Past papers Flashcards

1
Q

What are post-authorisation safety studies?

A

Observational studies conducted after clinical trials

Look at adverse effects in patients not studied e.g. pregnant women, children, liver and renal impairment

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2
Q

What is seen on renal biopsy in HSP (IgA vasculitis)?

A

Mesangial deposition of IgA

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3
Q

What is the difference in serology between acute hepatitis B and false positive hepatitis B?

A

Acute - core IgM antibody

False positive - core IgG antibody

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4
Q

What blood tests are seen in Wilson’s disease?

A

Low caeruloplasmin

High serum, hepatic, and urinary copper

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of alopecia areata?

A

Non scaly discrete patches of hair loss

Increased association with atopic eczema

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6
Q

If urinary calcium is not high enough for thiazide diuretic therapy to prevent renal calculi, what is used?

A

Potassium citrate

Forms complexes with calcium ions

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7
Q

What is a risk of starting statins whilst patients are hypothyroid?

A

Increased risk of myalgia

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8
Q

What is the most common thyroid malignancy?

A

Papillary

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9
Q

What is an adverse effect of urate-lowering therapy?

A

Acute gout attacks

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10
Q

What is the source of bleeding in haemoptysis?

A

Bronchial artery in 90%

Pulmonary artery in 5%

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11
Q

When is serum C-peptide not useful?

A

In the absence of true hypoglycaemia

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12
Q

Define delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Occurs at least 24 hours after transfusion

Clinically evident by 2 weeks post transfusion

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13
Q

Why is flecainide avoided in LVSD or IHD?

A

Negatively inotropic

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14
Q

How is septic arthritis post joint injection diagnosed?

A

Blood cultures (more sensitive than synovial fluid culture)

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15
Q

What are the effects of cocaine?

A
Hyperthermia
Chest pain
Hypertension
Agitation
Arrhythmias
Rhabdomyolysis
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16
Q

Where is the ulnar nerve commonly entraped?

A

At the elbow - medial epicondyle

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17
Q

Why is ABPI required in venous ulcers?

A

Compression bandaging is contra-indicated if there is insufficient arterial blood supply of the foot

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18
Q

What are the effects of systemic sclerosis on the bowel?

A

Small bowel bacterial overgrowth from reduced peristalsis and dilatation

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19
Q

Which drugs can cause lithium toxicity?

A

ACEIs
ARBs
Diuretics

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20
Q

What should be performed before CT scan in acute ulcerative colitis?

A

AXR to exclude toxic megacolon

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21
Q

What antibody is involved in hyperacute organ rejection?

A

IgG - as it is from pre-existing humoral immunity

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22
Q

What is the treatment of restless leg syndrome?

A

Mild: quinine

Mod-severe: ropinirole, pramiprexol, rotigotine

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23
Q

Describe the pupil of acute angle glaucome

A

Dilated

Non-reactive

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24
Q

What is the triad of Miller-Fisher syndrome?

A

Ataxia
Internal and external ophthalmoplegia
Arreflexia

Associated with antibodies to GQ1b

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25
What happens to the RAAS system in CCF?
Pathologically activated due to decreased renal perfusion pressure Leading to high levels of aldosterone, angiotensin, renin
26
What are the joint crystals in gout and pseudo gout?
Gout: needle shaped, negative birefringence Pseudo: rhomboid shaped, positive birefringence
27
What organism colonises indwelling lines?
Staph epidermis
28
What is a side effect of quinolones?
Tendon rupture
29
What investigation is diagnostic of acromegaly?
Growth hormone suppression test
30
How do thiazide diuretics cause hypokalaemia?
Increased loss in the distal tubule | Sodium ions are exchanged for potassium and H+ ions
31
How many anti-retroviral drugs are used for PEP?
3
32
What is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis?
Norovirus
33
What does BRCA code for?
DNA repair protein (tumour suppressor gene)
34
What is a common method of analysis in RCTs?
Intention to treat
35
What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction in pregnancy?
Coronary artery dissection
36
What parameters does the waterlow score use?
``` Continence Age Sex Body weight Nutritional status Skin type Mobility ```
37
What is the initial treatment of erythrodermic psoriasis?
White soft paraffin | Until systemic treatment is initiated
38
What drug can precipitate generalised pustular psoriasis?
Prednisolone
39
What does the SMA supply?
Distal duodenum to 2/3 the way across transverse colon
40
How does intense exercise cause amenorrhoea?
Hypothalamus secretes less GnRH
41
What is anacrotic pulse?
Slow rising pulse seen in aortic stenosis
42
What kind of pulse is found in cardiac tamponade?
Pulsus paradoxus
43
What are the risk factors for completed suicide?
Older age Male Use of alcohol (to a lesser extent)
44
In patients taking morphine with renal impairment, what accumulates?
Morphine 6-glucuronide
45
What is the mechanism of action of isosorbide mononitrate?
Increases cGMP - nitric oxide donor | Mediates the vasodilatory effects of nitrates
46
What blood test results suggest autoimmune hepatitis?
Raised IgG | ALT>AST >1 (favours autoimmune/viral over alcoholic)
47
What is seen in posterior MI?
ST depression and dominant R wave V1-V3
48
What supplies the posterior surface of the heart?
85% - posterior descending | 15% - circumflex (left dominant circulation)
49
What would occlusion in the first septal branch of the LAD lead to?
STE in I and aVL alone
50
What is the treatment of toxic thyroid adenoma?
Radioiodine
51
When is prednisolone indicated in hyperthyroidism?
Thyroiditis
52
How to calculate serum osmolality?
2Na + 2K + glucose + urea
53
What is the treatment of overactive bladder?
Anti-muscarinic drug such as oxybutynin or solifenacin
54
When are hydralazine and isosorbide mononitrate started in heart failure?
3rd line - often started together Hydralazine - arterial vasodilator, isosorbide - venodilator Often if BP is high
55
What are the indications of ivabradine in heart failure?
Often IHD EF<35% HR >75bpm
56
What is the mechanism of action of haloperidol?
D2 receptor antagonist | Binds to receptors in area postrema (medullary structure controlling vomiting)
57
Anaphylactic allergy to penicillin means avoidance of which antibiotics?
Beta-lactams | Includes penicillins, meropenem, cephalosporins
58
What is the mechanism of hypophosphataemia in refeeding syndrome?
Intracellular shift
59
What cardiac diseases are important in pregnancy?
Stenotic valvular lesions (regurgitant lesions well tolerated) Pulmonary hypertension R to L cardiac shunt
60
What is the cause of torticollis?
Contracture of the contralateral sternocleidomastoid muscle
61
What is the most common cause of epiglottitis?
Haemophilus influenzae
62
Which infection can mimic Crohn's disease/appendicitis by causing mesenteric adenitis?
Yersinia enterocolitica
63
How are bone marrow metastases diagnosed?
Pancytopenia | Blood film shows leukoerythroblastic infiltration e.g. nucleated red blood cells, myelocytes, metamyelocytes
64
Where are the site of lesions causing a fixed eye palsy?
Frontal lobe | Eyes look towards lesion
65
Which drugs characteristically cause tremor?
``` Lithium Valproate Tacrolimus/ciclosporin Thalidomide/cytarabine Theophylline ```
66
What is aneuploidy?
Abnormal number of chromosomes
67
What type of biopsy is done in Hodgkin lymphoma?
Excision | Fine needle likely to yield insufficient material
68
What isotype of ANA are associated with lupus?
IgG
69
What is meningococcal meningitis prophylaxis for close contacts?
Ciprofloxacin