Past Papers Flashcards

1
Q

Haversian canals DO NOT contain

A

Osteocytes processes

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2
Q

Which leukocyte has azurophillic granules and well developed RER and Golgi apparatus?

A

Monocytes

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3
Q

It is NOT TRUE that defensins

A

cooperate with myeloperoxidase in the chlorination of bacterial proteins

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4
Q

Which leukocyte contains three different types of cytoplasmic granules?

A

Neutrophils

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5
Q

Functions of eosinophils DO NOT include

A

Neutralization of mediators produced by mast cells

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6
Q

In the blood platelet, granulomere DOES NOT contain

A

Tubules storing calcium ions

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7
Q

Elasticity of elastic fibers results from

A

Expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules

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8
Q

In proteoglycan aggregates, proteoglycan molecules are connected by

A

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

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9
Q

It is NOT TRUE that procollagen molecules

A

Can aggregate with other procollagen molecules

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10
Q

Indicate a common feature of fibroblasts and plasma cells

A

Well developed RER

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11
Q

In the smooth muscle cell, binding of myosin to actin requires

A

Phosphorylation of myosin

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12
Q

Which cells can spontaneously (without external signal) depolarize their cell membrane?

A

Interstitial cells of canal

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13
Q

FIlaments which protect sarcomere from too excessive stretching are built of:

A

Desmin

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14
Q

In the skeletal muscle fiber, voltage-sensitive protein:

A

Is located in thin myofilament and pulls tropomyosin away from actin

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15
Q

The quadriceps muscle of 100 meter world record holder is built mostly of

A

White muscle fibers

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16
Q

In nerve cells, RER, free ribosomes and dictusomes of the Golgi apparatus are:

A

Poorly developed because nerve cells are not capable of proliferation and differentiation

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17
Q

Neurosecretory cells release peptide hormones at axon terminals. What makes it possible?

A

Kinesin

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18
Q

Suggest the correct arrangement of structures in myelinated nerve fiber (inside-out)

A

Axon - myelin sheath - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm - basal lamina

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19
Q

Which cells have unusual apical cell membrane built of thick protein plates (plaques) interconnected by flexible areas of normal cell membrane?

A

Dome-shaped cells of urothelium

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20
Q

In stratified epithelia, dividing cells are located

A

In the basal layers

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21
Q

In the microvillus, actin filaments are connected to the cell membrane by

A

myosin

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22
Q

It is NOT TRUE that stereocilia

A

Contain 9 peripheral doublets and 2 central microtubules

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23
Q

Ciliated epithelium can transport objects along its surface because

A

Bending (active phase) is unidirectional but slightly delayed in successive cilia

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24
Q

Which transmembrane linker protein occurs in anchoring (mechanical) cell-cell and cell-ECM junctions?

A

Cadherins & integrins

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25
Q

What filaments are transmembrane linker proteins connected by?

A

Actin filaments

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26
Q

Does the basal lamina control the passage of small molecules?

A

No, it’s function is intense transport of molecules (ions) across the basal cell membrane. It limits the transport of big (!) molecules passing across the membrane.

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27
Q

Hemapoietic stem cells first differentiate into

A

Stem cells for lymphopoetic lineage and stem cells of other lineages

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28
Q

The most numerous cells present in the hematopoetic bone marrow belong to

A

Granulopoetic lineage

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29
Q

Which cell of the granulopoetic lineage is the first to contain specific granules?

A

Myelocyte

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30
Q

Nerve cells with pyriform bodies and dendritic trees immensely branched in one plane are typically observed in:

A

Cerebellar cortex (Purkinje cells)

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31
Q

In the choroid plexus, ependymal cells covering the villi are interconnected by:

A

Tight junctions

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32
Q

What is responsible for highly selective permeability of the BBB?

A

Endothelial cells

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33
Q

Integrins are NOT present in:

A

Intercalated disks

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34
Q

Name a pair of cells that have different initial origin

A

Osteoclasts & Osteoblasts

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35
Q

Continuous conduction in axon is unidirectional because:

A

After opening, sodium channels close and for some time are insensitive to voltage

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36
Q

In the myelinated nerve fiber, voltage gated sodium channels are present in

A

The initial segment of axon and the regions of Ranvier nodes

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37
Q

Do macrophages produce their own basal lamina?

A

No

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38
Q

Which band DOES NOT change during sacromere contraction?

A

A

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39
Q

Where is Alpha actinin located?

A

In Z-lines of sacromeres, at sites of thin myofilament interconnections in smooth muscle, at sites of thin myofilaments attachments to the cell membrane in smooth muscles

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40
Q

Are mast cells activated by detachment or binding of IgE from/to their receptors?

A

Binding

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41
Q

In which type of cell of CT do cells predominate over the ECS?

A

In adipose tissue

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42
Q

Type 3 collagen is predominant in:

A

Reticular CT

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43
Q

The cytoplasm of reticulocyte contains hemoglobin and

A

Clusters of ribosomes

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44
Q

What is the single lipid droplet in unilocular adipocytes surrounded by?

