Passmed women's health Flashcards

(213 cards)

1
Q

What are the symptoms of candidiasis in women?

A

Itching, white curdy discharge, sour milk odour, dysuria, superficial dyspareunia

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2
Q

What are the symptoms of candidiasis in men?

A

Soreness, pruritis and redness - red glazed plaques and papules on penis

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3
Q

What is the treatment for candidiasis?

A

Antifungals - fluconazole (oral), clotrimazole (topical)

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4
Q

What is the management of cord prolapse?

A

Immediate delivery of the foetus by caesarean section, knees to chest position to prevent further prolapse, reducing cord into vagina, use of tocolytics (terbutaline) to stop uterine contractions

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5
Q

What are the haemoglobin cut offs for when women should receive iron therapy?

A

First trimester: <110g/L
Second/third: <105g/L
Post partum: <100g/L

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6
Q

What is the test for gestational diabetes?

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

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7
Q

What are the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes?

A

Fasting glucose > 5.6 mmol/L
2-hour glucose > 7.8 mmol/L

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8
Q

What are the treatment guidelines for gestational diabetes?

A

If glucose is <7 mmol/L trial diet and exercise changes
If glucose target not met in 1-2 weeks, start metformin
If glucose targets still not met, add short acting insulin
If glucose > 7mmol/L add insulin

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9
Q

What is the typical presentation of genital herpes?

A

Painful genital ulceration (pruritis), some systemic features, tender inguinal lymphadenopathy

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10
Q

What is the first line investigation for herpes?

A

NAAT - Nucleic Acid Amplification Test

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11
Q

How do you treat genital herpes?

A

Saline bathing, analgesia, oral aciclovir for patients with severe symptoms or frequent exacerbations

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12
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in breast-feeding mothers?

A

ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, lithium, benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, amiodarone

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13
Q

What is the first line medical management of post-partum haemorrhage?

A

IV Syntocinon (Oxytocin) followed by ergometrine

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14
Q

What is the definition of a PPH?

A

Loss of >500ml blood after a vaginal delivery

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15
Q

How do you manage a PPH?

A
  • ABC approach, lie woman flat, two peripheral cannulae, group and save, commence warmed crystalloid infusion.
  • rub uterine fundus, catheterisation
  • IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, misoprostol
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16
Q

If cervical cancer smear test is inadequate, when should the test be repeated?

A

Within 3 months
If two consecutive inadequate samples - colposcopy

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17
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

PID, pelvic surgery, previous ectopic, endometriosis, IUCD, POP, IVF

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18
Q

What are the primary features of syphilis?

A

Chancre, local lymphadenopathy

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19
Q

What are the secondary features of syphilis?

A

fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers, warts on genitalia

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20
Q

What are the tertiary features of syphilis?

A

Gummas (granulomatous lesions of skin and bones), AAA, paralysis

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21
Q

Which contraceptives should be stopped after age 50?

A

Injectable contraceptives - depo-provera. COCP (for bone mineral density)

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22
Q

How long after exposure should HIV testing be done?

A

4 weeks - can repeat at 12 weeks

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23
Q

What tests are done for HIV?

A

HIV antibodies (ELISA and western blot), p24 antigen

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24
Q

Anal-oral sex is associated with the transmission of which STI?

