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Aaska's path > HISTO > Flashcards

HISTO Flashcards

1
Q

beady fibrous vegetations (verrucae)

A

acute rheumatic fever

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2
Q

aschoff bodies (small giant cell granulomas)

A

acute rheumatic fever

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3
Q

anitschkov myocytes (regenerating myocytes)

A

acute rheumatic fever

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4
Q

whirls of shed epithelium- curschmann spirals

A

asthma

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5
Q

charcot leyden crystals

A

asthma

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6
Q

AR mutation/ F508 del

A

CF

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7
Q

ground glass/honeycomb appearance of lungs on CT CAP

A

interstitial lung disease

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8
Q

interstitial pneumonitis

A

atypical pneumonia

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9
Q

rust coloured sputum in context of pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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10
Q

what are the 4 stages of lobar pneumonia

A
  1. consolidation
  2. red hepatisation-neutrophilia
  3. grey hepatisation- fibrosis
  4. resolution
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11
Q

what lung cancer is associated with paraneoplastic syndrome secreting PTHrp?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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12
Q

what lung cancer has the strongest association with smoking?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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13
Q

oat cells

A

small cell lung cancer

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14
Q

what lung cancer is associated with paraneoplastic syndrome secreting ADH (SIADH) and ACTH (cushings)?

A

small call

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15
Q

whats the most important prognostic factor in lung cancer?

A

staging

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16
Q

where does mesothelioma arise from?

A

parietal or visceral pleura

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17
Q

iron laden macrophages

A

pulmonary oedema

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18
Q

white out of lung fields

A

diffuse airway disease eg ARDS

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19
Q

signet ring cells in a ovarian tumor

A

krukenbergs tumor

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20
Q

skip lesions

A

crohns

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21
Q

cobblestone appearance

A

crohns

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22
Q

non caseating granuloma

A

sarcoidosis
crohns

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23
Q

apthous ulcer

A

crohns

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24
Q

rosethorn ulcer

A

crohns

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25
Q

caseating granuloma

A

TB

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26
Q

backwash ilietis

A

UC

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27
Q

smoking is protective

A

ovarian cancer
UC

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28
Q

pseudopolyps

A

UC

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29
Q

5-ASA

A

UC

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30
Q

name a 5-ASA

A

mesalazine

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31
Q

4 cs of c diff

A

ciprofloxacin
cephalosporins
clindamycin
coamox

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32
Q

porcelain gallbladder

A

chronic cholecystitis

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33
Q

what does liver make

A

fatty acids
amino acids
glucose
albumin
fibrinogen
clotting factors
oestrogen
glucocorticoids
bile

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34
Q

how much bile does liver make daily

A

600-1000ml

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35
Q

what does liver metabolise

A

drugs
insulin
GH
PTH

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36
Q

what does liver store

A

glycogen
vitamins ADEK some B12
folate
iron
copper

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37
Q

liver phagocytes

A

kuppfer cells

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38
Q

what cells in liver make fibrinogen?

A

stellate

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39
Q

where in liver are stellate cells found

A

space of disse

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40
Q

spotty necrosis

A

acute hepatitis

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41
Q

piecemeal necrosis

A

chronic hepatitis

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42
Q

cirrhotic liver

A

hepatocyte necrosis
fibrosis
nodular regeneration
disturbance of vascular architecture

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43
Q

haemochromotosis gene and chr

A

HFE gene
chr 6

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44
Q

wilsons gene and chr

A

ATP7B gene
chr 13

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45
Q

size of macro vs micro nodular hepatic cirrhosis

A

micro= nodules <3mm
macro= nodules >3mm

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46
Q

major causes of cirrhosis

A

alcohol liver disease
NAFLD
chronic viral hep (b and c)