A

A network of intermediate filaments

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45
Q

Cancellous bone is formed by

A

Intramembraneous ossification

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46
Q

Does cancellous bone contain vascular canals or bone marrow in its trabeculae?

A

Bone marrow

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47
Q

Cancellous bone is built of

A

Parallel bone lamellae

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48
Q

Very small skeletal muscle fibers associated with numerous afferent and efferent nerve terminal are:

A

Intrafusal fibers and are located in muscle spindles

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49
Q

What is located in the meshes of 3-dimensional network formed by the contractile apparatus in the cardiac muscle cell?

A

Very numerous mitochondria

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50
Q

In the cardiac muscle, all Cardiomyocytes are interconnected by

A

Gap junctions

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51
Q

Apart from different shape, pseudounipolar neurons differ from other nerve cell types in

A

Pathway of impulse conduction and morphology of dendrites

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52
Q

What does the activity of osteoclasts’ proton pump result in?

A

Local demineralization of resorbed bone

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53
Q

What do osteoblasts do using their receptor mechanism?

A

Influence formation and recruitment of osteoclasts

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54
Q

What is the first event in endochondral ossification?

A

Degeneration of hyaline cartilage in the central area of the shaft

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55
Q

Which plasma component is produced by a cell of CT proper?

A

Gamma-globulins

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56
Q

What is mainly responsible for the resistance of hyaline cartilage to pressure?

A

Proteoglycan aggregates

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57
Q

In the elastic cartilage, elastic fibers are located:

A

Inside chondral territories

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58
Q

Haversian canals do NOT contain

A

Osteocytes processes

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59
Q

Which leukocyte contains 3 different types of cytoplasmic granules?

A

Neutrophils

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60
Q

Functions of eosinophils DO NOT include

A

Neutralizations of mediators produced by mast cells

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61
Q

In the blood platelet, granulomere DOES NOT contain

A

Tubules storing calcium ions

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62
Q

Elasticity of elastic fibers results from

A

Expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules

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63
Q

Can procollagen molecules aggregate with other procollagen molecules?

A

No

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64
Q

Which membrane proteins transport substances by rapid cyclic changes of conformation?

A

Carriers and pumps

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65
Q

The F0 component of the mitochondrial ATP-synthase contains?

A

Proton transporter

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66
Q

The mitochondrial matrix does not contain

A

enzymes responsible for ATP synthase

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67
Q

The activity of sodium-potassium pump (NA, K-ATPase) is an example of a

A

Aniport

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68
Q

The glycocalyx is composed of

A

Sugar residues of membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids

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69
Q

The ion channels cannot be opened by

A

Energy from ATP

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70
Q

The number of ribosomes in a polyribosome depends on

A

Molecular weight

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71
Q

Which adhesion molecules bind to the extracellular substance?

A

Integrins

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72
Q

The signal sequence targeting a protein to the nucleus never occurs together with

A

Signal sequence for SRP

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73
Q

The membrane of RER is continuous with

A

Outer membrane of the nuclear envelope

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74
Q

What is transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm through nuclear pores?

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

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75
Q

The membrane of trans-face of the dictyosome is most similar to

A

Cell membrane

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76
Q

Trans Golgi network does not produce these vesicles:

A

Preperoxisomal

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77
Q

Processes occurring in the dictyosome are:

A

Glycosylation of proteins, phosphorylation of some sugar residues, increase in membrane thickness

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78
Q

In the nucleolus, granular component contains mainly

A

Large ribosomal subunits

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79
Q

The first stages of receptor-mediated endocytosis are most similar to

A

Pinocytosis

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80
Q

Which process occurs in both early and late endosomes

A

Separation of ligands to receptors

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81
Q

During formation of autolysosomes digesting of a mitochondrion the mitochondrion is first

A

Enclosed by ER membrane which next fuses with hydrolase vesicles

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82
Q

Receptors responsible for binding lysosomal enzymes in trans Golgi networks recognize

A

Mannose 6 phosphate residues

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83
Q

Products of lysosomal digestion are transported

A

Across the lysosomal membrane to the cytoplasm

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84
Q

Following ubiquination proteins are digested in

A

Proteasosomes

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85
Q

What is a common feature for phagocytosis and pinocytosis?

A

Membrane fusion

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86
Q

Aggregation of coating protein (clathrin, COP) under a membrane is necessary for

A

Aggregation of receptor and invagination of the membrane

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87
Q

What is a common function of smooth ER and peroxisomes?

A

Synthesis of lipids

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88
Q

Intermediate filament occurring in epithelial cells are built of

A

Cytokeratins

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89
Q

Plus end of microtubule undergoes frequently

A

Polymerization and depolymerization

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90
Q

The compact arrangement of nucleosides in the chromatin fiber results from aggregation of

A

H1 his tones

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91
Q

A vesicle moving towards cell nucleus is transported by

A

Dynein

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92
Q

During apoptosis mitochondria

A

Release cytochrome c which activates caspases

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93
Q

Pumps are

A

Transporters and enzymes

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94
Q

Abundant noncoding DNA sequences are present in

A

Constitutive heterochromatin

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95
Q

How many microtubules will you find in the centrosome

A

54

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96
Q

In the nucleolus pre-rRNA is

A

Cleaved into shorter fragments

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97
Q

What is the correct definition of the nuclear lamina

A

The inner membrane of the nuclear envelope

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98
Q

New peroxisomes originate from vesicles formed by

A

ER and their enzymes are produced on free ribosomes

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99
Q

Which process requires involvement of micro filaments?

