism?

A

staph aureus

206
Q

What is the most likely finding in coeliac disease?
a. Increased epithelial T lymphocytes
b. Increased epithelial B lymphocytes
c. Increased epithelial neutrophils
d. Increased epithelial macrophages

A

a

207
Q

most common receptor presentation in breast cancer

A

triple positive

208
Q

2cm pituitary mass. Prolactin level: 1400 (REPEAT). What’s the diagnosis?
a. Non functional macro pituitary adenoma
b. Prolactinoma

A

prolactinoma

209
Q

Which drug do you give patients with pseudomonas infection?
a. Ceftazidime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Cefotaxime
d. Cefalexin

A

ceftazidime

210
Q

What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency in the developed world

A

autoimmune

211
Q

CAR-T cell against CD19 can be used in the treatment of what disease? (Repeat?)
a. T-cell Lymphoma
b. Another T-cell lymphoma
c. AML
d. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

A

d and ALL

212
Q

Mom has ITP and gives birth to a healthy baby. What do you measure/ monitor in the baby once born? (repeat)
a. One time cord FBC
b. One time cord bilirubin (?)
c. Five days FBC
d. Five days bilirubin
e. Perform DAT

A

e its autoimmune

213
Q

What is the likely cause of a ward sister who gets diarrhoea after an outbreak on
the ward?

A

norovirus

214
Q

cocci in clusters

A

ANY staphylococcus

215
Q

A 69 year old man presents with a red, hot swollen knee. He has type 2 diabetes
mellitus and osteoarthritis but it is a native joint. In this case of septic arthritis,
rank the causative organisms below in order of likelihood, with (1) being the most
likely and (5) being the least likely.
a. Brucella melitensis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

d, c, b, e a

216
Q

Woman has hot, swollen and painful left knee. Gram stain of joint aspirate - gram
+ve cocci in clusters. Patient has no drug allergies and MRSA screen is -ve.
What narrow spectrum antibiotic is indicated?

A

fluclox

217
Q

more specific amox or fluclox

A

fluclox

218
Q

Rank the following causative organisms for Osteomyeltis from least to most likely
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp

A

c d a b

219
Q

Rank the following causative organisms for Septic arthritis from least likely to
most likely
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.

A

c d a b

220
Q

Rank the following causative organisms for a Surgical Site infection from most to
least likely?
a. E. coli
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.

A

c a b d

221
Q

Rank the following causative organisms for Prosthetic joint infection
a. E. coli
b. Staph epidermis
c. Staph aureus
d. Strep spp.

A

b c d a

222
Q

most common cause of HAP

A

enterbacteriaciae
staph aureus

223
Q

crabapenam how broad spec

A

a lot
more than pip taz

224
Q

Which class of antibiotics has concentration dependent killing (i.e. the goal of
therapy is to maximise peak > MIC)

A

aminoglycosides

225
Q

Which antibiotics would be used for a young woman with cystitis and full
sensitive E. coli

A

trimethoprim

226
Q

what abx class is dna synth inhibitor

A

fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin)

227
Q

Which of the following antivirals is used for Child with comorbidities and RSV
treatment?
a. Aciclovir
b. Ganciclovir
c. Oseltamivir
d. Ribavirin

A

ribivarin

228
Q

Which would be the most useful test in confirming acute EBV infection 2 weeks
after possible exposure in an immunocompetent patient?
Pathology PPQs 105
a. EBV IgM
b. EBV IgG
c. EBV PCR
d. Viral Culture
e. heterophile test

A

e
its GS

229
Q

most common cause of fever in returning traveller

A

malaria

230
Q

Virus that resides in pharynx and GIT - 1:100 encephalitis. 1:1000 destruction of
motor neurones
a. Diptheria
Pathology PPQs 110
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Polio
e. Tetanus

A

polio

231
Q
  1. Lockjaw is a Sx
    a. Diptheria
    b. Measles
    c. Mumps
    d. Polio
    e. Tetanus
A

e

232
Q

tetanus causative organism

A

clostridium tetani

233
Q

which syphilis tests are non treponemal

A

VDRL and RPR

234
Q

non treponemal vs treponemal in acute syphillis

A

non treponemal

235
Q

when to use treponemal over non treponemal

A

treponemal

236
Q

which syphilis tests are treponemal

A

EIA
FTA

(assays)

237
Q

smear cells

A

CLL

238
Q

what do you see in myelodysplasia

A

myeloids immature

eg hyposegmented neutrophil

239
Q

ann arbor 1/2/3/4

A

1=one group of LN (can include spleen)
2= two or more LN groups same side of diaphragm
3= two or more LN diff sides of diaphragm
4= extra nodal

240
Q

in hogdkins lymphoma the spleen counts as

A

one group of lymph nodes

241
Q

when do you get tear drop poikilocytes

A

any infiltration of the bone marrow, can be bony mets or myelofibrosis

242
Q

what is a side effect of carbimazole

A

agranulocytosis

243
Q

what liver enzyme suggests obstructive jaundice

A

GGT

244
Q

describe the acid base imbalance in aspirin OD

A

transient respiratory alkalosis which turns into a metabolic acidosis

245
Q

what cytokine is targeted first in ankylosing spondylitis

A

tnf alpha

246
Q

salmonella enterides vs typhi

A

enterides= diarrhoea
typhi= constipation and rose spots

247
Q

what helminth causes infection through open skin

A

strongyloides

248
Q

rapid test for cryptococcus pneumonia

A

cryptococcal antigen

249
Q

neonatal meningitis gram neg rod

A

e coli

250
Q

Renal transplant recipients on long term immunosuppression have an increased risk of which lymphoid cancer?
Cutaneous T cell lymphoma.
EBV associated Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma
H.Pylori associated gastric marginal zone lymphoma
HTLV1 associated Adult T cell lymphoma (ATLL)

A

DLBCL

251
Q

ANA positive conditions

A

SLE
RA
CREST
sjogrens
poly/dermatomyositis

252
Q

SLE antibodies

A

ANA
anti sm
anti ds dna

253
Q

antibodies in drug induced SLE

A

anti histone

254
Q

fluid status in SIADH

A

euvolemic

255
Q

predictive value is about what vs specificty is about what

A

predictive value= the test
specificity= the population with the condition

256
Q

in what immunodeficiency do you get increased TB infections

A

interferon gamma receptor deficiency

257
Q

how does alum work

A

enhances innate immune response

258
Q

what are the seronegative arthropathies

A

PEAR
psoriatic arthritis
enteropathic (IBD)
ank spond
reactive arthritis

259
Q

what abx used for mycoplasma

A

doxycycline

260
Q
A

Aaska's path (9 decks)

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