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47
Q

score used for hepatic cirrhosis severity

A

child pugh

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48
Q

components of child pugh score

A

albumin
PT
encephalopathy
ascites
bilirubin

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49
Q

steatosis

A

fat droplets in heaptocytes- fatty liver

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50
Q

hepatocyte balooning

A

alcoholic hepatitis

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51
Q

mallory denk bodies

A

alcoholic hepatitis

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52
Q

micronodular cirrhosis in liver

A

alcoholic cirrhosis

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53
Q

autoimmune hepatitis cells

A

plasma cells

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54
Q

antibodies for type 1 autoimmine hep

A

ANA
anti smooth muscle

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55
Q

antibodies for type 2 autoimmine hep

A

anti LKG Ig

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56
Q

structure affected in PBC

A

intrahepatic bile ducts

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57
Q

structure affected in PSC

A

extra and intrahepatic bile ducts

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58
Q

anti mitochondrial antibodies

A

PBC

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59
Q

bile duct loss with granulomas

A

PBC

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60
Q

pANCA

A

PSC

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61
Q

PSC assoc w what condition

A

IBD

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62
Q

bile duct dilatation US

A

PSC

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63
Q

ERCP beading of bile ducts

A

PSC

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64
Q

onion skinning fibrosis

A

PSC

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65
Q

what condition increases risk of cholangiocarcinoma

A

PSC

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66
Q

inheritance pattern of haemochromatosis

A

autosomal recessive

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67
Q

inheritance pattern of wilsons

A

autosomal recessive

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68
Q

inheritance pattern of alpha 1 antitripsin

A

autosomal dominant

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69
Q

haemochromatosis stain

A

prussian blue

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70
Q

wilsons stain

A

rhodanine- copper

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71
Q

alpha 1 antitripsin stain

A

periodic acid schiff- intracytoplasmic globules of A1AT

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72
Q

kayser fleischer rings

A

wilsons

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73
Q

haemochromatosis mx

A

venesection
desferrioxamine

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74
Q

wilsons mx

A

penicillamine

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75
Q

alfatoxin B1

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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76
Q

most common liver tumor

A

secondary met

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77
Q

cholangiocarcinoma type of cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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78
Q

marker for hepatocellcular carcinoma

A

alpha fetoprotein

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79
Q

liver cancer assoc w OCP

A

benign hepatic adenoma

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80
Q

scoring system for prostate cancer

A

gleason

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81
Q

most common type of urinary stone

A

calcium oxalate

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82
Q

most common form of prostate cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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83
Q

most common renal malignancy

A

renal call carcinoma

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84
Q

frond like growths

A

renal transitional cell carcinoma

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85
Q

childhood renal tumor

A

wilms tumor/nephroblastoma

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86
Q

most common bladder tumor

A

transitional cell tumor

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87
Q

renal electron mircroscopy: loss of podocyte foot processes, immunofluoresence nothing

A

minimal change disease
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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88
Q

renal electron mircroscopy: loss of podocyte foot processes, immunofluoresence immune complex deposition all along GBM

A

membranous glomerulonephropathy

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89
Q

kimmelstiel wilson nodules

A

diabetes mellitus nephropathy

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90
Q

pancreatic tumor mx

A

whipples to resent
folfirinox chemo pall

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91
Q

portal triad

A

bile duct
hepatic artery
hepatic portal vein

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92
Q

liver enzyme raised in MI

A

aspartate aminotransferase

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93
Q

anti GBM antibodies

A

good pastures syndrome
type 1 cresenteric glomerulonephropathy
nephritic syndrome

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94
Q

wegeners granulomatosis

A

cANCA
type 3 cresenteric glomerulonephropathy
nephritic syndrome

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95
Q

microscopic polyangitis

A

pANCA
type 3 cresenteric glomerulonephropathy
nephritic syndrome

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96
Q

alport syndrome

A

type IV collagen 5 alpha chain mutation
x linked
nephritic syndrome
sensorineural deafness
eye disorders

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97
Q

organism commonly causing pyelonephritis

A

e coli

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98
Q

location of thrombi in HUS vs TTP

A

HUS= only kidneys
TTP= systemic

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99
Q

HUS traid

A

MAHA
thrombocytopenia
renal failure

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100
Q

TTP pentad

A

MAHA
thrombocytopenia
renal failure
fever
neurological sx

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101
Q

coombs test and blood film in HUS/TTP

A

coombs test negative (not autoimmune)
film= shistocytes

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102
Q

gene associated with TTP and its effect

A

ADAMTS13
usually cleaves vWF so lack of this= clots

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103
Q

illness before HUS

A

e coli diarrhoea in kids

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104
Q

renal causes of acute renal failure

A

acute tubular necrosis (most common)
acute glomerulonephritis
thrombotic microangiopathy