A

Phagocytosis

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100
Q

The ERGIC allows

A

Some proteins to return to ER

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101
Q

Caveolae and lipid rafts are specialized areas of

A

Cell membrane

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102
Q

Which lipid present in biological membranes participates in cell signaling?

A

Phosphoinositiol

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103
Q

Coating proteins surround ALL vesicles that

A

Participate in vesicular transport of ligands bound to receptors

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104
Q

The early endosome allows recirculating of receptors to

A

The cell membrane

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105
Q

What happens to receptors for man-6-P present in hydrolase vesicles?

A

They recirculate to the dictyosome

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106
Q

Which protein is produced on RER

A

Histone H1

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107
Q

Hydrolase vesicles contain

A

Inactive enzymes

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108
Q

All mitochondrial proteins are produces

A

On ribosomes not attached to ER

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109
Q

Nucleosome is composed of

A

DNA and his tones

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110
Q

The “head” of ATP synthase complex (F1) contains

A

ATP synthase

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111
Q

Which mitochondrial membrane shows high selective permeability?

A

The inner one

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112
Q

Which function is performed by both SER and peroxisomes?

A

Synthesis of cholesterol

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113
Q

Kinesin and myosin both

A

Walk in the same direction

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114
Q

The major role in the formation of new microtubules is played by

A

Centrioles

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115
Q

After completion of the translation process on RER small ribosomal subunit

A

Dissociated from the large one and the large one dissociates from ER membrane

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116
Q

Import of protein into the target location depends on

A

Amino acid sequence of a small protein fragment

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117
Q

Which adhesion molecules bind sugar residues of adjacent cells

A

Selectins

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118
Q

In the nucleus granular component contains mainly

A

Large ribosomal subunits

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119
Q

Sorting of secretory proteins from lysosomal processes takes place in

A

trans-Golgi network

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120
Q

Transformation of chromatin from “beads on a string” into chromatin fiber is

A

Condensation of chromatin induced by H1 histone

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121
Q

Hydrolase vesicles are initially coated with

A

Clathrin

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122
Q

Autolysosomes are formed by fusion of hydrolase vesicles with

A

Cell constituents surrounded by ER membrane

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123
Q

Mitochondrial DNA encodes

A

Some proteins of the inner membrane

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124
Q

Erythrocytes and blood platelets have no nuclei, what does it result from?

A

The same mechanism of differentiation in the bone marrow

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125
Q

What cells of granulopoietic lineage are the first to occur in 3 variants (neutrophilic, eosinophilic, basophilic)?

A

Metamyelocytes

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126
Q

What cells do platelets come from?

A

Megakaryocytes

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127
Q

Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? (Excluding erythrocytes)

A

Neutrophil

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128
Q

Which leukocyte has a multi-blood (3-5) lobed nucleus?

A

Neutrophil

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129
Q

Approx. what percentage of the volume of blood do the formed elements compromise?

A

45%

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130
Q

Which cells are described to have a central pallor?

A

Erythrocytes

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131
Q

What is the smallest leukocyte?

A

Lymphocytes

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132
Q

What is the largest leukocyte?

A

Monocytes

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133
Q

Is it true that the bactericidal system in neutrophils is oxygen dependent and uses defensins and O2?

A

No

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134
Q

What triggers exocytosis in a mast cell?

A

Binding of antigen to receptor IgE complex

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135
Q

Antigens of ABO blood groups are…

A

Glycocalyx oligosaccharides of erythrocytes

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136
Q

How is heterochromatin distributed in a plasma cell?

A

There is no specific distribution

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137
Q

Which granules of neutrophil DO NOT participate in killing of bacteria?

A

All granule types contain components of the bacteria-killing system

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138
Q

Hyalomere of the blood platelet DOES NOT contain granules with

A

clotting factors

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139
Q

Which leukocyte has azurophilic granules and well developed RER and Golgi apparatus

A

Monocytes

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140
Q

In the blood platelet, the Hyalomere does not contain which organelle?

A

Mitochondria

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141
Q

Leukocyte granules which stain with eosin contain

A

Major basic protein

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142
Q

Which blood cells have a common CFU progenitor cell in bone marrow?

A

Neutrophils and monocytes

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143
Q

How do mature blood cells enter the blood coagulation in the bone marrow?

A

Through transient, large pores in the endothelial cells of blood vessels

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144
Q

Azurophilic granules in leukocytes are a special kind of

A

Hydrolyse vesicles

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145
Q

Blood platelets aggregate at a site where:

A

Collagen of the vascular wall is exposed to the bloodstream

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146
Q

What is common for fibroblasts and plasma cells

A

Characteristic pattern of heterochromatin in the cell nucleus

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147
Q

Which sarcomata protein DOES NOT occur in I band?