A

Hepatitis A

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25
What is placental abruption?
When the placenta comes away from the uterine wall - usually occurs at 25 weeks and presents with bleeding and abdo pain
26
What is vasa praevia?
When the foetal blood vessels run across or near the internal orifice. These can be easily compromised by rupture of the membranes, causing bleeding.
27
What are the treatment guidelines for endometriosis?
1st line - NSAIDS or paracetamol the POP/COCP 2nd line - GnRH agonist 3rd line - androgens
28
What is the terminiolgy used to describe the baby's head in relation to the ischial spine?
Station 0 = at level of ischial spine -2 = 2cm above +2 = 2cm below
29
Which score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required?
Bishop score
30
What are the methods for induction of labour?
Membrane sweep (finger passed through cervix to separate membranes from decidua), vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy (breaking of waters), cervical ripening balloon
31
What methods of induction should be used based on bishop scoring?
If <6 - vaginal prostaglandins/oral misoprostol if >6 amniotomy and IV oxytocin
32
What are the risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Increased levels of beta-hCG (multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease), nulliparity, obesity, family history
33
When should someone be referred for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?
- unable to keep down liquids and antiemetics - ketouria - weight loss > 5% of body weight - comorbidity
34
What are the first line medical treatments for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Antihistamines - cyclizine, promethazine Phenothiazines - prochlorperazine Doxylamine and pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
35
How much folic acid should women at increased risk of neural tube defects take?
5mg (all women should take 400mcg)
36
Which factors put pregnant women at risk of having a child with neural tube defects?
Previous child with NTD, diabetes mellitus, antiepileptic meds, obese, HIV +ve taking co-trimoxazole, sickle cell
37
What are the common causes of folic acid deficiency?
phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, alcohol excess
38
What does the factor V leiden mutation cause?
Activated protein C resistance - predisposes to venous thromboembolism - increases risk of DVT
39
How soon after delivery can someone start the COCP?
After 3 weeks - due to increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Should not be used in breastfeeding mothers. Absolute contraindication if breastfeeding and <6 weeks postpartum
40
How soon after delivery can someone start the POP?
Any time postpartum - even when breastfeeding
41
How soon after delivery can the IUD or IUS be inserted?
Within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks
42
What are the potential complications of twin pregnancies?
polyhydramnios, hypertension, anaemia, haemorrhage, prematurity, malformation, cord prolapse
43
What is the definitive treatment for delayed placental delivery in patients with placenta accreta?
Hysterectomy
44
What is Sheehan's syndrome?
postpartum hypopituitarism - reduction in the function of the pituitary gland following ischaemic necrosis due to hypovolaemic shock following birth
45
How long does it take for the POP to become effective?
2 days, if started after first 5 days of cycle. immediately when taken during first 5 days.
46
What advice should be given about missed pills for POP?
if < 3 hours late, take pill and continue as normal if > 3 hours late, take missed pill as soon as possible and use other method of contraception until pill taking has been re-established for 2 days For Cerazette its 12 hours
47
What is the definition of menorrhagia?
An amount of blood that the person considers to be excessive
48
What is the appropriate investigation for a UTI?
Urine dipstick in women < 65 with no risk factors for complicated UTI Urine culture for women > 65. men, catheterised patients
49
What are the clinical features of a lower urinary tract infection?
Dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, cloudy/smelly urine, lower abdo pain, low-grade fever
50
How much folate should be used in the first 12 weeks of a typical pregnancy?
400ug
51
How much folate should people at a high risk of having a child who develops a NTD take?
5mg
52
Which factors put people at high risk of having a child with a NTD?
- If either partner has a NTD, family history, previous pregnancy - antiepileptic drugs, coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia - BMI > 30
53
How long after pregnancy can the contraceptive implant be implanted?
Straight after birth
54
How long does the contraceptive implant last?
3 years
55
What are the contraindications of getting a contraceptive implant?