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105
Q

CKD GFR stages

A

5= >90
4= 60-89
3= 30-59
4= 15-29
5= <15 or on renal replacement therapy

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106
Q

most common cause of CKD in UK

A

diabetes

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107
Q

wire loop capillaries, complement deposition in lumpy bumpy granular deposits

A

lupus nephritis

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108
Q

waxy casts in urine

A

CKD

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109
Q

thick basement membrane with spike and dome appearance

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

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110
Q

inheritance pattern of benign familial haematuria

A

autosomal dominant

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111
Q

violin string peri hepatic inflammation

A

fitz hugh curtis

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112
Q

powder burns

A

endometriosis

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113
Q

chocolate cysts

A

endometriomas in endometriosis

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114
Q

uterus in adenomyosis

A

bulky and globular

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115
Q

where does endometrial tissue grow in adenomyosis

A

myometrium

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116
Q

types of fibroid

A

subserosal
submucosal
intramural

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117
Q

2 categories of endometrial cancer and how they differ

A

endometriod= oestrogen dependant
non endometriod= non oestrogen dependant

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118
Q

most common type of ovarian cancer

A

epithelial

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119
Q

ovarian cancer epithelial cells and psamomma bodies

A

epithelial benign serous cystadenoma

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120
Q

pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

appendicitis tumor that migrates to ovaries, epithelial benign mucinous cystadenoma

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121
Q

ovarian cancer tubular glands

A

epithelial malignant endometriod

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122
Q

ovarian cancer clear cells, clear glands, hobnail appearance

A

epithelial malignant clear cell

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123
Q

ovarian cancer call exner bodies

A

sex cord granulose/theca cell

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124
Q

ovarian cancer meigs syndrome

A

sex cord fibroma

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125
Q

ovarian cancer mucin producing signet ring cells

A

krukenbergs tumor

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126
Q

FIGO staging endometrial cancer

A

1= confined to uterus
2= spread to cervix
3= spread to pelvis
4= spread to bladder/bowel/distant

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127
Q

FIGO staging ovarian cancer

A

1= confined to ovary
2= confined to pelvis
3= confined to abdomen
4= mets past abdomen

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128
Q

ovarian cyst common in pregnancy

A

corpus luteal

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129
Q

most common ovarian cyst

A

follicular

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130
Q

cervix covered by what cells

A

squamous epitheium

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131
Q

endocervical canal covered by what cells

A

columnar epithelium

132
Q

area in cervix where squamous epithelial cells transform to columnar

A

transformational zone

133
Q

what separates squamous epithelium area from columnar on cervix

A

squamo-columnar junction (SCJ)

134
Q

how does HPV cause cancer

A

encodes e6 and e7 which inactivate tumor supressor genes
e6= inactivates p53
e7= inactivates rb (retinobalstoma)

135
Q

FIGO staging cervical cancer

A

0=CIN
1=only cervix
2=upper 1/3 vagina
3= lower 1/3 vagina/ pelvic side wall
4= mets beyond pelvis

136
Q

breast cytology c1-c5

A

1= inadequate
2= benign
3= atypia
4= risk of malignancy
5= malignant

137
Q

how is cytology vs histology obtained for breast assessment

A

cytology= fine needle aspiration
histology= core biopsy

138
Q

breast histology B5a vs B5b

A

B5a= DCIS
B5b= invasive carcinoma

139
Q

abundance of neutrophils breast inflammation

A

mastitis

140
Q

giant cells, histiocytes, empty fat spaces, painless breast inflammation

A

fat necrosis

141
Q

mobile breast mouse lump

A

fibroadenoma

142
Q

breast lump with discharge and inflammation/abscess

A

duct ectasia

143
Q

nipple discharge has proteinaceous material and macrophages

A

duct ectasia

144
Q

breast papillary mass in a dilated duct lined by epithelium

A

intraductal papilloma

145
Q

breast central fibrous stellate area

A

radial scar

146
Q

breast branching leaf like fronds, artichoke appearance

A

phyllodes tumor

147
Q

breast dilated large ducts that may be calcified

A

fibrocystic disease

148
Q

breast screening programme

A

47-73 yrs old every 3 yrs

149
Q

breast big pleiomorphic cells

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

150
Q

invasive breast carcinomas

A

ductal
tubal
lobular
mucin producing

151
Q

breast cancer grading categories

A

nuclear pleomorphism
tubular formation
mitotic activity

152
Q

breast cancer grading scores

A

grade 1= well differentiated <5/9
grade 2= moderately differentiated 6-7/9
grade 3= poorly differentiated 8-9/9