A

Myosin

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148
Q

Which band DOES NOT change during sarcomata contraction?

A

A

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149
Q

What is located in the meshes of 3-dimensional network formed by the contractile apparatus in the cardiac muscle cell?

A

Very numerous mitochondria

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150
Q

After binding Ca ions, troponin…

A

Pulls tropomyosin away from actin

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151
Q

Which fiber is made up of fast-twitch muscle?

A

White fibers

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152
Q

What is myosin

A

Muscle fibers

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153
Q

Which type of tissue is a tendon composed of?

A

Dense regular CT

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154
Q

Smooth muscle cells DO NOT contain

A

Miofibrils

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155
Q

T tubules in the skeletal muscle fiber contain…

A

Membrane receptors for acetylcholine

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156
Q

During contraction of the skeletal muscle which element does not undergo shortening?

A

Miofilaments

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157
Q

In the sacromere, M line is formed by…

A

Transversian protein bridges between thick myofilaments

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158
Q

What cells are capable of spontaneous depolarization of cell membrane?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

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159
Q

Filaments which protect sarcomere from too excessive stretching are built of…

A

Titian

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160
Q

What is common for skeletal and cardiac muscle?

A

Structure of the contractile apparatus

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161
Q

Smooth muscle cells are not striated because…

A

The contractile apparatus has no sarcomeres

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162
Q

In the smooth muscle cell, binding of myosin to actin requires

A

Phosphorylation of myosin

163
Q

Thin filaments of ALL muscle types contain

A

Tropomyosin

164
Q

I band of the sarcomere DOES NOT contain

A

Myosin

165
Q

Which bands shorten during sarcomere contraction?

A

I and H

166
Q

Where is alpha-actin located?

A
  1. In Z lines of sarcomeres, 2. At sites of thin myofilaments interconnection in smooth muscle, 3. At sites of thin myofilament attachments to the cell membrane in smooth muscle
167
Q

Inside the myofibril, the first event leading to contraction is

A

Binding of calcium to troponin

168
Q

What is the common feature between skeletal muscle fiber and Cardiomyocyte?

A

The presence of voltage-sensitive protein in T tubule membrane

169
Q

Which junction is NOT a component of the intercalated disk in cardiac muscle?

A

Tight junction

170
Q

Small single terminal cistern are of SR and wide T tubules located at the levels of Z lines are characteristic features of…

A

Cardiac muscle cells

171
Q

Which structure propagates the stimulus inside the skeletal muscle fiber?

A

T tubule

172
Q

What is a muscular triad

A

T tubule flanked by two cisternae of SR

173
Q

Myofibroblasts are…

A

Contractile fibroblast-like cells of mesenchymal origin

174
Q

Smooth muscle cells in the adventitious of large arteries form

A

Circular bundles

175
Q

Some neurotoxins enter axons at their terminals and then get to perikaryon to kill the nerve cells. This results from the activity of

A

Dynein

176
Q

In the node of Ranvier, the cell membrane of the axon contains

A

Numerous voltage-gated sodium channels

177
Q

What surrounds axons of UNMYELINATED nerve fibers in the CNS?

A

Processes of astrocytes

178
Q

Nerve cells with dendrites immensely branched in one plane receiving as many as up to 200 000 synapses per cell are located in:

A

Cerebellar cortex

179
Q

In the synapse, the postsynaptic membrane contain neurotransmitter-gated chloride channels. This synapse is:

A

Ionotropic inhibitory

180
Q

What are the supporting cells in the CNS called?

A

Neuroglia

181
Q

What type of neurons is the most numerous in the body?

A

Multipolar

182
Q

Which cell is a macrophage found in the CNS?

A

Microglia

183
Q

Which meninx is made of delicate web-like CT?

A

Arachnoid

184
Q

What provides tensile strength to a neuron?

A

Neurofilaments

185
Q

Which cells are involved in the BBB?

A

Astrocytes

186
Q

What is the tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle?

A

Perineurium

187
Q

What type of neuron are interneurons?

A

Multipolar

188
Q

Nissl bodies are related to

A

Protein production

189
Q

Which cells are capable of ameboid movement and phagocytosis?

A

Microglial cells

190
Q

In the vast majority of nerve cells, dendrites DO NOT differ from axons in

A

Cytoskeletal components

191
Q

Apart from different shape, pseudounipolar neurons differ from other nerve cell types in:

A

Pathway of impulse conduction and morphology of dendrite

192
Q

Neurosecretory cells release peptide hormones at axon terminals. What makes it possible?