Ischaemic heart disease, stroke, breast cancer, liver cirrhosis, liver cancer
56
What is adenomyosis?
The presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium
57
What are the features of adenomyosis?
Dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, enlarged, boggy uterus
58
What is the management of adenomyosis?
Tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia, GnRH agonists, uterine artery embolisation, hysterectomy
59
What are the features of HELLP syndrome?
Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets.
60
What is the cut off Hb levels for iron supplementation in pregnancy?
115 in non-pregnant women, 110 in 1st trimester, 105 in 2nd and 3rd trimester and 100 after childbirth
61
Can pregnant women have MMR vaccines?
NO - it is a live attenuated vaccine, it should not be given to pregnant women or women trying to get pregnant (28days before pregnancy)
62
What is the first line treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding in someone trying to get pregnant?
Tranexamic acid
63
What should you do if you miss one COCP?
Take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, then carry on as normal - no additional contraceptive protection needed
64
What should you do if you miss 2 or more COCP in week 1?
week 1: emergency contraception if unprotected sex, take last missed pill, use other protection until they have taken pills for 7 days
65
What should you do if you miss 2 or more COCP in week 2?
Take last missed pill, no need for emergency contraception
66
What should you do if you miss 2 or more COCP in week 3?
Finish the pills in current pack and then start a new pack the next day, take the last missed pill
67
What is the recurrence rate of postpartum psychosis?
25-50%. 0.2% chance of postpartum psychosis in the general population
68
What percentage of women experience postnatal depression?
60-70% have the baby blues (day 3-7) 10% have postnatal depression (starts around a month after birth)
69
What medication can be used to reduce uterine contractions in umbilical cord prolapse?
Terbutaline - a tocolytic drug
70
What is exomphalos?
When the abdominal contents of a foetus protrude through the anterior abdominal wall, but are covered in an amniotic sac
71
Which cancer does progesterone increase the risk of?
Breast cancer
72
Which cancer does unopposed oestrogen increase the risk of?
Endometrial cancer
73
Which antibiotic is used to treat group B strep in expectant mothers?
Benzylpenicillin
74
What is the management of pregnant women with new onset hypertension and pedal oedema?
Emergency admission to hospital to look for pre-eclampsia
75
What is the management of chicken pox in pregnancy?
Oral aciclovir if > 20 weeks If exposure to varicella-zoster but no symptoms - give Iv Ig VZ asap
76
How is a diagnosis of PCOS made?
Rotterdam criteria - any two of - oligomenorrhea, anovulation - hyperandrogenism - clinical or biochemical signs - polycystic ovaries on US scan
77
What condition should be suspected in an enlarged boggy uterus?
adenomyosis (endometrial tissue embedded in the myometrium)
78
When should you assess the APGAR scores in a baby?
1 and 5 mins of age If it is low, repeat again at 10 mins
79
What investigations should be done for a suspected ovarian malignancy?
Seru CA-125, alpha fetoprotein, beta HCG, cystectomy
80
Where is beta HCG made?
It is first produced by the embryo and then the placental trophoblast. Secreted by the syncytiotrophoblasts, acts to prevent disintegration of the corpus luteum
81
What do you do for <24hr old baby with jaundice?
Measure serum bilirubin within 2 hours - under 24hrs it's always pathological
82
What hypertension medication should be stopped in pregnancy?
ACE-I or ARB - change to labetalol
83
What is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding?
Vaginal atrophy
84
What is the guidance for the management of women over 55 with postmenopausal bleeding?
Should be investigated by transvaginal ultrasound within 2 weeks (suspected endometrial cancer)
85
What is a normal depth of endometrial lining thickness in post-menopausal women?
< 5mm
86
What are the features of postpartum thyroiditis?
Autoimmune thyroiditis. Three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, normal thyroid function. Thyrotoxicosis phase treated with propanolol.
87
What can be given to counteract the effects of the Nexplanon implant?
COCP
88
What happens with smears in pregnancy?
They are postponed to at least 12 weeks post delivery if previous normal smears. If abnormal past smear, seek specialist advice. Smear can be done mid-trimester
89
In transgender males on testosterone therapy, which methods of contraception are contraindicated?
COCP - any other methods containing oestrogen as it interferes with testosterone. (POP is thought to be okay)
90
Can ondanestron be used in pregnancy?