153
Q

ER/PR +ve breast cancer is responsive to and prognosis is

A

responds to tamoxifen
good prognosis

154
Q

most important breast cancer prognostic factor

A

spread to axillary lymph nodes

155
Q

ER/PR +ve HER2 -ve mx with

A

tamoxifen

156
Q

ER/PR -ve HER2 +ve mx with

A

herceptin

157
Q

tamoxifen moa

A

oestrogen agonist and antagonist mixed

158
Q

herceptin moa

A

monoclonal antibofy to HER2

159
Q

commonest blood vessel affected in stroke

A

MCA

160
Q

common site of intraparenchymal haemorrhage

A

basal ganglia

161
Q

hyperattenuation around circle of willis

A

SAH

162
Q

lemon shaped head haemorrhage

A

extradural

163
Q

banana shaped head haemorrhage

A

subdural

164
Q

most common vessel affected in extradural haemorrhage

A

middle meningeal artery

165
Q

straw coloured fluid in CSF and battles sign

A

skull fracture

166
Q

commonest cause of coma

A

diffuse axonal injury

167
Q

brain tumor fried egg appearance cell origin

A

oligodendrocytes

168
Q

brain tumor ventricular, hydrocephalus cell origin

A

ependyma

169
Q

imaging for brain tumors

A

MRI

170
Q

what lobe does HSV encephalitis affect

A

temporal

171
Q

dementia definition

A

global impairment of cognitive function and personality without altered level of consciousness beyond what is expected of normal aging

172
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognise

173
Q

aphasia

A

language disorder (recepetive or expressive)

174
Q

apraxia

A

inability to carry out tasks

175
Q

alzheimers histology

A

senile plaques of beta amyloid
tau protein neurofibrillary tangles

176
Q

dementias most to least common

A

alzheimers
vascular
lewy body
frontotemporal

177
Q

lobes of brain most affected in alzheimers

A

frontal and temporal

178
Q

frontotemporal dementia other name

A

picks disease

179
Q

frontotemporal dementia histology

A

pick bodies= hyperphosphorylated tau

180
Q

frontotemporal dementia mutation

A

hypogranulin gene

181
Q

protein mutated in parkinsons

A

alpha synuclein

182
Q

protein affected in lewy body dementia

A

alpha synuclein

183
Q

parkinsons cardinal signs

A

TRAP
tremore
rigidity
akinesia
postural instability

184
Q

cannibalism prion disease

A

kuru

185
Q

rapid <1yr decline prion disease

A

creutzfeldt jakobs

186
Q

prion disease brain histology

A

spongiform changes
prion protein deposition

187
Q

what condition do bone changes in secondary hyperparathyroidism mimic

A

osteitis fibrosa cystica

188
Q

condition synonymous with osteomalacia

A

rickets

189
Q

loosers zones

A

osteomalacia

190
Q

browns tumors

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

191
Q

salt and pepper skull

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

192
Q

calcium, phosphate, ALP level in osteomalacia

A

calcium normal
phosphate low
ALP high

193
Q

huge osteoclasts w mosaic pattern on histology

A

pagets disease

194
Q

osteoporosis circumscripta/ cotton wool skull

A

pagets disease

195
Q

picture frame ivory vertebrae

A

pagets disease

196
Q

slcerosis and lucency of pelvis

A

pagets disease

197
Q

high Ca high PTH condition vs
low Ca high PTH condition

A

high ca high pth= primary hyperparathyroidism
low ca high PTH= renal osteodystrophy (secondary hyperparathyroidism with inability to increase calcium)

198
Q

gout crystals

A

urate
needle shaped
negatively birefringent (needles looks like -)

199
Q

pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate
rhomboid shaped
positively birefringent

200
Q

rat bite erosions

A

gout

201
Q

white lines of chondrocalcinosis

A

pseudogout

202
Q

adult osteomyelitis organism

A

staph aureus

203
Q

child osteomyelitis organism

A

HIB
GBS

204
Q

sickle cell osteomyelitis organism

A

salmonella

205
Q

immunocompromised osteomyelitis organism

A

TB

206
Q

congenital osteomyelitis organism

A

syphyllis

207
Q

x ray changes osteomyelitis

A

early= periosteal bone formation
after 10 days= lytic bone destruction

208
Q

heberdeens and bouchards nodes

A

osteoarthritis

209
Q

herdeens and bouchards nodes affect which joints

A

heberdeens=DIPJ
bouchards=PIPJ

210
Q

osteoarthritis x ray

A

LOSS
loss of joint space
osteophytes
subchondral sclerosis
subchondral cysts

211
Q

what joint is spared in rheumatoid arthritis

A

DIPJ

212
Q

swan neck and boutonnieres deformity joints flexed/extended

A

swan neck= hyperextension of PIPJ and hyperflexion of DIPJ
boutonnieres= flexion of PIPJ and extension of DIPJ