A

Kinesin

193
Q

What is the correct arrangement of structures in a myelinated nerve fiber? (inside-out)

A

Axon-myelin sheath-layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm-basal lamina

194
Q

The presynaptic part NEVER contains

A

Ribosomes

195
Q

So-called basket - a plexus of nerve fibers and terminals surrounds the periokaryon of…

A

Purkinje cells

196
Q

A single Schwann cell produces

A

Cytoplasmic (Schwann) sheaths for several axons

197
Q

So-called grand postsynaptic potential opens…

A

Sodium channels in the initial segment of axon

198
Q

Respiratory pseudostratified epithelium changes into a simple cylindrical one within

A

Bronchioles

199
Q

Brush border, numerous endocytotic vesicles and peribasal stration are typical features of:

A

Proximal tubule of the nephron

200
Q

Which segment of the salivary excretory ducts manifests the strongest capacity for ions transport?

A

Bronchioles

201
Q

Pyramidal cell with clear cytoplasm in HE staining and nasally located irregular nucleus represents the following element of the salivary gland:

A

Mucous tubules

202
Q

Surface epithelium changes its character at the border between pylorus and

A

Duodenum

203
Q

Upper, middle and lower segments of the esophagus differ in

A

Type of muscle in tunica muscularis

204
Q

Thick adventitious with longitudinal smooth muscle bundles is characteristic for

A

Vena cava

205
Q

Thymus-dependent areas are

A

Periarterial sheets of spleen white pulp

206
Q

The capillaries with numerous uniform pores without diaphragms are found in

A

Renal glomerulus

207
Q

In the parotid gland, secretory units are

A

Acini

208
Q

What type of epithelial cells do taste buds consist of

A

Elongated epithelial cells

209
Q

A transition from squamous stratified to simple columnar epithelium takes place on the border of esophagus and

A

Gastric cardia

210
Q

Vasa vasorum are localized in

A

Adventitia of large arteries

211
Q

The transfer of fatty acids from intestinal lumen to lymph takes place via

A

Diffusion across the apical membrane of enterocytes followed by resynthesis and association with proteins

212
Q

Normal erythrocytes can penetrate the wall of

A

Spleen sinusoids

213
Q

Which epithelium reveals the highest dynamic of its normal renewal?

A

Intestinal epithelium on the surface of villi

214
Q

Lymphatic follicles are NOT present in which lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus

215
Q

Lymph flowing through the lymph node gains which components?

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, Immunoglobulins

216
Q

Secretory granules CANNOT be found in which cells of the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes from granular layer

217
Q

Basket cell CANNOT be found in which glands?

A

Sebaceous glands

218
Q

In which lingual papillae are taste buds not present?

A

Filliform papillae

219
Q

What structures DO NOT regularly accompany branches of the bronchial tree?

A

Branches of pulmonary veins

220
Q

What elements are essential for the function of tonsils?

A

Both epithelium and lymphatic tissue

221
Q

Thick muscular media and the presence of internal and external elastic laminae is typical for

A

Distributing artery

222
Q

olfactory receptors are localized in the membrane of

A

Modified cilia of the olfactory cells

223
Q

Alveolar macrophages are located …. And are covered by …

A

On the luminal surface of pneumocystis and are covered by surfactant layer

224
Q

Lymph is carried to lymph nodes by

A

Lymphatic vessels penetrating the capsule

225
Q

Lamina muscularis mucosae in the GI tract first occurs in

A

Esophagus

226
Q

The most permeable blood capillaries can be found in

A

Liver lobule (sinusoids)

227
Q

Which part of the oral mucosa reveals unique features?

A

Dorsal lingual mucosa

228
Q

Which segment of the salivary excretory ducts manifests the strongest capacity for ion transport?

A

Striated duct

229
Q

Pyramidal cell with a clear cytoplasm in HE staining and basally located irregular nucleus represents the following element of the salivary gland:

A

The cell of mucous tubule

230
Q

Upper, middle, and lower segments of the esophagus differ in

A

Type of muscles in tunica muscularis

231
Q

The stomach is lined by which epithelium?

A

Simple columnar

232
Q

Thick adventitia with longitudinally arranged smooth muscle bundles is typical for

A

Vena cava inferior

233
Q

Vasa vasorum may open into

A

The lumen of nourished vessel

234
Q

Intestinal M cells are numerous at sites with

A

Peyer’s patches

235
Q

In what direction does bile flow in the classic liver lobule?

A

From center towards periphery

236
Q

In the cortical region of the lymph node you WILL NOT find

A

Secondary lymphoid nodules

237
Q

Which is larger, trabecular arteries (of the spleen) or central arteries (of the spleen)?

A

Central arteries

238
Q

Red pulp of the spleen DOES NOT contain

A

Trabeculae

239
Q

Mitochondria containing a unique protein channel not associated with ATP synthase complex occur in:

A

Multilocular adipocytes

240
Q

The inter systemic bone lamellae are remnants of

A

Former osteons destroyed during bone remodeling

241
Q

Which cells are NEVER interconnected by gap junctions?

A

Chondrocytes in the isogenous group

242
Q

What contains several layers of flat fibroblasts connected by tight junctions?