Yes, but is associated with an increased risk of cleft palate if used in the 1st trimester
91
What is the vertical response rate for Hep B without intervention?
20%
92
Can a mother with Hep B breastfeed her newborn?
Yes
93
Who is offered screening for hep B?
All pregnant women
94
What is the screening tool for postnatal depression?
Edinburgh scale
95
What is the treatment for large fibroids when trying to concieve?
myomectomy
96
What drug is used for the medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?
Methotrexate
97
What is lochia?
The normal vaginal bleeding that occurs for the first 2 weeks following birth (vaginal or C-section), usually red bleeding followed by brown
98
What type of delivery should you do in a woman with placenta previa over cervix?
C-section at 37-38 weeks if within 2cm of cervix Rescan at 32 weeks
99
When should you do continuous CTG monitoring in labour?
suspected sepsis, 38 degrees +, hypertension 160/110, oxytocin use, meconium, fresh vaginal bleeding during labour
100
What do you need to know about GBS?
universal screening for GBS should not be offered to all women the guidelines also state a maternal request is not an indication for screening women who've had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) OR testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive if women are to have swabs for GBS this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date IAP should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease IAP should be offered to women in preterm labour regardless of their GBS status women with a pyrexia during labour (>38ºC) should also be given IAP benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis
101
How do you manage an ectopic pregnancy?
>35mm or bHCG > 5,000 or ruptured - manage surgically Medical management if <1,500 expectant if - <35mm, bHCG <1000, no fetal heartbeat
102
When can you give IUD after abortion?
Immediately
103
What is the first line treatment of pre-eclampsia?
Labetalol (nifedipine in asthmatics) Deliver baby as soon as possible
104
When is the booking visit?
8-12 weeks
105
When is the nuchal scanning for downs syndrome available?
11-13+6 weeks
106
When is the foetal anomaly scan done?
18-20+6 weeks
107
What are the signs of retinopathy of prematurity?
Absent red reflex and retinal neovascularisation
108
How long after a termination of pregnancy can a urine pregnancy test remain positive?
up to 4 weeks. bHCG decreases by 50% every 2 days
109
What position should a woman be moved to in cord prolapse?
all fours
110
What SSRIs are used in breastfeeding women?
Sertraline or paroxetine are the SSRIs of choice in breastfeeding women
111
How do you use a contraceptive patch?
Change patch weekly with one week break after 3 weeks
112
What are the features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Pruritis worse on palms, soles and abdomen, raised bilirubin
113
What is the first line treatment intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Ursodeoxycholic acid, vitamin K
114
What is vaginal discharge in trichomonas vaginalis?
Frothy and greenish-yellow
115
What is a tocolytic?
A uterine muscle relaxant drug
116
What are the features of macula degeneration on fundoscopy?
well-demarcated red patches Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor
117
What factors would qualify women for an OGTT at 24-28 weeks?
BMI above 30 kg/m² Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more Previous gestational diabetes Family history of diabetes (first‑degree relative with diabetes) An ethnicity with a high prevalence of diabetes
118
How long after giving birth do women require contraception?
21 days
119
What is the advice regarding methotrexate and trying to concieve?
Men and Women should stop methotrexate 6 months before trying to conceive
120
What is the definition of pre-eclampsia?
New onset high BP > 140/90 after 20 weeks of pregnancy and proteinuria or other organ involvement
121
Can you have a normal vaginal delivery after a C-section?
Yes at >37 weeks, if it is one previous c-section and was a transverse low uterine incision. Contraindications: uterine rupture, longitudinal scar
122
What percentage of women need further treatment following a salpingotomy for ectopic pregnancy?
20% - methotrexate and/or salpingectomy
123
What is the treatment of vaginal candidiasis?
Oral fluconazole - 1st line Clotrimazole pessary if pregnant
124
When should you give anti-D prophylaxis in termination of pregnancy?
After 10 weeks, in women who are rhesus negative
125
Can you breastfeed with mastitis?
Yes
126
What analgesia can you not take if breastfeeding?
Aspirin
127
What blood pressure reading in pregnancy requires admission to hospital?
160/110mmHg
128
What are the glucose values for diabetes?
Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed by either a: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L, or 2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L '5678'
129
How long does it take for the COCP and POP to work?
POP - 2 days (or immediately if within first 5 days of period) COCP - 7 days
130
What medications are used for infertility in PCOS?
Clomifene - 1st line Metformin
131
What investigation should be used to assess reduced foetal movements if doppler is not picking up heartbeat?
Ultrasound
132
What conditions alter alpha-feto protein levels?
raised in neural tube defects, multiple pregnancy, abdo wall defects. decreased in downs syndrome and diabetes
133
What anticoagulants can be taken by pregnant people?
Heparin
134
How often should people with type 1 diabetes test blood glucose levels during pregnancy?
Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hr post meal and bedtime
135
What is a third degree tear?
Injury to the perineum that involves the anal sphincter complex
136
What is the first line treatment of menorrhagia in women not trying to conceive?
IUS
137
Which condition is usually described as a 'bulky' uterus?
Fibroids
138
What is the best measure of ovulation?
Day 28 progesterone levels
139
What medication do you give to patients at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia (one high risk factor or two moderate risk factors?
Low dose aspirin from 12 weeks
140
What are the high risk factors for pre-eclampsia?
hypertension in previous pregnancy, hypertension, autoimmune disease, diabetes
141
What are the moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia?
first pregnancy, age > 40, pregnancy interval > 10yrs, BMI > 35, FH of pre-eclampsia, multiple pregnancy
142
What cancers does the COCP modify the risk of?
increased risk of breast and cervical cancer protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
143
What do you do if a pregnant woman's BP is over 160/110?
Admit to hospital
144
What are the NICE guidelines for induction of labour?
Bishop score < 6 = membrane sweep then vaginal prostaglandins Bishop score > 6 = amniotomy and IV oxytocin
145
What is the main complication of induction of labour?
Uterine hyperstimulation
146
What is the management of a ?ectopic?
Refer immediately to early pregnancy assessment unit
147
What causes amenorrhea in very active women?
Hypothalamic hypogonadism
148
Can you give trimethoprim in pregnancy?
No - but you can give in breastfeeding
149
Which medication is associated with endometrial hyperplasia?
Tamoxifen
150
What is the most common site on an ectopic pregnancy?
Ampulla of fallopian tubes
151
Which vaccine is offered to women between 16-32 weeks?
Pertussis and Influenza
152
What is the safest form of contraception in patients with the BRACA mutation?
copper coil
153
How often should HIV positive patients attend cervical smears?
Annually
154
What are the UKMEC 4 conditions for the COCP?
- 35+ and smoking more than 15 cigarettes a day - migraine with aura, history of thrombosis/stroke/IHD, breast feeding <6 weeks post partum, uncontrolled hypertension, breast cancer, major surgery with immobilisation, antiphospholipid antibodies
155
How long before major surgery should you stop taking the COCP?
4 weeks
156
What is the risk to the baby associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Stillbirth - induction of labour is offered at 37-38 weeks
157
which types of HPV are most associated with cervical cancer?
16 and 18
158
What factors increase the risk of developing cervical cancer?
HPV - 16 and 18 smoking HIV early first intercourse, many sexual partners high parity lower socioeconomic status combined oral contraceptive pill*
159
An ectopic pregnancy in which area is at most risk of rupture?
Isthmus
160
Which medication can be used to suppress lactation?
Cabergoline - dopamine receptor agonist - prevents prolactin secretion
161
What are the symptoms of fibroid degenerationin pregnancy?
Low grade fever, pain, vomiting
162
What are ashermans and sheehans syndrome?
Ashermans - adhesions Sheehans - shock induced hypopituitarism
163
What does it mean if the pearl index is 0.2?
For every 1000 women using this form of contraception, 2 become pregnant per one year
164
What antibiotic used in patients with a late onset group B strep in a previous pregnancy?
Intrapartum Benzylpenicillin
165
What is the triad of wernickes encephalitis?
Ataxia, confusion, nystagmus
166
What are some causes of wernickes encephalopathy?
Alcoholism, severe vomiting
167
How do you treat wernickes encephalopathy?
IV pabrinex - vitamins B and C
168
What is the first line investigation for suspected endometrial cancer?
Transvaginal ultrasound
169
What is the first line medication used to improve infertility in PCOS?
Clomifene
170
What test can you use to identify ROM?
IGF binding protein 1 test or PAMG-1
171