213
Q

features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

z thumb
radial deviation of wrist
ulnar deviation of fingers
heberdeen and boutonnieres nodules

214
Q

histopathology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

thickening and proliferation of synovial membrane

215
Q

antibodies for rheumatoid arthritis

A

anti RF
anti CCP (more accurate)

216
Q

gout mx

A

colchicine
allopurinol long term

217
Q

pseudogout mx

A

NSAIDs or intra articular steroids

218
Q

osteoarthritis joint

A

hips
knees
vertebrae

219
Q

acute periosteal reaction- codmans triangle, onion skin, sunburst

A

malignant bone disease

220
Q

malignant cells in osetosarcoma

A

mesenchymal cells

221
Q

fluffy calcification of bone

A

chondrosarcoma

222
Q

kids vs adult bone cancer

A

kids= osteosarcoma
adults= chondrosarcoma

223
Q

onion skinning of periosteum

A

ewings sarcoma

224
Q

sheets of small round cells bone cancer

A

ewings sarcoma

225
Q

central nidus, sclerotic rim, bullseye

A

osteiod osteoma

226
Q

cotton wool and popcorn calcification

A

enchondroma

227
Q

most common benign bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

228
Q

mushroom bony outgrowth

A

osteochondroma

229
Q

soap bubble osteolysis
shepherds crook deformity

A

fibrous dysplasia

230
Q

mccune albright sydnrome

A

bone dysplasia
cafe au lait spots
precocious puberty

231
Q

layers of skin +pneumonic

A

come lets get some beers
corneum
lucindun
granulosum
spinosum
basale

232
Q

seborrhoeic dermatitis pathogen involved

A

yeast
malasezzia furfur

233
Q

atopic dermatitis children vs adults

A

children= extensor, face, trunk
older= flexural

234
Q

atopic dermatitis is a type x hypersensitivity reaction

A

IV

235
Q

parakeratosis

A

psoriasis

236
Q

munroes micoabscesses

A

psoriasis

237
Q

test tubes in a rack

A

psoriasis

238
Q

psoriasis is a type x hypersensitivity reaction with x cell involvement

A

IV
T

239
Q

ausptiz sign

A

psoriasis
rubbing plauqes causes bleeding

240
Q

most common type of psoriasis

A

chronic plaque psoriasis

241
Q

arthritis mutilans (telescoping)

A

psoriasis

242
Q

guttate psoriasis preceeded by

A

group A strep infection

243
Q

emergency type psoriasis

A

pustular

244
Q

wickhams striae

A

lichen planus

245
Q

rash in inside of wrist

A

lichen planus

246
Q

hyperkeratinosis with saw toothing of rete ridges

A

lichen planus

247
Q

civette bodies

A

lichen planus

248
Q

nikolsky sign positive

A

steven johnsons syndrome
toxic epidermal necrosis

249
Q

bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigoid vulgaris

A

bullous pemphigoid= subepidermal bullae, linear deposition of IgG
pemphigoid vulgaris= intraepidermal bullae, intracellular IgG deposits

250
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with which immunoglobulin

A

IgA

251
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with which condition

A

coeliacs

252
Q

hemisdesmosomes

A

bullous pemphigoid

253
Q

what condition precedes malignant squamous cell carcinoma

A

bowens disease
doesnt cross basement membrane
red and scaly in sun exposed areas

254
Q

rodent ulcer

A

basal cell carcinoma

255
Q

buckshot appearance

A

melanocytic carcinoma

256
Q

most common melanocytic carcinoma

A

superficial spreading

257
Q

best prognostic factor for melanocytic carcinoma

A

breslow thickness

258
Q

herald patch salmon pink rash, spread in christmas tree distribution

A

pityriasis rosa

259
Q

what type of cells comprise a granuloma

A

macrophages

260
Q

SLE is a type x hypersensitivity reaction

A

3

261
Q

SLE gene

A

HLA BR3

262
Q

SLE antibodies

A

ANA +ve
anti sm
anti dsDNA
anti histone

263
Q

wire loop capillaries

A

SLE

264
Q

diagnostic criteria for SLE

A

SOAP BRAIN MD
serositis
oral ulcer
arthritis
photosensitivity
blood disorders
renal impairment
ANA+ve
immune: anti sm/dsDNA/histone
neuro sx
malar rash
discoid rash