A

Perineurium

243
Q

What is a mesaxon

A

Double fold of Schwann cell membrane

244
Q

In metabotrophic inhibitory synapse, neurotransmitter causes

A

Sequence of biochemical reactions leading to opening of chloride channels

245
Q

The first response of presynaptic part to stimulus (depolarization) is

A

Opening of calcium channels

246
Q

Which cells have unusual apical cell membrane built of thick protein plank interconnected by flexible areas of normal cell membrane

A

Dome-shaped cells of urothelium

247
Q

The presence of brush border on the apical surface and mitochondria-associated basal cell membrane suggest that the function of epithelial cells are

A

Resorption and transport control

248
Q

What is common for macrophages and mast cells?

A

Production of interleukins

249
Q

What cells directly originate from mesenchymal stem cells?

A

FAP - fibrocytes/fibroblasts, adipocytes, pericytes

250
Q

In the hyaline cartilage, condensed basophilic ground substance is located:

A

Inside chondral territories

251
Q

Inside the myofibril, the first even leading to contraction is

A

Opening of calcium channel

252
Q

Histological structure of fibrocartilage is most similar to that of

A

Tendon

253
Q

How many connexin molecules are connexons built of?

A

6

254
Q

Fibrillin is found in

A

Reticular CT, elastic cartilage, bone lamella

255
Q

Which one can divide and differentiate, granulocytes or agranulocytes?

A

Agranulocytes

256
Q

In the microvillus, actin filaments are connected to the cell membrane by

A

Myosin

257
Q

In the neutrophils, lysozyme is found in

A

Azurophilic and specific granules

258
Q

Migration of leukocytes from blood to tissue DOES NOT require participation of

A

Actin filaments in the cytoplasm of endothelial cells of blood vessels

259
Q

Which matrix components liberated during bone resorption induce formation of new bone?

A

Bone morphogenic proteins

260
Q

Synoviocytes A are

A

Macrophages

261
Q

Synoviocytes B are

A

Fibroblasts

262
Q

What is responsible for location of sarcomeres in all myofibrils of skeletal muscle fibers at the same levels?

A

Desmin

263
Q

Dense tubulars system of the blood platelet stores

A

Calcium ions

264
Q

In cardiac muscle, all muscle cells are interconnected by

A

Gap junctions

265
Q

An extensive labyrinth of cell membrane invaginations dividing cell cytoplasm into discrete areas are observed in

A

Megakaryocytes

266
Q

What CANNOT be found in both cerebral and cerebellar cortex

A

Pyramidal layer

267
Q

The endothelial cells building the wall of hepatic sinusoids contain

A

Fenestrations of different size without diaphragms

268
Q

The wall of post capillary venues (postcapillaries) is composed of endothelial cells and

A

Pericytes

269
Q

Very thick adventitious containing numerous lolngitudinal bundles of smooth muscle is a characteristic feature of

A

Large veins of thorax and abdomen

270
Q

In capillary vessels, endothelial cells interconnected by tight junctions DO NO have

A

Fenestrations

271
Q

Endothelial cells help leukocytes to migrate from blood tissues by

A

Expression of adhesion molecules keeping leukocytes in contact with the vasculization

272
Q

What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels

A

Endothelium

273
Q

Blood vessels of the sinusoid type are characterized by

A
  1. Presence of pores in endothelial cells, 2. discontinuity of endothelial cells, 3. Discontinuity of basal lamina
274
Q

In a large artery, loose CT is found in

A

Intima

275
Q

Vasa vasorum are more numerous in

A

Veins (than arteries)

276
Q

Passage of leukocytes across a blood vessel DOES NOT require

A

Disappearance of the basal lamina

277
Q

Continuous capillaries halved a diameter smaller than

A

Sinusoids

278
Q

Large veins are characterized by

A

Presence of smooth muscle cells in adventitia

279
Q

Prominent internal elastic lamina is typical for

A

All arteries

280
Q

Weibel-Palade bodies contain

A

Von Willebrand factor of coagulation

281
Q

Elastic fibers and laminae in the arterial wall are produced by

A

Smooth muscle cells

282
Q

Fenestrated capillaries occur in

A

Small intestine

283
Q

T lymphocytes recognize antigen presented by dendritic cell by

A

Binding antigen-MHC II complex to T-cell receptor

284
Q

Which structural component can be found in all regions of the lymph node (cortex, paracortex, medulla)?

A

Reticular CT

285
Q

In the initial phase of humoral immune response, B lymphocyte presents

A

Antigen to Th2 lymphocyte

286
Q

What is common for paracortex of lymph node, periarterial lymphatic sheath in the spleen and thymic lobule?

A

The presence of T lymphocytes

287
Q

In the lymph node, lymph flows from medullary sinuses directly to

A

Efferent lymphatic vessels

288
Q

Which process takes place in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

Elimination of old erythrocytes

289
Q

Lymph is carried to lymph nodes by

A

Venules with high endothelium

290
Q

In the cortical region of lymph node, you WILL NOT find:

A

Secondary lymphoid nodules

291
Q

The scanty cytoplasm of lymphocytes contains

A

Azurophilic granules

292
Q

Lymphatic nodules are the site of

A

B lymphocyte proliferation

293
Q

In the thymus, the cortex contains more lymphocytes than

A

Medulla

294
Q

What is the common feature of neutrophils and lymphocytes?

