Mocks Flashcards
What is the triad of haemolytic uraemia syndrome?
AkI, thrombocytic anaemia, normocytic anaemia
What are the risk factors for DDH?
female, firstborn, family history, breech, oligo/polyhydramnios, high birth weight
What are some examples of MAOIs?
phenelzine and tranylcypromine
What foods can’t people on MAOIs have?
tyramine-rich foods - cheese, herring, bovril, Oxo, marmite, broad beans
What mood stabilisers can be used for bipolar?
Lithium, Valproate is second line
What is the first line med used for depression in bipolar?
fluoxetine
What is the immediate management of mania or severe depression in bipolar?
urgent referral to CMHT
(routine referral if hypomania)
What kind of tremor is seen in lithium toxicity?
course tremor = toxicity
fine tremor = normal Side effect
What are the features of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?
occurs within hours/days of starting an antipsychotic. Pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability (hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnoea), delirium/agitation
What blood result is usually seen in neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?
raised creatinine kinase + leukocytosis
What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?
Stop antipsychotic, IV fluids, dantrolene
What are the features of serotonin syndrome?
fast onset, increased reflexes, clonus, dilated pupils
What heart defect is associated with turner’s syndrome?
bicuspid aorta
What is LSD?
a hallucinogen
What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?
BRCA genes, many ovulations - early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity
What is the treatment for UTIs in pregnancy?
1st line : nitrofurantoin (not near term)
2nd line: amoxicillin/cefalexin
What UTI treatment can’t you give pregnanct women?
Trimethoprim - no women on METH!!!
What is the treatment for a UTI in non-pregnant adults?
trimethoprim/nitrofurantoin for 3 days (7days for men and catheterised patients)
How long must pain be present for for a diagnosis of endometriosis?
6 months
What is the first line investigation in chlamydia?
vulvovaginal swab - NAAT
men: first void urine sample
What is the treatment of chlamydia?
doxycycline - 7 day
if pregnant - azithro/erythromycin
What is the treatment for syphilis?
Benzathine benzylpenicillin (IM 2/3doses 1 week apart) or doxycycline
What medication do you give to close contacts of people with bacterial meningitis?
ciprofloxacin
How do you diagnose orthostatic hypotension?
BP - drop of >20 systolic or >10 diastolic within 3 mins of standing
What are the features of aortic dissection?
pain - maximal at point of onset, can spread to back or front of chest
Give an example of a DOAC?
apixaban/rivaroxaban
What is the treatment of VTE?
DOACs - rivaroxaban/apixaban for at least 3 months
What is the management of pericarditis?
NSAIDS and Colchicine
What drugs should be given post MI?
Aspirin, beta blockers, clopidogrel, ACE-I, statins
What is seen in microscopy of gout?
negatively bifringent needles (negative needles - henry the 8th had gout and he was negative) monosodium urate
What is seen in microscopy of pseudogout?
positively bifringent crystals - calcium pyrophosphate
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?
Cox 1 inhibitor
What are the B symptoms of hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Fever, night sweats, weight loss >10% in 6m
What are the two common sanctuary sites for chemotherapy?
CNS and testes (BBB and BTB)
What are the 5 main atypical antipsychotics?
Clozapine, Risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole (come run on queen’s ass)
Name two typical antipsychotics
haloperidol, chlorpromazine (Zines and haloperidol and typical)
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin
Is inhibits the synthesis of vitamin-K dependant clotting factors (1972) - used in AF, DVT and PE
What is the mechanism of action of DOACs?
Factor 10a inhibitors - preventing clotting cascade
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel?
aspirin - cox 1 inhibitor, clopidogrel P2Y12 inhibitor - antiplatelet drugs
What do you have to do in an APGAR score?
appearance, pulse, grimace/reflex, activity, resp effort
What are some causes of a loss of red light reflex?
congenital cataracts, retinal detachment
What are the features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
atypical genitalia in females, very early puberty, rapid initial growth, fertility issues
What is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Lack of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme - autosomal recessive
What are the symptoms of adrenal crisis?
diarrhoea, vomiting, low blood sugar, seizures and shock. (low sodium and high potassium due to low aldosterone)
What is the management of an adrenal crisis?
IV fluids, dextrose, hydrocortisone
Who must be notified for notifiable diseases?
Local health protection unit
What is the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
Sodium valproate
levetiracetam (in women of child-bearing age)
What is the pathophysiology of duchenne muscular dystrophy?
gene mutation on Xp21, dystrophin is absent which is important for muscle architecture, muscle is lost and is replaced by adipose tissue
When does physiological jaundice typically resolve?
term - before 14 weeks
preterm - before 21 days
What is the treatment of neonatal jaundice?
phototherapy and exchange transfusion
What type of fracture is a toddler’s fracture?
a spiral fracture of the tibia