265
Q

scleroderma gene

A

HLA BR5

266
Q

limited scleroderma other name

A

CREST

267
Q

CREST antibody

A

anti centromere

268
Q

diffuse scleroderma antibody

A

anti scl 70
aka anti topoisomerase II

269
Q

onion skin thickening of arterioles

A

CREST

270
Q

CREST features

A

distal skin involvement only (CREST):
calcinosis
raynauds
eosophageal dysmotility
sclerodactyly
telangiectasia

271
Q

poly/dermatomyositis antibody

A

anti jo1

272
Q

polymyositis assoc cancer

A

ovarian
pancreatic
NHL

273
Q

dermatomyositis assoc cancer

A

lung
bladder NHL

274
Q

heliotrope rash
grottons papules

A

dermatomyositis

275
Q

pulseless vasculitide

A

takayasus arteritis

276
Q

temporal arteritis mx

A

prednisolone immediately

277
Q

string of pearls/ rose beads on angiography vasculitide

A

polyarteritis nodosa

278
Q

corckscrew appearance angiogram vasculitis

A

beurgers disease

279
Q

vasculitide common in smokers

A

beurgers disease

280
Q

granulomatosis with polyangitis triad

A

1= lower resp tract sx= pulmonary haemorrhage
2= upper resp tract sx= saddle nose
3= kidneys= cresenteric glomerulonephritis

281
Q

apple green birifringence with congo red stain under polarised light

A

amyloidosis

282
Q

schaumann and asteroid bodies

A

sarcoidosis

283
Q

what is raised in bloods in sarcoidosis

A

calcium
ACE

284
Q

sarcoidosis mx

A

steroids

285
Q

rhodamine auramine stain

A

bright yellow +ve for TB

286
Q

rhodadine stain

A

+ve for copper Wilsons disease
golden brown against blue counterstain

287
Q

ziehl neelson

A

+ve for acid fast bacilli TB

288
Q

modified kinyoung acid fast stain

A

+ve for cryptosproridium parvum

289
Q

prussian blue stain

A

+ve for haemochromatosis

290
Q

fontana stain

A

+ve for melanin in melanoma

291
Q

gomories methanamine stain

A

flying saucer shaped cysts in pneumocystic jirovecci

292
Q

giemsa stain

A

cytoplasmic inclusions in chlamydia psitacci

293
Q

fite stain

A

+ve for mycobacterium leprae

294
Q

cytokeratin

A

+ve for epithelial cells in carcinoma

295
Q

perls stain

A

+ve for iron in haemochromatosis

296
Q

CD45 stain

A

+ve for lymphocytes

297
Q

india ink stain

A

yeast cells surrounded by halos in cryptococcus neoformans

298
Q

what enzyme raised x10 suggests viral hep

A

alkaline aminotransferase

299
Q

pancreatic cancer marker

A

carbohydrate antigen 19-9

300
Q

caricinoid syndrome is caused by increase in what neurotransmitter

A

serotonin

301
Q

oat cells in what cancer

A

SCLC

302
Q

delta cells in pancreas produce what

A

somatostatin

303
Q

stain for haemochromatosis

A

prussian blue

304
Q

prostate cancer chemo drug

A

docetaxel

305
Q

anti mitochondrial antibody and raised alp

A

primary biliary cholangitis

306
Q

wilsons disease mx

A

zinc
trietine

307
Q

what liver enzyme is raised in obstructive jaundice

A

alkaline phosphatase

308
Q

common type of bladder cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma

309
Q

e coli strain causing HUS in kids who played with farm animals

A

0157:H7

310
Q

cancer stain

A

haemotoxylin and eosin

311
Q

lft for hepatic ischaemia

A

alanine aminotransferase

312
Q

rhabomyolysis protein found

A

myoglobin

313
Q

nail sign graves disease

A

thyroid acropachy

314
Q

muddy brown casts in urine

A

acute tubular necrosis

315
Q

copd is comprised of

A

emphysema
chronic bronchitis

316
Q

SCLC paraneoplastic syndrome

A

SIADH

317
Q

most common breast cancer

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

318
Q

waxy casts in urine

A

CKD

319
Q

thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, scarring, and antibody complex and complement deposits

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

320
Q

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is associated with what condition

A

t2dm

321
Q

features of IgA nephropathy

A

viral infection (sore throat)
coca cola coloured urine
non blanching rash on legs
nephritic syndrome

322
Q

in a uti density on ct kub is due to

A

magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

323
Q

young man with liver failure plus parkinsonism

A

wilsons disease

324
Q

white cell casts in urine

A

acute interstitial nephritis

325
Q

enzyme that causes production of staghorn calculi

A

urease

326
Q
A

Aaska's path (9 decks)

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