A

Presence of azurophilic granules

295
Q

What is the correct description of antigen processing by a professional antigen-presenting cell?

A

Partial digestion of antigen and its binding with MHC II molecule

296
Q

The Hassall’s corpuscles control

A

Maturation of Treg lymphocytes

297
Q

What is the common feature of lymph node cortex, white pulp of the spleen, and Peyer’s patches?

A

Presence of lymphoid nodules

298
Q

In the spleen, pariarterial lymphatic sheaths contain mostly

A

T lymphocytes

299
Q

In the spleen, blood from sheathed arterioles flows directly to

A

Intercellular spaces of the splenic cords

300
Q

In the dermis, dermal papillae contain

A

Capillary vessels

301
Q

In the eccrine sweat gland, the terminal portion of the duct if lined with

A

Keratinocyte

302
Q

What is the correct definition of apocrine secretion?

A

Formation and release of cell membrane vesicles containing secretory material

303
Q

The cell envelope of keratinized keratinocyte (corneocyte) is composed of cell membrane and

A

A layer of proteins associated with the inner surface of the cell membrane

304
Q

The papillary layer of dermis contains blood vessels and

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

305
Q

What is the common feature of eccrine and apocrine sweat gland?

A

Shape

306
Q

The least mineralized tissue of the tooth is

A

Cementum

307
Q

The periodontal ligament is built of

A

Collagen fibers

308
Q

The largest lingual papillae are

A

Circumavaliate papillae

309
Q

Cells responsible for taste perception are

A

Columnar (fusiform) epithelial cells

310
Q

Which component is not found in the secretory portions of the salivary gland?

A

Smooth muscle cells

311
Q

Cells responsible for release of K+ ions to saliva are located in

A

Striated ducts

312
Q

Serous demilunes are located in

A

Mucous tubules

313
Q

Which salivary gland contains only serous acini?

A

Parotid gland

314
Q

Lamina propria of mucosa is built of

A

CT

315
Q

Nonkeratinized epithelium covers

A

Inner surface of the cheek

316
Q

The dentinal canaliculi contain

A

Blood vessels, nerve bundles, processes of odontoblast s

317
Q

The most numerous lingual papillae are

A

Filiform papillae

318
Q

In taste buds, taste receptors are located in

A

Microvilli of the taste buds

319
Q

Salivary amylase is produced by

A

serous secretory cells

320
Q

Which segment of the salivary ducts is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

Intercalated duct

321
Q

Which salivary gland contains both serous acini and mucous tubules?

A

Submandibular gland

322
Q

Which tooth tissue shows the lowest level of mineralization?

A

Cementum

323
Q

What is the predominant organic component of dentin?

A

Collagen type 1

324
Q

Dentinal tubules contain

A

Processes of odontoblasts and nerve fibers

325
Q

Periodontal ligament is built of

A

Dense and loose CT

326
Q

Dentogingival junction contains

A

Numerous hemidesmosomes

327
Q

What element is absent from the lingual tonsil?

A

CT capsule

328
Q

Taste buds a span the entire thickness of

A

Striated squamous epithelium

329
Q

Epithelium of the oral cavity is partially

A

Keratinized on the dorsal surface of the tongue

330
Q

The borders between cells are better visible in

A

Mucus secretory units

331
Q

Intercalated ducts start inside of acini, yes or no?

A

NO

332
Q

Which salivary gland has the longest intercalated duct?

A

Parotid gland

333
Q

Which segment of the salivary excretory ducts manifests the strongest capacity for ion transport?

A

Striated duct

334
Q

Pyramidal cell with clear cytoplasm in HE staining and basally located irregular nucleus represents which element of the salivary gland?

A

The cell of mucous tubule

335
Q

Taste buds have exposed

A

Microvilli in the taste pore

336
Q

Interlobular glands of the salivary glands are surrounded by

A

CT

337
Q

Minor salivary glands do not contain which ducts?

A

Striated ducts

338
Q

Which part of the tooth has the structure most similar to bone?

A

Cellular cementum

339
Q

What is located in the dental pulp area adjacent to dentine?:

A

Cell bodies of odontoblasts

340
Q

Fold shaped lingual papillae containing 3 regular secondary papillae is termed

A

Foliate papillae

341
Q

Areas of the oral cavity mucosa involved in mastication are characterized by

A

Absence of submucosa

342
Q

Which mineralized tissue contains canaliculi with cell processes, but does not contain lacunae with cell bodies

A

Dentin

343
Q

What is the common feature of serous acini and mucous tubules of the salivary glands?

A

The presence of myoepithelial cells

344
Q

Epithelium of Dentogingival junction covers

A

Richly vascular CT

345
Q

Cementum is built of morphological subunits termed

A

Lamellae

346
Q

Which glands usually associated with skin can also be found in oral cavity mucosa?

A

Sebaceous glands

347
Q

What DOES NOT influence mineralization of dentin?

