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Phase 3A > Mocks > Flashcards

Mocks Flashcards

1
Q

What is the triad of haemolytic uraemia syndrome?

A

AkI, thrombocytic anaemia, normocytic anaemia

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for DDH?

A

female, firstborn, family history, breech, oligo/polyhydramnios, high birth weight

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3
Q

What are some examples of MAOIs?

A

phenelzine and tranylcypromine

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4
Q

What foods can’t people on MAOIs have?

A

tyramine-rich foods - cheese, herring, bovril, Oxo, marmite, broad beans

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5
Q

What mood stabilisers can be used for bipolar?

A

Lithium, Valproate is second line

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6
Q

What is the first line med used for depression in bipolar?

A

fluoxetine

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7
Q

What is the immediate management of mania or severe depression in bipolar?

A

urgent referral to CMHT
(routine referral if hypomania)

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8
Q

What kind of tremor is seen in lithium toxicity?

A

course tremor = toxicity
fine tremor = normal Side effect

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9
Q

What are the features of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

A

occurs within hours/days of starting an antipsychotic. Pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability (hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnoea), delirium/agitation

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10
Q

What blood result is usually seen in neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

A

raised creatinine kinase + leukocytosis

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11
Q

What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

A

Stop antipsychotic, IV fluids, dantrolene

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12
Q

What are the features of serotonin syndrome?

A

fast onset, increased reflexes, clonus, dilated pupils

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13
Q

What heart defect is associated with turner’s syndrome?

A

bicuspid aorta

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14
Q

What is LSD?

A

a hallucinogen

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15
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA genes, many ovulations - early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

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16
Q

What is the treatment for UTIs in pregnancy?

A

1st line : nitrofurantoin (not near term)
2nd line: amoxicillin/cefalexin

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17
Q

What UTI treatment can’t you give pregnanct women?

A

Trimethoprim - no women on METH!!!

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18
Q

What is the treatment for a UTI in non-pregnant adults?

A

trimethoprim/nitrofurantoin for 3 days (7days for men and catheterised patients)

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19
Q

How long must pain be present for for a diagnosis of endometriosis?

A

6 months

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20
Q

What is the first line investigation in chlamydia?

A

vulvovaginal swab - NAAT
men: first void urine sample

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21
Q

What is the treatment of chlamydia?

A

doxycycline - 7 day
if pregnant - azithro/erythromycin

22
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin (IM 2/3doses 1 week apart) or doxycycline

23
Q

What medication do you give to close contacts of people with bacterial meningitis?

A

ciprofloxacin

24
Q

How do you diagnose orthostatic hypotension?

A

BP - drop of >20 systolic or >10 diastolic within 3 mins of standing

25
Q

What are the features of aortic dissection?

A

pain - maximal at point of onset, can spread to back or front of chest

26
Q

Give an example of a DOAC?

A

apixaban/rivaroxaban

27
Q

What is the treatment of VTE?

A

DOACs - rivaroxaban/apixaban for at least 3 months

28
Q

What is the management of pericarditis?

A

NSAIDS and Colchicine

29
Q

What drugs should be given post MI?

A

Aspirin, beta blockers, clopidogrel, ACE-I, statins

30
Q

What is seen in microscopy of gout?

A

negatively bifringent needles (negative needles - henry the 8th had gout and he was negative) monosodium urate

31
Q

What is seen in microscopy of pseudogout?

A

positively bifringent crystals - calcium pyrophosphate

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

A

Cox 1 inhibitor

33
Q

What are the B symptoms of hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Fever, night sweats, weight loss >10% in 6m

34
Q

What are the two common sanctuary sites for chemotherapy?

A

CNS and testes (BBB and BTB)

35
Q

What are the 5 main atypical antipsychotics?

A

Clozapine, Risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole (come run on queen’s ass)

36
Q

Name two typical antipsychotics

A

haloperidol, chlorpromazine (Zines and haloperidol and typical)

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin

A

Is inhibits the synthesis of vitamin-K dependant clotting factors (1972) - used in AF, DVT and PE

38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of DOACs?

A

Factor 10a inhibitors - preventing clotting cascade

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel?

A

aspirin - cox 1 inhibitor, clopidogrel P2Y12 inhibitor - antiplatelet drugs

40
Q

What do you have to do in an APGAR score?

A

appearance, pulse, grimace/reflex, activity, resp effort

41
Q

What are some causes of a loss of red light reflex?

A

congenital cataracts, retinal detachment

42
Q

What are the features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

atypical genitalia in females, very early puberty, rapid initial growth, fertility issues

43
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Lack of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme - autosomal recessive

44
Q

What are the symptoms of adrenal crisis?

A

diarrhoea, vomiting, low blood sugar, seizures and shock. (low sodium and high potassium due to low aldosterone)

45
Q

What is the management of an adrenal crisis?

A

IV fluids, dextrose, hydrocortisone

46
Q

Who must be notified for notifiable diseases?

A

Local health protection unit

47
Q

What is the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Sodium valproate
levetiracetam (in women of child-bearing age)

48
Q

What is the pathophysiology of duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

gene mutation on Xp21, dystrophin is absent which is important for muscle architecture, muscle is lost and is replaced by adipose tissue

49
Q

When does physiological jaundice typically resolve?

A

term - before 14 weeks
preterm - before 21 days

50
Q

What is the treatment of neonatal jaundice?

A

phototherapy and exchange transfusion

51
Q

What type of fracture is a toddler’s fracture?

A

a spiral fracture of the tibia

52
Q
A

Phase 3A (14 decks)

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