What fluids are given to women with hyperemesis gravidarum?
IV 0.9% saline with potassium
172
What is the management for someone with a bishop score greater than 6?
Amniotomy and IV oxytocin infusion
173
What investigation do you need to do for ?stress incontinence?
Urinalysis to rule out UTI and diabetes
174
What is the gold standard investigation for endometriosis?
laparoscopy
175
How much folic acid should women with epilepsy take?
5mg
176
What medications are used in a medical termination of pregnancy?
oral Mifepristone and vaginal prostaglandins (misoprostal)
177
What do you need to monitor in patients on magnesium sulfate?
urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations
178
In pregnant women with a VTE history, when do you start VTE prophylaxis?
Throughout pregnancy until 6 weeks postnatal (LMWH)
179
What antibiotics should be given in women with PPROM?
Oral erythromycin for 10 days
180
What antibiotics are given to women who are pyrexic during labour?
Benzylpenicillin
181
The levels of which hormone are checked to confirm menopause?
FSH (raised significantly in menopause)
182
Which hormone level is measured to confirm ovulation?
Day 21 progesterone
183
At what gestation should you refer to an obstetrician for lack of foetal movements?
24 weeks - 24 kicking the door
184
What is the management of placental abruption?
Admit and give IV corticosteroids - if less than 36 weeks and baby is alive
185
What should you give women with PPRoM?
IM corticosteroids to reduce risk of respiratory distress syndrome
186
What is the first stage of labour?
From the onset of labour to when the cervix is fully dilated (10cm)
187
What is a threatened miscarriage?
painless bleeding, usually before 24 weeks, cervical os is closed
188
What is a missed/delayed miscarriage?
A gestational sac with a dead foetus without symptoms of expulsion. cervical os is closed, may have some light bleeding
189
What is an inevitable miscarriage?
heavy bleeding with clots and pain, cervical os is open
190
What is an incomplete miscarriage?
not all products of conception have been expelled, pain and vaginal bleeding. cervical os is open
191
What is the first-line management of a woman who comes in with reduced foetal movements?
Handheld doppler - to check for foetal heart beat - if no heartbeat - immediate ultrasound
192
Which gynae disease presents with deep dyspareunia and menorrhagia?
Endometriosis
193
What is the first line treatment of thrush/candidiasis?
1 day of oral fluonazole
194
What repair in required in different types of perineal tears?
1st degree - no repair 2nd degree - repair on ward 3rd and 4th degree - repair in theatre 4th = both sphincters plus rectal mucosa 3rd = one or both sphincters 2nd = perineal muscle 1st = no muscle damage
195
What is the treatment for fibroids in women trying to retain fertility?
Myomectomy
196
How do you work out the foetal position in the pelvis?
occiput anterior = back of baby's head against front of mum anatomically (belly) occiput posterior = back of baby's head against mum's bum Left = occiput towards the left of mum's body as she is looking down at her pelvis
197
What is the treatment for magnesium sulfate induced respiratory depression?
Calcium gluconate
198
What foods should be avoided in Pregnancy?
Liver (high vit A), unpasteurised cheese, raw meat and seafood
199
If a pregnant woman is not immune to rubella what is the management?
Tell them to stay away from anyone with rubella and give MMR in the postnatal period
200
What is the diagnostic triad of hyperemesis gravidarum?
5% pre-pregnancy weight loss dehydration electrolyte imbalance
201
How long do you give magnesium sulfate for in eclampsia?
24hrs after delivery/last seizure
202
How long must lochia be present for to indicate an ultrasound?
6 weeks
203
What do late decelerations indicate?
foetal distress - asphyxia, placental insufficiency
204
If a snow-storm appearance is seen on ultrasound, what is the diagnosis?
Complete hydatidiform mole
205
When can external cephalic version be offered?
36 weeks (37 weeks if multiparous)
206
What drug do you give in an active 3rd stage of labour?
oxytocin - after delivery of the anterior shoulder
207
How long should category 1 and 2 C-sections happen within?
1 - 30 mins 2 - 75 minutes
208
When should you do an oral glucose tolerance test in someone with prexisting diabetes who has got pregnant?
24-28 weeks
209
What happens to blood pressure in pregnancy?
falls in first half of pregnancy before rising to pre-pregnancy levels before term
210
When can women air travel during pregnancy?
Up to 37weeks if uncomplicated singleton up to 32 weeks if twins
211
What SSRI do you give in breastfeeding women?
Paroxetine/sertraline
212
How long after Ullipristal can you take COCP?
5 days
213
What is the management of mastitis?
Flucloxacillin and continue breastfeeding