A

Formation of HA crystals in adjacent enamel

348
Q

Predentin DOES NOT contain

A

HA crystals

349
Q

Ameloblasts are supplied with oxygen and nutrients by the vessels located

A

Close to enamel organ

350
Q

The presence of IgA in saliva results from

A

Presence of plasma cells in the interstitial CT

351
Q

Areas of interlobular dentin are distributed according to

A

Owen lines

352
Q

Secondary dentin forms

A

The inner layer of dentin

353
Q

In the periodontal ligament, the capillaries

A

Are wider than normal

354
Q

The periodontal ligament contains collagen fibers capable of

A

Rapid remodelling

355
Q

In the course of tooth development, transformation of preodontoblasts into odontoblasts is associated with

A

Morphological polarization of the cells

356
Q

In the enamel, the superficial layer is built of

A

Interprismatic substance

357
Q

Ruffin corpuscles occur in

A

Periodontal ligament

358
Q

In dentin, collagen fibers do not form

A

Bundles

359
Q

Tome’s fibers can be accompanied by

A

Processes of antigen presenting cells

360
Q

Stratum intermedium in the oral cavity is

A

A layer of cells inside enamel organ, adjacent to its inner epithelium

361
Q

Stratified ducts are often not stratified in

A

Sublingual glands

362
Q

The earliest form of mineralized substance produced by ameloblasts is

A

Interpriasmatic substance

363
Q

In the taste bud, gustatory receptors are located

A

In the apical membrane of gustatory cells

364
Q

In the tooth pulp capillaries form

A

A network around odontoblasts

365
Q

Invasion of blood vessels during tooth development DOES NOT mark

A

Transition from primary dental papilla

366
Q

Gustatory receptors are NOT located in the are of contact with

A

Nerve cells

367
Q

In chronic intoxication with lead, the metal is released to saliva and patients show black rims on gums. The effect results from activity of cells present in

A

Striated ducts

368
Q

The length of enamel rods is equal to

A

Enamel thickness

369
Q

What is NEVER found in the developing tooth at early bell stage?

A

Predentin

370
Q

Dental calculus is formed by

A

Mineralization of dental pellicle

371
Q

During mineralization of dentin, the morphological units of mineralization are

A

Calcospherites

372
Q

In the secondary cementum, the cementocyte processes are mostly directed towards

A

Periodontal ligament

373
Q

Differentiation of the inner epithelium cells of enamel organ into ameloblasts proceeds under the influence of

A

Stratum intermedium cells

374
Q

In salivary glands, intercalated duct cells release

A

Bicarbonate ions

375
Q

Hyaline membrane initiating formation of cementum

A

Epithelial root sheath cells

376
Q

What starts earlier, the vascularization or Innervation of the tooth pulp?

A

Vascularization

377
Q

Which is more mineralized, peritubular dentin or intertubular dentin?

A

Peritubular

378
Q

In the oral cavity, areas lined with keratinized epithelium ALWAYS show

A

The absence of submucosa

379
Q

The fastest turnover of collagen fibers takes place in

A

Periodontal ligament

380
Q

The common feature of ALL salivary glands is the presence of

A

Intercalated ducts

381
Q

The earliest morphological symptom of dental organ development is

A

Formation of epithelial dental lamina

382
Q

Which part of the periodontal ligament prevents pressing the tooth into alveolar bone during mastication?

A

Oblique fibers

383
Q

Which has larger HA crystals, enamel or dentin?

A

Enamel

384
Q

In the TMJ, the articular disk is built of

A

Dense CT

385
Q

Water-binding properties of dental pulp result from presence of

A

Hyaluronic acid

386
Q

Gustatory cells of taste buds DO NOT have

A

Axons

387
Q

Activities of enamel organ DO NOT influence

A

Formation of primary cementum

388
Q

Cells of enamel knot secrete

A

Morphogenic proteins and growth factors

389
Q

What is NOT FOUND at the late cap stage of tooth development?

A

Predentin

390
Q

Axons of dentinal tubules

A

Are naked without sheaths

391
Q

Which tonsils have the most numerous and deepest crypts?

A

Palatine

392
Q

It is NOT true that enamel proteins during development are partially transferred to

A

Dentin

393
Q

The course of enamel development:

A

Initially deposited enamel has amorphous structure, without division into prisms and interprismatic substance

394
Q

Mantle dentin

A

Is the first dentin formed, is less mineralized than the other dentin types, is located in the crown adjacent to the inner surface of enamel

395
Q

Gustatory receptors associated with ion channels allow reception of which tastes?

A

Salty and sour

396
Q

In the secretory portion of the sublingual gland, the main secretory cells have

A

Nasally located cell nuclei

397
Q

Periodontal ligament fibers are anchored to which type of cementum?

A

Both acellular and cellular

398
Q

What is the origin of cementum and periodontal ligament?

A

Both originate from dental sac

399
Q

What is NEVER found in the cell rich zone of dental pulp?

A

Odontoblasts

400
Q

Are capillaries of the dental pulp continuous or fenestrated?

A

Both

401
Q

What is the definition of the granular layer of Tomes?

A

Dilated terminal segments of dentinal tubules

402
Q

Initial segments of intercalated ducts are surrounded by

A

Myoepithelial cells

403
Q

Mucosa always contains

A

Lamina propria